chapter 5- instrument rating

Question 1

When are you required to have an instrument rating for flight in VMC?
A- Flight through an MOA
B- Flight into an ADIZ
C-Flight into class A airspace

Answer 1

C-Flight into class A airspace

Question 2

The pilot in command of a civil aircraft must have an instrument rating only when operating
A- under IFR in positive control airspace
B- under IFR, in weather conditions less than the minimum for VFR flight, and in a class A airspace
C- in weather conditions less than the minimum prescribed for VFR flight

Answer 2

B- under IFR, in weather conditions less than the minimum for VFR flight, and in a class A airspace

Question 3

A certified commercial pilot who carries passengers for hire at night or in excess of 50 NM is required to have at least 
A- an associated type rating if the airplane is of the multiengine class.
B- a First-Class Medical Certificate
C- an instrument rating in the same category and class of aircraft

Answer 3

C- an instrument rating in the same category and class of aircraft

Question 4

Under which condition must the pilot in command of a civil aircraft have at least an instrument rating?
A- when operating in Class E airspace
B- for a flight in VFR conditions while on an IFR flight plan
C- for any flight above an altitude of 1,200 feet AGL. when the visibility is less than 3 miles

Answer 4

B- for a flight in VFR conditions while on an IFR flight plan

Question 5

You intend to carry passengers for hire on a night VFR flight in a single-engine airplane within a 25-mile radius of the departure airport. You are required to possess at least which rating(s)?
A- A Commercial Pilot Certificate with a single-engine land rating
B- A Commercial Pilot Certificate with a single-engine and instrument (airplane) rating.
C- A Private Pilot Certificate with a single-engine land and instrument airplane rating

Answer 5

B- A Commercial Pilot Certificate with a single-engine and instrument (airplane) rating.

Question 6

What limitations is imposed on a newly certified commercial airplane pilot if that person does not hold an instrument pilot rating?
A- The carrying of passengers or property for hire on cross-country flights at night is limited at a radius of 50 nautical miles (NM)
B- The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM for night flights, but not limited for day flights
C- The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited

Answer 6

C- The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited

Question 7

Which limitation is imposed on the holder of a Commercial Pilot Certificate if that person does not hold an instrument rating?
A- That person is limited to private privileges at night
B- That carrying of passengers or property for hire on cross-country flights at night is limited to a radius of 50 NM
C- The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited

Answer 7

C- The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited

Question 8

To carry passengers for hire in an airplane on cross-country flight of more than 50 NM from the departure airport, the pilot in command is required to hold at least
A- a category II pilot authorization
B- a First-Class Medical Certificate
C- a Commercial Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating

Answer 8

C- a Commercial Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating

Question 9

Do regulations permit you to act as pilot in command of an airplane in IMC if you hold a Private Pilot Certificate with ASEL, Rotorcraft category, with helicopter class rating and instrument helicopter rating?
A- No, however, you may do so if you hold a Airline Transport Pilot-Airplane Certificate, limited to VFR
B- No, you must hold either an unrestricted Airline Transport- Airplane Certificate or an airplane instrument rating. 
C- Yes, if you comply with recent IFR experience requirements  for a helicopter

Answer 9

B- No, you must hold either an unrestricted Airline Transport- Airplane Certificate or an airplane instrument rating.

Question 10

Under which condition may you act as pilot in command of a helicopter under IFR?
Your certificates and ratings: Private Pilot Certificate with AMEL and Airplane instrument, rotorcraft category rating, and helicopter class rating.
A- If a certificated helicopter instrument flight instructor is on board
B- If you meet the recent helicopter IFR experience requirements
C- If you acquire a helicopter instrument rating and meet IFR currency requirements

Answer 10

C- If you acquire a helicopter instrument rating and meet IFR currency requirements

Question 11

Do regulations permit you to act as pilot in command of a helicopter in IMC if you hold a Private Pilot Certificate with ASEL, airplane instrument rating, rotorcraft category, and helicopter class rating?

