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Pre-reg exam MRMCOPY > Chapter 5: Infection > Flashcards

Chapter 5: Infection Flashcards

1
Q

What aminoglycosides are active against Pseudomonas and what one is the treatment of choice?

A

Gentamicin - treatment of choice

Amikacin
Tobramycin - usually via inhalation in CF

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2
Q

What aminoglycoside is active against TB?

A

Streptomycin

mainly reserved for this indication

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3
Q

Can aminoglycosides be given orally?

A

No- destroyed by gut => must be given via injection

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4
Q

Is gentamicin a broad or narrow antibiotic?

What strains does it have poor activity against?

A

Broad but inactive against anaerobes and poor activity against haemolytic streptococci and pneumococci

Very good for gram -ve organisms

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5
Q

Which aminoglycoside is used for endocarditis?

If it is resistant to this, what is an alternative aminoglycoside?

A

Gentamicin <3 plus another antibiotic

Streptomycin is an alternative if resistant to gentamicin

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6
Q

Are aminoglycosides more active against gram positive or gram negative?

A

Gram negative but are broad

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7
Q

Can neomycin be given IV?

A

No - too toxic.
Can only be used for skin/mucous membrane infections. However BNF: cream less suitable for prescribing
Can also be used to reduce bacterial population of the colon prior to bowel surgery or in hepatic impairment

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8
Q

What is the problem with using aminoglycosides in myasthenia gravis?

A

Contraindicated

May impair neuromuscular transmission

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9
Q

What antibiotics can be used for prophylaxis in rheumatic fever?

A

Pen V or sulfadiazine

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10
Q

What anitbiotics can be used for prevention of secondary case of menincoccal meningitis?

A

Ciprofloxacin or rifampicin

Or IM ceftriaxone (unlicensed)

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11
Q

What antibiotic can be used for prevention of secondary infection for Group A strep?

A

Pen V

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12
Q

What antibiotic can be used for prevention of secondary infection in Influenza Type B?

MOA?

A

Rifampicin

Antimycobacterial; inhibits bacterial DNA-dependent RNA synthesis by inhibiting bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.

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13
Q

What antibiotic can be used for prevention of secondary cases of diphtheria in non-immune patients?

A

Erythromycin

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14
Q

What would you treat gonorrhoea with?

A

1st:
- Unknown antimicrobial: IMceftriaxone.
- If micro-organism sensitive to ciprofloxacin: oralciprofloxacin.
2nd: alternative to allergy/needle phobia/CI
- IMgentamicin+oralazithromycin.
3rd: If parenteral administration is not possible:
- oralcefixime[unlicensed]+oralazithromycin.

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15
Q

What antibiotic is used for prophylaxis of pertussis (whooping cough)?

A

Clarithromycin

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16
Q

What antibiotic is used post splenectomy or in patients with sickle cell disease for prevention of pneumococcal infection?

A

Pen V

Erythromycin if penicillin allergic

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17
Q

What antibacterial prophylaxis/treatment is used in animal and human bites?

If the patient is penicillin allergic, what should be used instead?

A

Co-amoxiclav
(co-species)

If penicillin allergic: Doxycycline and metronidazole

Up to 5 days and give tetanus jab

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18
Q

What antibacterial prophylaxis do you use in hip and knee replacement?

A

Single dose IV cefuroxime/flucloxacillin

Add in gentamicin

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19
Q

What antibacterial prophylaxis do you use in high lower limb amputation?

A

Use IV co-amoxiclav alone
or
IV cefuroxime + IV metronidazole

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20
Q

What antibacterial prophylaxis do you use in caesarean section?

A

Single dose cefuroxime

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21
Q

What is 1st line for aspergillosis?

What is 2nd line if this cannot be used?

A

Voriconazole

Liposomal amphotericin

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22
Q

If a patient with aspergillosis is intolerant/refractory to voriconazole and liposomal amphotericin, what other antifungals can be used?

A

Caspofungin
Itraconazole
3rd line: posaconazole

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23
Q

What systemic antifungal is used in vaginal candidiasis?

For resistant organisms, what can be used?

A

Fluconazole

Itraconazole as an alternative

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24
Q

What is micafungin licensed for?

A

CANDIDIASIS

  • Invasive candidiasis
  • Oesophageal candidiasis
  • Prophylaxis of candidiasis in patients undergoing haematopoietic stem cell transplantation
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25
Q

Cryptococcal meningitis, a fungal infection, is especially common in which group of immunocompromised patients?

How is this treated?

A

HIV positive

IV amphotericin followed by PO fluconazole

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26
Q

What is tinea capitis?

A

Fungal infection (ringworm) of scalp

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27
Q

What is tinea pedis?

A

Athlete’s foot

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28
Q

How do you treat tinea capitis?

A

Systemically - Griseofulvin

Can also used an additional topical application

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29
Q

True or false:

In fungal nail infections, topical therapy is more effective than systemic

A

False

Systemic is more effective

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30
Q

Is fluconazole active against Aspergillus?