A- Yes, if you comply with the recent IFR experience requirements for a helicopter
B- No, you must hold either an unrestricted Airline Transport Pilot-Helicopter Certificate or a helicopter instrument rating
C- No, however, you may do so if you hold an Airline Transport Pilot-Helicopter Certificate, limited to VFR

Answer 11

B- No, you must hold either an unrestricted Airline Transport Pilot-Helicopter Certificate or a helicopter instrument rating

Question 12

To meet the minimum instrument experience requirements, within the last 6 calendar months you need
A- six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses in the appropriate category of aircraft
B- six hours in the same category aircraft
C- six hours in the same category aircraft, and at least 3 of the 6 hours in actual IFR conditions

Answer 12

A- six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses in the appropriate category of aircraft

Question 13

After you recent IFR experience lapses, how much time do you have before you must pass an instrument proficiency check to act as pilot in command under IFR?
A- 6 months
B- 90 days
C- 12 months

Answer 13

A- 6 months

Question 14

An instrumental rated pilot , who has not logged an instrument time in 1 year or more, cannot serve as pilot in command under IFR, unless the pilot
A- completes the required 6 hours and six approaches, followed by an instrument proficiency check given by an FAA-designated examiner.
B- passes an instrument proficiency check in the category of aircraft involved, given by an approved FAA examiner, instrument instructor, or FAA inspector
C- passes an instrument proficiency check in the category of the aircraft involved, followed by 6 hours and six instruments approaches, 3 of those hours in the category of aircraft involved

Answer 14

B- passes an instrument proficiency check in the category of aircraft involved, given by an approved FAA examiner, instrument instructor, or FAA inspector

Question 15

A pilot’s recent IFR experience expires on July 1 of this year. What is the latest date the pilot can meet the IFR experience requirement without having to take an instrument proficiency check?
A- December 31, this year
B- June 3, next year
C- July 31, this year

Answer 15

A- December 31, this year

Question 16

An instrument rated pilot is planning a flight under IFR on July 10, this year. Before conducting the flight, the pilot must have
A- performed and logged the prescribed tasks and repetitions required for instrument currency no earlier than January 1, this year
B- performed and logged the prescribed
tasks and repetitions required for instrument currency no earlier than February 10, this year.
C- passed an instrument proficiency check between August 1 last year and July 1 this year

Answer 16

A- performed and logged the prescribed tasks and repetitions required for instrument currency no earlier than January 1, this year

Question 17

What minimums conditions are necessary for the instrument approaches required for IFR currency?
A- the approaches may be made in an aircraft , flight simulator, or flight training device
B- At least three approaches must be made in the same category of aircraft to be flown
C- At least three approaches must be made in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown

Answer 17

A- the approaches may be made in an aircraft , flight simulator, or flight training device

Question 18

How may a pilot satisfy the recent flight experience requirement necessary to act as pilot in command in IMC in powered aircraft.? Within the previous 6 calendar months, logged
A- six instrument approaches and 3 hours under actual or simulated IFR conditions within the last 6 months; three of the approaches must be in the category of aircraft involved
B- six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses using navigational aids
C- 6 hours of instrument time under actual or simulated IFR conditions within the last 3 months, including at least six instrument approaches of any kind. Three of the 6 hours must be in flight in an category aircraft.

Answer 18

B- six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses using navigational aids

Question 19

How long does a pilot meet the recency of experience requirements for IFR flight after successfully completing an instrument competency check if not further IFR flights are made?
A- 90 days
B- 6 calendar months
C- 12 calendar months

Answer 19

B- 6 calendar months

Question 20

To meet the minimum required instrument flight experience to act as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR, you must have logged within the preceding 6 calendar months in the same category of aircraft: 6 instrument approaches,
A- holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems
B- and 6 hours of instrument time in an aircraft
C- three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, and 6 hours of instrument time in any aircraft

Answer 20

A- holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems

Question 21

No pilot may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimum prescribed for VFR unless that pilot has, within the preceding 6 calendar months, completed at least
A- three instrument approaches and logged 3 hours
B- six instrument flights under actual IFR conditions
C- six instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems, or passed an instrument proficiency check

Answer 21

C- six instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems, or passed an instrument proficiency check

Question 22

Enroute weather conditions are IMC, However, during the decent to your destination for an ILS approach, you encounter VMC weather conditions prior to reaching the initial approach fix. You know that to log the ILS approach toward instrument currency requirements,
A- the flight must remain on an IFR flight plane throughout the approach and landing
B- the ILS approach can be credited on if you use a view-limiting device
C- the ILS approach can be credited regardless of actual weather if you are issued an IFR clearance

Answer 22

B- the ILS approach can be credited on if you use a view-limiting device

Question 23

What recent instrument flight experience requirements must be met before you may act as pilot in command of an airplane under IFR?
A- a minimum of six instruments approaches in an airplane, or an approved simulator (airplane) or ground trainer, within the preceding 6 calendar months
B- a minimum of six instruments approaches, at least three of which must be in an aircraft within the preceding 6 calendar months
C- a minimum of six instruments approaches in an aircraft, at least three of which must be in the same category within the preceding 6 calendar months.

Answer 23

A- a minimum of six instruments approaches in an airplane, or an approved simulator (airplane) or ground trainer, within the preceding 6 calendar months

Question 24

How may a pilot satisfy the recent flight experience requirement necessary to act as pilot in command in IMC powered aircraft? Within the previous 6 calendar months, logged
A- six instruments approaches and 3 hours under actual or simulated IFR conditions within the last 6 months; three of the approaches must be in the category of aircraft involved
B- six instruments approaches, holding procedures and intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems
C- 6 hours of instrument time under actual or simulated IFR conditions within the last 3 months, including at least six instrument approaches of any kind. Three of the six hours must be in flight in an category aircraft.

Answer 24

B- six instruments approaches, holding procedures and intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems

Question 29

What recent instrument flight experience requirement must be met before you may act as pilot in command of an airplane under IFR?
A- A minimum of six instruments approaches in an airplane, or an approved simulator (airplane) or ground trainer, within the preceding 6 calendar months
B- A minimum of six instruments approaches, at least three of which must be in an aircraft within the preceding 6 calendar months
C- A minimum of six instrument approaches in an aircraft, at least three of which must be in the same category within the preceding 6 calendar months

Answer 29

A- A minimum of six instruments approaches in an airplane, or an approved simulator (airplane) or ground trainer, within the preceding 6 calendar months

Question 30

What additional instrument experience is required for you to meet the recent flight experience requirements to act as pilot in command of an airplane under IFR?
1. 3 hours with holding, intercepting and tracking courses in an approved airplane flight simulator
2. two instrument approaches in an airplane
A- three hours of simulated or actual instrument flight time in a helicopter, and two instruments approaches in an airplane or helicopter
B- Three instrument approaches in an airplane
C- Four instrument approaches in an airplane, or an approved airplane flight simulator or training device

Answer 30

C- Four instrument approaches in an airplane, or an approved airplane flight simulator or training device

Question 31

What additional instrument approaches, if any, must you perform to meet the recent flight experience requirements for IFR operation in a helicopter?
Within the preceding 6 calendar months , you have accomplished:

one approach in a helicopter
Two approaches in an airplane
Two approaches in an approved airplane simulator
A- one approach in an airplane, helicopter or approved simulator
B- none
C- five approaches in a helicopter or an approved rotorcraft simulator.

Answer 31

C- five approaches in a helicopter or an approved rotorcraft simulator.

Question 32

What additional flight hours within the preceding 6 calendar months are required to maintain IFR currency in a helicopter, if you already have 3 hours in an instrument simulator?
A- none, but 6 instrument approaches, holding procedures and tracking courses must be accomplished
B- none, but three instrument approaches must also be accomplished
C- 3 hours of actual or simulated instrument time in the same type helicopter

Answer 32

A- none, but 6 instrument approaches, holding procedures and tracking courses must be accomplished

Question 33

Which additional instrument experience is required before you may act as pilot-in-command of a helicopter under IFR?
Your instrument experience within the preceding 6 calendar month is:
2 hours and one instrument approach in an approved helicopter simulator with holding, intercepting and tracking procedures, and one instrument approach in an airplane
A-Three instrument approaches in an airplane or helicopter
B- 1 hour of simulated instrument flight time and two instrument approaches in a helicopter
C- five instrument approaches in a helicopter or an approved helicopter simulator

Answer 33

C- five instrument approaches in a helicopter or an approved helicopter simulator

Question 34

In the 48 contiguous states, excluding the airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all controlled airspace at and above
A- 12,500 feet MSL
B- 10,000 feet MSL
C- Flight level (FL) 180

Answer 34

B- 10,000 feet MSL

Question 35

A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting capability is required in all controlled airspace
A- at or above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding at and below 2,500 feet AGL
B- at and above 2,500 feet above the surface
C- below 10,000 feet MSL, excluding at and below 2,500 AGL

Answer 35

A- at or above 10,000 feet MSL,

Question 36

An aircraft operated under 14 CFR Part 91 IFR is required to have which of the following ?
A- Radar altimeter
B- Dual VOR system
C- Gyroscope direction indicator

Answer 36

C- Gyroscope direction indicator

Question 37

What minimum navigation equipment is required for IFR flight?
A- VOR.LOC receiver, transponder, and DME
B- VOR receiver and, if in ARTS III environment , a coded transponder equipped for altitude reporting
C- Navigation equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used

Answer 37

C- Navigation equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used

Question 38

Where is DME required under IFR?
A- At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required
B- In positive control airspace
C- Above 18,000 feet MSL