A

No

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31
Q

Is caspofungin effective against CNS fungal infections?

A

No

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32
Q

What is the advantage of lipid amphotericin formulations over conventional amphotericin?

A

Significantly less toxic but also £££ expensive £££

Recommended when the conventional formulation of amphotericin is CI because of toxicity, esp. nephrotoxicity or when response to conventional amphotericin is inadequate

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33
Q

What are echinocandin antifungals active against? (Caspofungin, micafungin)

A

Aspergillus and Candida

Not active against CNS fungal infections

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34
Q

What can be used for MRSA?

  • main class
  • alternatives
  • soft or skin tissue infections
  • bone and joint
A

Glycopeptides mainly: Teicoplanin and vancomycin
Alternatives: Tigecyline, Daptomycin
Linezolid (if glycopeptide unsuitable)

Tetracyclines can be used for skin or soft tissue infections or UTI caused by MRSA

Clindamycin can be used for bone and joint MRSA infections

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35
Q

Are carbapenems useful against MRSA?

A

No

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36
Q

Do carbapenems have good activity against pseudomonas? What is the exception to this?

A

Yes apart from ertapenem

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37
Q

Why does imipenem have to be administered with cilastatin?

A

Imipenem is partially inactivated in the kidney by enzymatic activity and is administered in combination with cilastatin, a specific enzyme inhibitor, which blocks its renal metabolism.

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38
Q

If meningitis is suspected, what antibiotic should be given before being transferred to hospital (as long as this doesn’t delay treatment)?

What would be an alternative?

A

IV benpen
Cefotaxime if penicillin allergic
Chloramphenicol if history of immediate hypersensitivity to penicillin and cephalosporins

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39
Q

When would you use dexamethasone in meningitis?

In what situations would you avoid this?

A

Particularly in pneumococcal meningitis in adults, either before starting antibacterial therapy or within 12 h of starting.

Avoid using in septic shock, mening. septicaemia, immunocompromised, or meningitis following surgery

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40
Q

What is the recommended antibiotic therapy for children 3 months - adults 50 years in meningitis if the cause is unknown?

What is the suggested duration of treatment?

A

Cefotaxime / ceftriaxone
Consider adding vancomycin

10 days

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41
Q

What is the recommended antibiotic therapy for adults over 50 years in meningitis if the cause is unknown?

What is the suggested duration of treatment?

A

Cefotaxime / ceftriaxone AND amoxicillin / ampicillin
Consider adding vancomycin

10 days

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42
Q

What is the recommended antibacterial therapy for meningitis caused by meningococci (neisseria)?

What would be an alternative if not suitable?

What is the suggested duration of treatment?

A

Benpen
Or cefotaxime/ceftriaxone

Chloramphenicol is an alternative if history of immediate hypersensitivity to penicillins or cephalosporins

7 days

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43
Q

What bacteria can be the cause of meningitis? (4)

A

Meningococcal (neisseria)
Pneumococcal
Haemophilus influenzae
Listeria

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44
Q

What is the recommended antibacterial therapy for meningitis caused by pneumococcal?
If the organism if penicillin and cephalosporin resistant, what can be added?
What is the suggested duration of treatment?

A

IV Cefotaxime / ceftriaxone
Consider adding dex before first dose or within 12 hours of starting antibacterial therapy

If penicillin sensitive, change to Benpen*

If penicillin and cephalosporin resistant, vancomycin and rifampicin can be added

14 days!

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45
Q

What is the recommended antibacterial therapy for meningitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae?

What is the suggested duration of treatment?

A

Cefotaxime / ceftriaxone
Consider adding dex before first dose or within 12 hours of starting antibacterial therapy

10 days

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46
Q

What is the recommended antibacterial therapy for meningitis caused by Listeria?

What is the suggested duration of treatment?

If history of immediate penicillin hypersensitivity, what could be an alternative?

A

Amox/ampicillin AND gentamicin

21 days - can consider stopping gentamicin after 7 days

Alternative- co-trimoxazole for 21 days

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47
Q

How should the following be managed:

Patients presenting with sinusitis symptoms of 10 days or less

A

Paracetamol, ibuprofen, nasal saline

Antibiotics not usually required

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48
Q

How should the following be managed:

Patients presenting with sinusitis symptoms of 10 days or more

A

Consider high-dose nasal corticosteroid; mometasone [unlicensed use] or fluticasone [unlicensed use] for 14 days.
Back-up antibiotic can be issued if symptoms do not improve within 7 days

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49
Q

In what situations would you offer antibiotics for sinusitis?

A

Should only be offered to patients with acute sinusitis who are SYSTEMICALLY UNWELL, have signs and symptoms of a more serious illness OR if bacterial sinusitis is suspected.

  • Streptococcus pneumoniae,
  • Haemophilus influenzae,
  • Moraxella catarrhalis, and
  • Streptococcus pyogenes
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50
Q

What is 1st and 2nd line in a non-penicillin allergic sinusitis patient if antibiotics are indicated?