Answer 38

A- At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required

Question 39

What action should you take if your DME fails at FL240?
A- Advise ATC of the failure and land at the nearest available airport where repairs can be made
B- Notify ATC that will be necessary for you to go to a lower altitude, since your DME has failed
C- Notify ATC of the failure and continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made

Answer 39

C- Notify ATC of the failure and continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made

Question 40

What is the procedure when the DME malfunctions at or above 24,000 feet MSL?
A- Notify ATC immediately and request an altitude below 24,000 feet.
B- Continue to your destination in VFR conditions and report the malfunction.
C- After immediately notifying ATC, you may continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made

Answer 40

C- After immediately notifying ATC, you may continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made

Question 41

If the aircraft’s transponder fails during flight within Class B airspace,
A- the pilot should immediately request clearance to depart the Class B airspace
B- ATC may authorize deviation from the transponder requirement to allow aircraft to continue to the airport of ultimate destination
C- aircraft must immediately descend below 1,200 feet AGL and proceed to destination

Answer 41

B- ATC may authorize deviation from the transponder requirement to allow aircraft to continue to the airport of ultimate destination

Question 42

When an aircraft is not equipped with a transponder, what requirement must be met before ATC will authorize a flight within Class B airspace?
A- A request for the proposed flight must be made to ATC at least 1 hour before the flight.
B- The proposed flight must be conducted when operating under instrument flight rules
C- The proposed flight must be conducted in visual metrological conditions (VMC)

Answer 42

A- A request for the proposed flight must be made to ATC at least 1 hour before the flight.

Question 43

Aircraft being operated under IFR are required to have, in addition to the equipment required for VFR and night, at least
A- distance measuring equipment
B- dual VOR receivers
C- a slip skid indicator

Answer 43

C- a slip skid indicator

Question 44

To meet the requirements for flight under IFR, an aircraft must be equipped with certain operable instruments and equipment. One of those required is
A- a clock with sweep-second pointer or digital presentation
B- a radar altimeter
C- a transponder with altitude reporting capability

Answer 44

A- a clock with sweep-second pointer or digital presentation

Question 45

The aircraft’s transponder fails during flight within Class D airspace.
A- the pilot should immediately request clearance to depart the Class D airspace
B- No deviation is required because a transponder is not required in Class D airspace
C- Pilot must immediately request priority handling to proceed to destination

Answer 45

B- No deviation is required because a transponder is not required in Class D airspace

Question 46

In addition to a VOR receiver and two-way communications capability, which additional equipment is required for IFR operation in Class B airspace?
A- DME and an operable coded transponder having Mode C capability
B- Standby communications receiver, DME, and coded transponder
C- An operable coded transponder having Mode C capability

Answer 46

C- An operable coded transponder having Mode C capability

Question 47

Prior to operating an aircraft not equipped with a transponder in Class B airspace, a request for a deviation must be submitted to the
A- FAA Administrator at least 24 hours before the propose operation
B- nearest FAA General Aviation District Office 24 hours before the proposed operation.
C- controlling ATC facility at least 1 hour before the proposed flight

Answer 47

C- controlling ATC facility at least 1 hour before the proposed flight

Question 48

Which of the following is required equipment for operating an aircraft within Class B airspace?
A- A 4096 code transponder with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment
B- A VOR receiver with DME
C- A 4096 code transponder

Answer 48

A- A 4096 code transponder with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment

Question 49

The use of certain portable electronic devices is prohibited on aircraft that are being operated under
A- IFR
B- VFR
C- DVFR

Answer 49

A- IFR

Question 50

How can a pilot determine if a Global Positioning System (GPS) installed in an aircraft is approved for IFR enroute and IFR approaches?
A- Flight manual supplement
B- GPS operator’s manual
C- Aircraft owner’s handbook

Answer 50

A- Flight manual supplement

Question 51

Your aircraft had the static pressure system and altimeter tested and inspected on January 5, of this year, and was found to comply with FAA standards. These systems must be reinspected and approved for use in controlled airspace under IFR by
A- January 5, next year.
B- January 5, 2 year hence.
C- January 31, 2 years hence.

Answer 51

C- January 31, 2 years hence.