A

1st line- Pen V

2nd line- Co-amox
especially if more serious illness

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51
Q

What is 1st line in a penicillin allergic sinusitis patient if antibiotics are indicated?

A

Doxycycline or clarithyromycin

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52
Q

What is 1st line in a penicillin allergic sinusitis PREGNANT patient if antibiotics are indicated?

A

Erythromycin

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53
Q

What antibiotic can be used in a pregnant UTI patient?

A

Cefalexin

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54
Q

If antibiotics are clinically appropriate, what would be used for otitis externa?

What if the patient is penicillin allergic?

A

Flucloxacillin

Clarithromycin

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55
Q

If antibiotics are clinically appropriate, what would be used for otitis media?

What if the patient is penicillin allergic?

A

Amoxicillin (or co-amox as second line)

Clarithromycin

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56
Q

What antibiotics are likely to cause C.Diff?

A

Clindamycin
Penicillins
Cephalosporins
Fluoroquinolones

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57
Q

What 3 antibiotics can be used in C.Diff?

A

Vancomycin
Metronidazole
Fidaxomicin

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58
Q

For first episode of mild-moderate C.Diff, what should be used and for how long?

A

Oral metronidazole for 10-14 days

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59
Q

For second/subsequent C.Diff infection not responding to metronidazole, what can be used and for how long?

A

Oral vancomycin
Fidaxomicin can be used for severe infection
10-14 days

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60
Q

What antibiotic is used for bacterial vaginosis and how long for?

A

Metronidazole 5-7 days

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61
Q

What antibiotics cover chlamydia? AED

A

Azithromycin (single dose)
Doxycycline
Erythromycin

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62
Q

What would you use to treat gonorrhoea?

If the IM route is not possible, what would you use instead?

A
  1. If unknown species IM 1g ceftriaxone
  2. If sensitive to cipro, oral ciprfloxacin 500mg
  3. Alternative for allergy, contraindication or needle phobia: IM Gentamicin + oral Azithromycin
  4. If IM route not possible oral Cefixime+ Azithromycin
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63
Q

What is the recommended length of treatment for osteomyelitis?

A

6 weeks

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64
Q

Osteomyelitis and septic arthritis antibiotic choice:

  1. First line
  2. If penicillin allergic
  3. If MRSA suspected
A
  1. Flucloxacillin
  2. Clindamycin
  3. Vancomycin or teicoplanin
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65
Q

What penicillins can you use for oral infections e.g. dental?

A

Pen V / Amoxicillin

However these are not effective against bacteria that produces beta lactamases

Co-amox can be used in severe cases

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66
Q

What is drug of choice for acute ulcerative gingivitis?

A

Metronidazole

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67
Q

What is the recommended therapy for Haemophilus influenzae?

A

Cefotaxime / ceftriaxone

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68
Q

What antibiotics do you use to treat an acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis and how long for?

A

Amoxicillin or a tetracycline for 5 days

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69
Q

What antibiotic therapy is recommended in low severity CAP and how long for?
CRB65 score 0, or CURB65 score 0 or 1
What would be alternatives?

A

1st choice: Amoxicillin 500 mg TDS orally or IV
4 for 5 days in total

Alternative antibiotics
- Clarithromycin 500 mg BD or IV
4 for 5 days in total
- Erythromycin (in pregnancy) 500 mg QDS for 5 days
- Doxycycline 200 mg on first day, then 100 mg once a day orally for 5 days

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70
Q

CAP

  • start tx within 4 hrs
  • within 1 hr if sepsis suspected
  • CRB65 or CURB65
A

LOW severity = Oral 1st line: Amoxicillin.
- Alt pen allergy; clarithro, doxy, or erythro (preg).
MODERATE severity = Oral 1st line: Amoxicillin.
- Atypical pathogens sus: Amox + Clari / Erythro (preg).
- Alt pen allergy; clarithromycin, or doxy.
HIGH severity = Oral or IV 1st line:
Co-amoxiclav + clarithromycin / oral erythromycin (preg).
- Alt pen allergy: levofloxacin (consult local microbiologist if fluoroquinolone not appropriate).

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71
Q

What antibiotic therapy is recommended in high severity CAP and how long for?

CRB65 score 3 or 4, or CURB65 score 3 - 5

A

High severity; Oral or IV 1st line:
Co-amoxiclav with clarithromycin or oral erythromycin (in pregnancy).
Alternative in penicillin allergy: levofloxacin (consult local microbiologist if fluoroquinolone not appropriate).
5 days

If MRSA suspected, add teic/vanc

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72
Q

CRB 65 or CURB 65 used when and where?

A

CURB-65 mortality risk score (hospital setting) or CRB-65 severity score (community setting)

  • Confusion
  • BUN > 19 mg/dL (> 7 mmol/L)
  • Respiratory Rate ≥ 30
  • Systolic BP < 90 mmHg or Diastolic BP ≤ 60 mmHg
  • Age ≥ 65
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73
Q

If MSRA was suspected in CAP, what would you add on to the treatment?