Question 52

Which checks and inspections of flight instruments or systems must be accomplished before an aircraft can be flown under IFR?
A- VOR within 30 days , altimeter systems within 24 calendar months, and transponder within 24 calendar months
B- ELT test within 30 days, altimeter systems within 12 calendar months, and transponder within 24 calendar months
C- VOR within 24 calendar months, transponder within 24 calendar months, and altimeter system within 12 calendar months

Answer 52

A- VOR within 30 days , altimeter systems within 24 calendar months, and transponder within 24 calendar months

Question 53

An aircraft altimeter system test and inspection must be accomplished within
A- 12 calendar months
B- 18 calendar months
C- 24 calendar months

Answer 53

C- 24 calendar months

Question 54

Who is responsible for determining that the altimeter system has been checked and found to meet 14 CFR Part 91 requirements for a particular instrument flight?
A- Owner
B- Operator
C- Pilot-in-command

Answer 54

C- Pilot-in-command

Question 55

When must an operational check on the aircraft VOR equipment be accomplished when used to operate under IFR?
A- within the preceding 10 days or 10 hours of flight time
B- within the preceding 30 days or 30 hours of flight time
C- within the preceding 30 days

Answer 55

C- within the preceding 30 days

Question 56

If an unpressurized aircraft is operated above 12,500 feet MSL, but not more than 14,000 feet MSL, for a period of 2 hours 20 minutes, how long during that time is the minimum flightcrew required to use supplemental oxygen?
A- 2hours 20 minutes
B- 1 hour 20 minutes
C- 1 hour 50 minutes

Answer 56

C- 1 hour 50 minutes

Question 57

What is the maximum cabin pressure altitude at which a pilot can fly for longer than 30 minutes without using supplemental oxygen?
A- 10,500 feet
B- 12,000 feet
C- 12,500 feet

Answer 57

C- 12,500 feet

Question 58

What is the maximum IFR altitude you may fly in an unpressurized aircraft without providing passengers with supplemental oxygen?
A- 12,500 feet
B- 14,000 feet
C- 15,000 feet

Answer 58

C- 15,000 feet

Question 59

What is the oxygen requirement for an unpressurized aircraft at 15,000 feet?
A- all occupants must use oxygen for the entire time at this altitude
B- crew must start using oxygen at 12,000 feet and passengers at 15,000 feet
C- crew must use oxygen for the entire time above 14,000 feet and passengers must be provided supplemental oxygen only above 15,000 feet

Answer 59

C- crew must use oxygen for the entire time above 14,000 feet and passengers must be provided supplemental oxygen only above 15,000 feet

Question 60

Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with on pilot?
A- night vision may be so impaired that the pilot cannot see other aircraft
B- symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilot’s reactions are affected
C- the pilot may not be able to control the aircraft even if using oxygen

Answer 60

B- symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilot’s reactions are affected

Question 61

What action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected?
A- Breathe at a slower rate by taking very deep breaths
B- Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal
C- Consciously force yourself to take deep breaths and breathe at a faster rate than normal

Answer 61

B- Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal

Question 62

To meet instrument experience requirements of 14 CFR part 61, section 61.75(c), a pilot enters the condition of flight in the pilot logbook as a simulated instrument conditions: What other qualifying information must be entered?
A- location and type of each instrument approach completed and name of safety
pilot
B- number and type of instrument approaches completed and route of flight
C- name and pilot certificate number of safety pilot and type of approaches completed

Answer 62

A- location and type of each instrument approach completed and name of safety
pilot

Question 63

Which flight time may be logged as instrument time when on an instrument flight plan?
A- All of the time the aircraft was not controlled by ground references
B- Only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments
C- Only the time you were flying in IFR weather conditions

Answer 63

B- Only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments

Question 64

What are the minimum qualifications for a person who occupies the other control seat as safety pilot during simulated instrument flight?
A- Private pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings for the aircraft.
B- Private pilot with instrument rating.
C- Private pilot with appropriate category, class, and instrument ratings.

Answer 64

A- Private pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings for the aircraft.

Question 65

What portion of dual instruction time may a certificated instrument flight instructor log as instrument flight time?
A- All time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor, regardless of weather conditions
B- All time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor in actual instrument weather conditions
C- Only the time during which the instructor flies the aircraft by reference to instruments

Answer 65

B- All time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor in actual instrument weather conditions

Question 66

Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight including:
A- all instrument approaches at the destination airport.
B- an alternate airport and adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport.
C- the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the aircraft’s takeoff and landing data

Answer 66

C- the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the aircraft’s takeoff and landing data

Question 67

Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must
A- list an alternate airport on the flight plan and become familiar with the instrument approaches to that airport
B- list an alternate airport on the flight plan and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport
C- be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternative available if the flight cannot be completed

Answer 67

C- be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternative available if the flight cannot be completed

Question 68

MOAs are established to
A- prohibit all civil aircraft because of hazardous or secret activities
B- separate certain military activities from IFR traffic
C- restrict civil aircraft during periods of high-density training activities