A

Teic/vanc

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74
Q

What are the main organisms that cause pneumonia?

A 
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Chlamydia pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Legionella pneumophila
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75
Q

What would you use to treat pneumonia caused by chlamydial/mycoplasma?

A

Doxycycline

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76
Q

What is the difference between early onset vs late onset HAP (in terms of days in hospital)?

A

Early onset = < 5 days admission to hospital

Late onset = > 5 days after admission to hospital

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77
Q

How do you treat HAP?

  • non severe signs/symptoms within 3-5 days of hospital admission and not at ^risk resistance
  • Severe signs/symptoms or at ^ risk of resistance
A

Non-severe signs/symptoms & not at ^!!resistance:
- Oral 1st line: Co-amoxiclav.
- Alt pen alergy; doxycycline, cefalexin (caution in penicillin allergy), co-trimoxazole [unlicensed], or levofloxacin [unlicensed]
Severe signs or symptoms or at higher risk of resistance
- IV 1st line: Piperacillin with tazobactam, ceftazidime, ceftazidime with avibactam, ceftriaxone, cefuroxime, levofloxacin [unlicensed], or meropenem.
- MRSA confirmed/sus: add vancomycin, or teicoplanin, or linezolid

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78
Q

What would you use to treat a small area of impetigo?

A

Fusidic acid

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79
Q

What would you use to treat impetigo?

If penicillin allergic, what would be an alternative?

A 
1. TOPICAL; hydrogen peroxide 1% local.
=> fusidic acid
=> resistant? mupirocin.
1. ORAL 1st line: Flucloxacillin.
Alternative if pen allergy or flucloxacillin unsuitable: clarithromycin or erythromycin (in pregnancy).
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80
Q

What would you use to treat cellulitis?

If penicillin allergic, what can be used?

A

High dose flucloxacillin

Clindamycin/clarithromycin

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81
Q

What antibiotic would you use for mastitis during breastfeeding?

What if penicillin allergic?

A

Flucloxacillin
Pen allergic => Erythromycin

10-14 days

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82
Q

What are the side effects of aminoglycosides?

A

OTOTOXICITY - report tinnitus, hearing loss, vertigo
NEPHROTOXICITY
May impair MUSCLE transmission-c/i in myasthenia gravis

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83
Q

What is the risk of aminoglycosides to the infant in pregnancy?

A

Risk of auditory or vestibular nerve damage

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84
Q

What is a possible problem with carbapenems that means it is cautioned in CNS disorders?

A

Seizure inducing potential
Also ^ risk of seizures if renal impairment

imipenem-cilastatin, meropenem, ertapenem, doripenem, panipenem-betamipron, and biapenem.

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85
Q

Should you give carbapenems if there is a history of immediate hypersensitivity to penicillins?

A

No

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86
Q

True or false:

Cephalosporins penetrate the meninges poorly unless they are inflamed

A

True

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87
Q

What are some common side effects of cephalosporins?

A

Abdominal pain
Eosoniphilia
Thrombocytopenia

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88
Q

Should you give cephalosporins if there is a history of penicillin allergy?

A

Used in caution

But should not be given if there is immediate hypersensitivity

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89
Q

What are the glycopeptide antibiotics?

A

Dalbavancin, Teicoplanin, Telavancin, Vancomycin
- inhibits bacterial cell wall formation by inhibiting peptidoglycan synthesis. Used for treating MRSA infections and enterococcal infections, which are resistant to beta-lactams and other antibiotics.

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90
Q

Which of the following antibiotics has a lower incidence of nephrotoxicity:
Teicoplanin
Vancomycin

A

Teicoplanin

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91
Q

What drugs are associated with red man syndrome?

A

Red Man Syndrome an anaphylactoid reaction caused by the rapid infusion of

Glycopeptides;
Teicoplanin
Vancomycin

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92
Q

What is the main advice to give to patients on clindamycin [lincomycin] and should stop taking if this happens?

A

Diarrhoea

Stop and contact doctor

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93
Q

What are the cautions in macrolides?

A

QT prolongation
and electrolyte disturbances
- clarithromycin, erythromycin, azithromycin

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94
Q

Amoxicillin can cause an increased risk of erythematous rash in what conditions?

A

Acute lymphocytic leukaemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
CMV
Glandular fever

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95
Q

Why should you maintain adequate hydration with high doses of IV amoxicillin?

A

Risk of crystalluria especially in renal impairment

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96
Q

What is the dose of amoxicillin in susceptible infection for a child 1-11 months?

A

125mg TDS

increased up to 30mg/kg TDS if needed

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97
Q

What is the dose of amoxicillin in susceptible infection for a child 1-4 years?

A

250mg TDS

increased up to 30mg/kg TDS if needed

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98
Q

What is the dose of amoxicillin in susceptible infection for a child 5-11 years?

A

500mg TDS

increased up to 30mg/kg TDS if needed

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99
Q

What is the dose of amoxicillin in susceptible infection for a child 12-17 years?

A

500mg TDS

Increased up to 1g TDS if needed

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100
Q

What is the dose of amoxicillin in susceptible infection for an adult?

A

500mg TDS

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101
Q

What is the MHRA warning surrounding flucloxacillin?

A

Cholestatic jaundice and hepatitis

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102
Q

What is a side effect of oral amoxicillin and co-amox in terms of colouring the patient’s tongue?

A

Black hairy tongue

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103
Q

Ciprofloxacin is a type of what antibiotic?

A

Quinolone

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104
Q

What is the important safety information regarding fluoroquinolones?

A

CONVULSIONS; taking NSAIDs may also induce them.
TENDON damage (including rupture) may occur within 48 h of starting treatment
Small increased risk of aortic aneurysm and dissection

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105
Q

Should quinolones be used in MRSA?

A

No

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106
Q

What quinolone is active against pseudomonas?

A

Ciprofloxacin

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107
Q

What are some common side effects of quinolones?

A

QT prolongation
Hearing impairment
Decreased appetite
Rhabdomylosis

Drug should be discontinued if psychiatric, neurological reactions occur

Cautioned in young adults and children- risk of arthropathy (joint disease)

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108
Q

What antibiotic would you use for PCP prophylaxis and treatment?

A

Co-trimoxazole

PCP = pneumocystitis carinii pneumoneai

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109
Q

What is a rare but serious side effect of co-trimoxazole?

A

Blood disorders

Rash - steven johnson’s syndrome

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110
Q

What age group are tetracyclines contraindicated in?

A

Children < 12 due to deposition in growing bones and teeth ; Staining of teeth can occur

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111
Q

What are the common side effects of tetracyclines?
doxy, mino, tiga, tetra
Can they be taken with dairy products?

A

Angiodema
Henoch Schonlein purpura (spotty rash)
Photosensitivity rxn
Headaches and visual disturbances- may indicate benign intercranial hypertension - discontinue if intercranial pressure increases

Dairy products decrease the exposure to tetracycline—manufacturer advises take 1 hour before or 2 hours after dairy products.

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112
Q

Is there any special patient advice with doxycycline?

A

Should be taken with meals

Avoid exposure to sunlight and sun lamps

Do not take zinc, indigestion remedies 2 hours before or after

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113
Q

What is a serious SE of chloramphenicol when given systemically?

A

Haemotological side effects (agranulocytosis, bone marrow disorder)
Aplastic anaemia- reports of leukaemia

Should only be reserved for life-threatening conditions e.g. typhoid fever

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114
Q

What muscle side effect can daptomycin cause?

A

Myopathy; Report any muscle weakness and monitor creatine kinase if necessary
Need to monitor CK twice a week whilst on it

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115
Q

What monitoring requirements are needed for systemic fusidic acid?

A

Elevated liver enzymes, hyperbilirubinaemia and jaundice can occur with systemic use

Manufacturer advises monitor liver function with high doses or on prolonged therapy

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116
Q

What is the important safety information regarding linezolid? [oxazolidinone]

A

Severe optic neuropathy- report visual impairment

Blood disorders - thrombocytopenia, anaemia,

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117
Q

What food does linezolid interact with and why?

A

Tyramine-rich foods (such as mature cheese, salami)
Avoid consuming large amounts
Why? Linezolid is a reversible MAOI

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118
Q

Is linezolid active against gram-ve, gram+ve or both?

A

Gram +ve

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119
Q

What would be the maintenance dose of trimethoprim in an adult for UTI?

A

200mg BD

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120
Q

Can you use trimethoprim in renal impairment?

Can it cause any electrolyte disturbances?

A

Yes- monitor
May need to half normal dose eGFR <15 ml/min
Half dose after 3 days if eGFR 15-30 ml/min
can cause hyperkalaemia and hyponatraemia

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121
Q

What is the patient advice surrounding rifampicin?

A

May stain contact lenses RED
Report signs of LIVER disorder
May colour urine RED - harmless

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122
Q

How does rifampicin interact with hormonal contraceptives?

A

Effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives are reduced - alternative method needed

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123
Q

What antibiotics are used in the initial phase of TB treatment?
How long is treatment for?

A 
Rifampicin
Ethambutol (only in initial phase)
Pyrazinamide (only in initial phase)
Isoniazid with Pyridoxine 
- continue for 2 months initial phase 
- 4 months continuation phase (up to 10 months)

Streptomycin- hardly used but may be useful if resistant to isoniazid

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124
Q

How many antibacterials are used in the continuous phase of TB treatment and how long for?

A

2 - rifampicin and isoniazid (with pyridoxine hcl)

4 months

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125
Q

If someone is isoniazid, what else must be prescribed and why?

A

Pyridoxine (vitamin B6)

Prophylaxis of isoniazid-induced neuropathy

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126
Q

What treatment for TB should be given in pregnancy and breastfeeding?