Answer 68

B- separate certain military activities from IFR traffic

Question 69

Which airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP?
A- The Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlaying controlled airspace
B-The Class D airspace extending from the surface and terminating at the base of the continental control area
C- The Class C airspace extending from the surface to 700 or 1,200 feet AGL, where designated

Answer 69

A- The Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlaying controlled airspace

Question 70

The vertical extent of the Class A airspace throughout the conterminous U.S. extends from
A- 18,000 feet to and including FL450
B- 18,000 feet to and including FL600
C- 12,500 feet to and including FL600

Answer 70

B- 18,000 feet to and including FL600

Question 71

Class G airspace is that airspace where
A- ATC does not control air traffic
B- ATC controls only IFR flights
C- the minimum visibility for VFR flight is 3 miles

Answer 71

A- ATC does not control air traffic

Question 72

What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?
A- surface to 700 feet AGL
B- 1,200 feet AGL to the base of the overlying controlled space
C- 700 feet AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace

Answer 72

C- 700 feet AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace

Question 73

Unless otherwise specified on the chart, the minimum en route altitude along a jet route is
A- 18,000 feet MSL
B- 24,000 feet MSL
C- 10,000 feet MSL

Answer 73

A- 18,000 feet MSL

Question 74

What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?
A- two-way communications and Mode C transponder
B- two-way communications
C- transponder and DME

Answer 74

A- two-way communications and Mode C transponder

Question 75

What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet with a VFR-On-Top clearance during daylight hours? (Class E airspace.)
A- 3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal
B- 5 SM 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal
C- 5 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal

Answer 75

B- 5 SM 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal

Question 76

What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet MSL with VFR-On-Top clearance during daylight hours?
A- 3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal
B- 5 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal
C- 3 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal

Answer 76

A- 3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal

Question 77

Which publication covers the procedures required aircraft accident and incident reporting responsibilities for pilots?
A- FAR Part 61
B- FAR Part 91
C- NTSB Part 830

Answer 77

C- NTSB Part 830

Question 78

Which sources o aeronautical information, when used collectively, provide the latest status of airport conditions (e.g., runway closures, runway lighting, snow conditions)?
A- Aeronautical Information Manual, aeronautical charts and Distant (D) Notice to Airmen (NOTAM’s)
B- Airport Facility Directory, FDC NOTAM’s and Local (L) NOTAM’s
C- Airport facility Directory and Distant (D) NOTAM’s

Answer 78

C- Airport facility Directory and Distant (D) NOTAM’s

Question 79

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAM’s?
A- To provide the latest information on the status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities for scheduled broadcasts.
B- To issue notices for all airports and navigation facilities in the shortest possible time
C- To advise of changes in flight data which aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publication.

Answer 79

C- To advise of changes in flight data which aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publication.

Question 80

What information is contained in the Notices to Airman Publication (NTAP)?
A- Current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMs
B- All current NOTAMs
C- Current FDC NOTAMs

Answer 80

A- Current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMs

Question 81

From what source can you obtain the latest FDC NOTAM’s?
A- Notices to Airman Publications
B- FAA AFSS/FSS
C- Airport/Facility Directory

Answer 81

B- FAA AFSS/FSS

Question 82

The sensations which lead to spatial disorientation during instrument flight conditions
A- are frequently encountered by beginning instrument pilots, but never by pilots with moderate instrument experience
B- occur, in most instances, during the initial period of transition from visual to instrument flight
C- must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight instruments

Answer 82

C- must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight instruments

Question 83

How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?
A- rely on kinesthetic sense
B- use a very rapid cross-check
C- Read and interpret the flight instruments, and act accordingly

Answer 83

C- Read and interpret the flight instruments, and act accordingly

Question 84

A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation if
A- kinesthetic senses are ignored
B- eyes are moved often in the process of cross checking the flight instruments
C- body signal are used to interpret flight attitude

Answer 84

C- body signal are used to interpret flight attitude

Question 85

Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?
A- reduce head and eye movements to the extent possible
B- rely on the kinesthetic sense
C- rely on the indications of the flight instruments

Answer 85

C- rely on the indications of the flight instruments

Question 86

How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?
A- use a very rapid cross-check
B- properly interpret the flight instruments and act accordingly
C- avoid banking in excess of 30 degrees

Answer 86

B- properly interpret the flight instruments and act accordingly

Question 87

Without visual aid, a pilot often interprets centrifugal force as a sensation of
A- rising or falling
B- turning
C- motion reversal

Answer 87

A- rising or falling

Question 88

Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated instrument conditions can cause
A- Coriolis illusion
B- false horizon
C- elevator illusion