A

RIPE for 2 months and then RI (Rifampicin and isoniazid) for a further 4 months

Should NOT be given streptomycin

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127
Q

DOT TB therapy should be offered to which groups of people?

A

Directly Observed Therapy should be offered to:

  • History of non-adherence;
  • Previously treated for TB;
  • Are in denial of the TB; multidrug-resistant TB; major psychiatric / cognitive disorder;
  • History of homelessness, drug or alcohol misuse;
  • Are/been in prison the past 5 years;
  • Are too ill to self-administer treatment;
  • Request directly observed therapy.
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128
Q

In a patient with HIV and TB, starting antiretrovirals in the first 2 months of TB treatment can increase the risk of what?

A

Immune reconstitution syndrome

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129
Q

In patients with HIV and TB, how long should the TB treatment be for?

What is the exception to this?

A

6 months

If TB has CNS involvement, 12 months max

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130
Q

What is the general CNS TB treatment?

A

RIPE for 2 months and then RI (Rifampicin and isoniazid) for a further 10 months

Initial high dose of dexamethasone or prednisolone should be started at the same time and slowly withdrawn over 4-8 weeks

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131
Q

What would be the treatment regimen for latent TB?

A

Isoniazid for 6 months - recommended if interactions with rifampicin a concern

OR rifampicin and isoniazid for 3 months - recommended if hepatotoxicity a concern

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132
Q

A break in TB treatment of how many weeks is classed as a treatment interruption?

A

2 weeks

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133
Q

What are the 6 toxicity syndromes associated with intermittent TB treatment?

A

Influenza-like, abdominal, and respiratory symptoms, shock, renal failure, and thrombocytopenic purpura

134
Q

What is the brand name of the medicine that contains RIPE for TB?

A

Voractiv

135
Q

What is the brand name of medicine that contains RI (rifampicin and isoniazid) for TB?

A

Rifinah

136
Q

Why is ethambutol cautioned in young children?

A

Can cause visual impairment

Ethambutol should be used with caution in children until they are at least 5 years old and capable of reporting symptomatic visual changes accurately.

137
Q

What kind of toxcity can ethambutol cause?

A

Ocular - report any visual disturbances
Nephrotoxicity

Other SE include red-green colour blindness, hepatotoxicity

138
Q

What are the main side effects to look out for in a patient on isoniazid?

A

Peripheral neuropathy
Hepatic disorders
Ototoxicity

139
Q

What are the main side effects to look out for in a patient on pyrazinamide?

A

Hepatoxicity

Aggravates gout

140
Q

What antibiotics respond to a lower UTI?

A

Trimethoprim
Nitrofurantoin

Amoxicillin
Ampicillin
Cefalexin

141
Q

What is the recommended duration of treatment for uncomplicated UTI in women?

A

3 days

5 days - men, pregnant, catheter associated

142
Q

What antibiotics for a UTI should be used in pregnancy?

A

Penicillins and cephalosporins are the best choices

143
Q

At what eGFR should you avoid prescribing nitrofurantoin in?

A

<45

144
Q

Does does caspofungin interact with enz inducers and what should be done about the dose?

A

Some enzyme inducers e.g. rifampicin, carbamazepine, phenytoin

increase dose to 70mg daily (if not already on it)

145
Q

What is the risk of giving an infusion of amphotericin?

A

Risk of ARRHYTHMIAS if given too rapidly

Anaphylaxis- test dose needed and close observation for first 30 mins after

146
Q

What are some side effects of amphotericin?

A
  • Abnormal hepatic function (discontinue)
  • Renal impairment
  • Agranulocytosis
  • Arrhythmias
  • Anaemia
  • Chills
147
Q

Are different preparations of amphotericin interchangeable?

A

No as they vary in PD, PK

Should preferably prescribe by brand

148
Q

What are some side effects of fluconazole?

A
  • QT prolongation
  • Oedema
  • If rash occurs, discontinue - could be SCARSs (severe cutaneous reaction)
149
Q

What is a specific side effect with IV isavuconazole?

A

Infusion related reactions:
Hypotension, SOB, paraesthesia
Nausea, headache
- Discontinue if these occur

150
Q

What is the important safety information regarding itraconazole?

A

Reports of heart failure, especially in high risk patients:

  • High dose and long courses
  • Patients on negative ionotropic drugs- CCBs
  • Elderly
  • Chronic heart disease

Should be avoided in those with a history of HF unless the infection is serious

Also, hepatotoxicity that can be life-threatening can occur. Patient should be aware of liver disorder signs

151
Q

What are the specific side effects for voriconazole that requires patient counselling?

A

Hepatotoxicity- be aware of liver disorder signs

Phototoxicity- patients should avoid intense or prolonged exposure to direct sunlight, avoid sunbeds
If they get sunburnt, seek medical attention

It is the antifungal most associated with hallucinations

Keep an alert card on them

152
Q

What is the contraception and conception advice for both men and women who are on griseofulvin (antifungal for dermatophyte infections of the skin)?

A

Women:
Should continue effective contraception at least 1 month after administration. The effectiveness of the pill may reduce so use an additional barrier method

Men:
Avoid fathering a child during and for at least 6 months after administration

153
Q

What adjunctive therapy is recommended in PCP treatment in patients with HIV?

A

For moderate to severe infections, prednisolone for 21 days

154
Q

True or false:

All members in a household must be treated if one person in the house has threadworm

A

True

155
Q

What is the drug of choice for threadworm?

A

Mebendazole

156
Q

For malaria prophylaxis, what are mosquito nets usually impregnated with?

A

Permethrin (insecticide)

157
Q

Can DEET spray be used during pregnancy and breastfeeding?

A

Yes

158
Q

When applying DEET and suncream, what should be applied first?

A

Suncream

Then DEET

159
Q

How does DEET spray affect the SPF of suncream?

A

Lowers it so a factor 30-50 should be used

160
Q

Generally speaking, how much time before travelling should malaria prophylaxis be started?

What are the exceptions to this?

A
  • 1-2 weeks before
    Chloroquine and proguanil hydrochloride 1 week before
    Mefloquine is 2-3 weeks before
    Malarone [atovaquone+proguanil] / doxycycline is 1-2 days before

Continue prophylaxis 4 weeks after leaving area
(except for atovaquone + proguanil = should be stopped 1 week after leaving)

161
Q

How much time before travelling should malaria prophylaxis with Malarone be started?

A

1-2 days before

162
Q

How much time before travelling should malaria prophylaxis with doxycycline be started?

A

1-2 days before

163
Q

How much time before travelling should malaria prophylaxis with mefloquine be started?

A

2-3 weeks before

164
Q

How long can Malarone be used for in malaria prophylaxis?

A

Up to 1 year

165
Q

How long can doxycycline be used for in malaria prophylaxis?

A

Up to 2 years

166
Q

How long can mefloquine be used for in malaria prophylaxis?

A

Up to 1 year

although, if it is tolerated in the short term, there is no evidence of harm when it is used for up to 3 years

167
Q

What antimalarials are unsuitable for those with epilsepy?

What would be alternatives?

A

Chloroquine
Mefloquine

  • Proguanil is recommended in areas with chloroquine resistance
  • Doxycyline or Malarone is recommended in areas without chloroquine resistance
168
Q

Which group of patients are at a particularly high risk of severe malaria?

A

Those without a spleen

169
Q

What antimalarials can be given at their usual dose during pregnancy?

A

Chloroquine
Proguanil

However, resistance exists so may have to look at other options, only if benefit outweighs risk and travel is unavoidable

170
Q

If a pregnant lady is on proguanil during malaria prophylaxis, what else must she be on?

A

Folic acid at high dose (5mg) for at least first trimester

171
Q

How long should malaria prophylaxis continue after leaving the at risk country?

What is the exception to this?

A

Continue for 4 weeks after

Except for Malarone which is 1 week

172
Q

In warfarin patients, when should malaria prophylaxis begin?

A

2-3 weeks before travelling

INR should be stable before departure

173
Q

When should INR be checked in warfarin patients on malaria prophylaxis?

A

Before starting the course
7 days after starting the course
After completing the course

For prolonged stays, INR needs to be checked at regular intervals

174
Q

What is standby malaria treatment?

A

IF visiting remote, malarious areas for prolonged periods (>24 hrs away from medical care) you should carry standby treatment. Self-medication should be avoided if medical help is accessible.

To avoid excessive self-medication, traveller should be provided with written instructions that urgent medical attention should be sought if fever (38°C or more) develops 7 days (or more) after arriving in a malarious area and self-treatment is indicated if medical help is not available within 24 hours of fever onset.

175
Q

When travelling to different places that require 2 different malaria prophylaxis regimens, what do you do?

A

The regimen for the higher risk area should be used for the whole journey

176
Q

What combination of antimalarials is in Malarone/Maloff?

A

Atovaquone and proguanil

177
Q

For the treatment of malaria, if the infective species is unknown/mixed, what are the options?

A

Malarone
Riamet
Quinine

178
Q

What is P. Falciparum resistant to?

A

Chloroquine

179
Q

What are the treatment options for malaria caused by P.Falciparum?

A

Quinine - with doxycycline / clindamycin
Malarone (atovaquone and proguanil)
Riamet (artemether and lumefantrine)

180
Q

What are the treatment options for malaria caused by P.Falciparum in pregnancy?

A

Quinine followed by clindamycin

cannot use doxycycline

181
Q

What are the treatment options for non-falciparum malaria?

A

Chloroquine

However, if resistant- Malarone or Riamet

182
Q

What are the treatment options for non-falciparum malaria in pregnancy?

A

Chloroquine

183
Q

What antimalarials does Riamet contain?