Answer 88

A- Coriolis illusion

Question 89

An abrupt change from climb to straight-and-level flight can create the illusion of
A- tumbling backwards
B- a noseup altitude
C- a descent with the wings level

Answer 89

A- tumbling backwards

Question 90

A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of
A- spinning in the operation direction
B- being in a noseup altitude
C- diving into the ground

Answer 90

B- being in a noseup altitude

Question 91

Tunnel vision and cyanosis are symptoms of
A- hypoxia
B- hyperventilation
C- carbon monoxide poisoning

Answer 91

A- hypoxia

Question 92

A sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon, and a dark scene spread with ground lights and stars can create an illusion known as
A- elevator illusions
B- autokinesis
C- false horizons

Answer 92

C- false horizons

Question 93

Due to visual illusion, when landing on a narrower-than-usual runway, the aircraft will appear to be
A- higher than actual, leading to a lower-than-normal approach
B- lower than actual, leading to a higher-than-normal approach
C- higher than actual, leading to a higher-than-normal approach

Answer 93

A- higher than actual, leading to a lower-than-normal approach

Question 94

What visual illusion creates the same effect as a narrower-than-usual runway?
A- an upsloping runway
B- a wider-than-usual runway
C- a downsloping runway

Answer 94

A- an upsloping runway

Question 95

What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?
A- haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity, making terrain features harder to see
B- the eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily
C- haze creates the illusion of being a greater distance than actual from the runway, and causes pilots to fly a lower approach

Answer 95

C- haze creates the illusion of being a greater distance than actual from the runway, and causes pilots to fly a lower approach

Question 96

Which statement is correct regarding the use of cockpit lighting for night flight?
A- reducing the lighting intensity to a minimum level will eliminate blind spots
B- the use of regular white light, such as a flashlight , will impair night adaptation
C- coloration shown on maps is least affected by the use of direct red lighting

Answer 96

B- the use of regular white light, such as a flashlight , will impair night adaptation

Question 97

Which use of cockpit lighting is correct for night flight?
A-reducing the interior lighting intensity to a minimum level
B- the use of regular white light. such as a flashlight, will not impair night adaptation
C- Coloration shown on maps is least affected by the use of direct red lighting

Answer 97

A-reducing the interior lighting intensity to a minimum level

Question 98

Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight?
A-systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals
B- concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area
C- continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left

Answer 98

A-systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals

Question 99

What is expected of you as pilot on an IFR flight plan if you are descending or climbing in VFR conditions?
A- if on an airway, climb or descent to the right of the centerline
B- advise ATC you are in visual conditions and will remain a short distance to the right of the centerline while climbing
C- execute gentle banks, left and right, at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about

Answer 99

C- execute gentle banks, left and right, at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about

Question 100

Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained during an IFR off-airways flight over mountainous terrain?
A- 1,000 feet above the highest obstacles within a horizontal distance of 4 NM of course
B- 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 5 NM of course
C- 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of course

Answer 100

C- 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of course

Question 101

Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained during an off-airways IFR flight over nonmountainous terrain?
A- 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of course
B- 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 5 SM
C- 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 3 NM of course

Answer 101

A- 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of course

Question 102

Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway?
A- climb on the centerline of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions
B- climb slightly on the right side of the airway when conditions
C- climb far enough to the right side of the airway to avoid climbing or descending traffic coming from the opposite direction if in VFR conditions

Answer 102

A- climb on the centerline of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions

Question 103

In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area where no other minimum altitude is prescribed , no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below an altitude of
A- 500 feet above the highest obstacle
B- 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle
C- 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle

Answer 103

C- 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle

Question 104

If, while in Class E airspace, a clearance is received to “maintain VFR conditions on top,” the pilot should maintain a VFR cruising altitude based on the direction of the
A- true course
B- magnetic heading
C- magnetic course

Answer 104

C- magnetic course

Question 105

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, the minimum altitude for IFR flight is
A- 3,000 feet over all terrain
B- 3,000 feet over the designated mountainous terrain; 2,000 feet over terrain elsewhere
C- 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere

Answer 105

C- 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere

Question 106

In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of
A- 3 SM from the course flown
B- 4 SM from the course flown
C- 4 NM from the course flown

Answer 106

C- 4 NM from the course flown

Question 107

Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?
A- Entering instrument meteorological conditions
B- When leaving final approach fix inbound on final approach
C- Correcting an E.T.A any time a previous E.T.A is in error in excess of 2 minutes

Answer 107

B- When leaving final approach fix inbound on final approach

Question 108

For which speed variation should you notify ATC?
A- When the ground speed changes more than 5 knots
B- When the average true airspeed changes 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater
C- Any time the ground speed changes 10 MPH

Answer 108

B- When the average true airspeed changes 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater

Question 109

What does declaring “minimum fuel” to ATC imply?
A- Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport
B- Emergency handling is required to the nearest useable airport
C- Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur

Answer 109

C- Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur

Question 110

When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between
A- 500 feet per minute and 1,000 feet per minute
B- 500 feet per minute and 1,500 feet per minute
C- 1,000 feet per minute and 2,000 feet per minute

Answer 110

B- 500 feet per minute and 1,500 feet per minute

Question 111

For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways?
A- Fixes selected to define the route
B- There are no compulsory reporting points unless advised by ATC
C- At the changeover points

Answer 111

A- Fixes selected to define the route

Question 112

What action should you take if your NO. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with two VOR receivers. The NO. 1 receiver has VOR/Localizer/ glide slope capability, and the NO.2 has only VOR/Localizer capability.
A- Report the malfunction immediately to ATC
B- Continue the flight as cleared; no report is required
C- Continue the approach and request a VOR or NDB approach

Answer 112

A- Report the malfunction immediately to ATC

Question 113

During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure). The pilot should
A-not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance
B- wait until the situation is immediately perilous before declaring an emergency
C- contact ATC and advise that an urgency condition exists and request priority consideration

Answer 113

A-not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance

Question 114

During that en route phase of an IFR flight, the pilot is advised “ Radar service terminated.” What action is appropriate?
A- Set transponder to code 1200
B- Resume normal position reporting
C- Activate the IDENT feature of the transponder to re-establish radar contact

Answer 114

B- Resume normal position reporting

Question 115

A pilot or crew may not perform any activities except those required to safely operate the aircraft during
A- the preflight walk-around of the aircraft
B- fueling of the aircraft
C- critical phases of flight

Answer 115

C- critical phases of flight

Question 116

The “sterile cockpit” rule is good practice not just for airlines pilots but for all pilots because
A- keeping the cockpit neat and clean keeps you better organized
B- it greatly reduces distractions during critical phases of flight
C- it keeps radio transmission to a minimum

Answer 116

B- it greatly reduces distractions during critical phases of flight

Question 117

During an IFR flight in IMC, you enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?
A- Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time and complete the approach
B- Depart the holding fix at the EFC time, and complete the approach
C- Depart the holding fix at the earliest of the flight planned ETA or the EFC time, and complete the approach

Answer 117

B- Depart the holding fix at the EFC time, and complete the approach

Question 118

Which procedure should you follow if you experience two-way communications failure while holding at a holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.)
A- Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time.
B- Depart the holding fix at the EFC time
C- Proceed immediately to the approach fix and hold until EFC

Answer 118

B- Depart the holding fix at the EFC time

Question 119

You are in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure. If you do not exercise emergency authority, What procedure are you expected to follow?
A- set transponder to code 7600, continue flight on assigned route and fly at the last assigned altitude or the MEA, whichever is higher
B- Set transponder to code 7700 for 1 minute, then to 7600, and fly to an area with VFR weather conditions
C- set transponder to 7700 and fly to an area where you can let down in VFR conditions

Answer 119

A- set transponder to code 7600, continue flight on assigned route and fly at the last assigned altitude or the MEA, whichever is higher

Question 120

Which procedure should you follow it, during an IFR flight in VHR conditions, you have two-way radio communications failure?
A- continue to flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable
B- Continue the flight at assigned altitude and route, start approach at your ETA, or, if late, start approach upon arrival
C- Land at the nearest airport that has VFR conditions

Answer 120

A- continue to flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable

Question 121

What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure?
A- Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA
B- Fly direct to an area that has been forecast to have VFR conditions, fly at an altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacles along the route
C- Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEA’s along the clearance route

Answer 121

A- Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA

Question 122

In the event of two way radio communications failure while operating o an IFR clearance in VFR conditions the pilot should continue
A- by the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received
B- the flight under VFR and land as soon as practical
C- the flight by the most direct route to the fix specified in the last clearance

Answer 122

B- the flight under VFR and land as soon as practical

Question 123

While flying on an IFR flight plan, your experience two-way communications radio failure while in VFR conditions. In this situation, you should continue you flight under
A- VFR and land as soon as practicable
B- VFR and proceed to your flight plan destination
C- IFR and maintain the last assigned route and altitude to your flight plan destination

Answer 123

A- VFR and land as soon as practicable