A

Artemether and lumefantrine

184
Q

What is the important safety information with chloroquine?

A

Occular toxicity

Very toxic in overdose

185
Q

What are some side effects of chloroquine?

A
  • QT prolongation
  • Seizures
  • Hypoglycaemia- cautioned in diabetes
186
Q

What is a main neurological side effect of mefloquine?

A

Mefloquine is associated with potentially serious neuropsychiatric reactions. Abnormal dreams, insomnia, anxiety, and depression occur commonly.
- CI with history of psychiatric disorders incl/ depression

Has a long half life so can persist up to several months after discontinuation

187
Q

What screening should be done before a patient starts taking primaquine and why?

A

G6PD as if deficient - can cause haemolysis

188
Q

What is the difference between quinine sulphate and quinine bisulphate?

A

Bisulphate has less quinine in

Should not be used for malaria, only quinine sulphate

189
Q

What is the important safety information regarding quinine?

A

QT prolongation

190
Q

What are the initial treatment options for chronic Hep B?

A

Peginterferon alpha
Interferon alpha
- if no improvement in 4 months stop tx

Entecavir
Tenofovir
- if no improvement 609 months change to other antivirals

191
Q

What determines treatment route for chronic Hep C?

A

Before starting, the genotype of the infecting hepatitis C virus should be determined and the viral load measured as this may affect the choice and duration of treatment.

192
Q

What is used for the initial treatment of chronic Hep C?

A

Combination of ribavirin and peginterferon alpha

Ribavirin monotherapy=ineffective

193
Q

What is the MRHA warning regarding direct-acting antivirals to treat chronic Hep C?

A

Risk of interaction with Vitamin K antagonists and changes in INR. INR needs to be monitored closely

Risk of Hep B reactivation (if patient has both B and C)
Screen for Hep B before starting treatment

194
Q

What is herpes labialis?

A

Cold sore

195
Q

What is herpes zoster?

A

Shingles

196
Q

What is varicella?

A

Chicken pox

197
Q

In shingles, within how many hours of rash onset should antivirals be started?

How long is it continued for?

A

Within 72 hours

Continued for 7-10 days

198
Q

In adults with chickenpox, within how many hours of rash onset should antivirals be started to reduce duration and severity of symptoms?

A

Within 24 hours

199
Q

What kind of drug is foscarnet?

A

Antiviral

200
Q

What antivirals are used for CMV?

A

Ganciclovir IV
Valganciclovir PO
Foscaret - toxic and causes renal impairment

201
Q

During CMV treatment, what does ganciclovir cause if given with zidovudine (for HIV)?

A

Myelosuppression

202
Q

Initial treatment of HIV-1 includes what combination types of antiretroviral drugs?

A

Triple therapy

2 nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors and ONE of the following;

  • Boosted protease inhibitor
  • Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
  • Integrase inhibitor
203
Q

What is used for HIV pre-exposure prophylaxis?

A

Emtricitabine with tenofovir

204
Q

Why are some HIV medicines used in combination with cobicistat?

A

It is a pharmacokinetic enhancer that boosts the concentrations of other antiretrovirals, but it has no antiretroviral activity itself.

205
Q

Name the nucleoside reverse transciptase inhibitors for HIV

A 
Zidovudine
Abacavir
Didanosine
Emtricitabine
Lamivudine
Stavudine
Tenofovir disoproxil.
206
Q

Name the protease inhibitors used for HIV

A 
Atazanavir
Darunavir
Fosamprenavir
Ritonavir
Saquinavir
Tipranavir

Metabolised by cytochrome P450 enzyme systems

207
Q

Name the integrase inhibitors used for HIV

A

Dolutegravir, elvitegravir and raltegravir

208
Q

Name the non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors used for HIV

A

Efavirenz, etravirine, nevirapine, and rilpivirine

209
Q

What is Maraviroc?

A

Antagonist of the CCR5 chemokine receptor. It is licensed for patients exclusively infected with CCR5-tropic HIV.

210
Q

What has been reported in patients with advanced HIV disease or following long-term exposure to antiretroviral treatment?

A

Osteonecrosis

211
Q

What is the MHRA advice regarding preparations containing dolutegravir (integrase inhibitor used for HIV)?

A

Increased risk of neural tube defects; do not prescribe to women seeking to become pregnant; exclude pregnancy before initiation and advise use of effective contraception

212
Q

What CNS effects can efavirenz cause and how can this be reduced?

A

Depression, psychosis, confusion, hallucination, abnormal behaviour, suicidal ideations

Take the dose at bedtime, especially during the first 2-4 weeks of treatment

213
Q

What reaction can occur with HIV medicines?

A

Hypersensitivity e.g. Rash, lesions, oedema, SOB

214
Q

Which HIV medicine is associated with a high incidence of rash including Stevens-Johnson syndrome?

A

Nevirapine

215
Q

What is the important information that requires patient counselling for patients on nevirapine for HIV?

A
  • Hepatotoxicity can occur so patients need to be made aware of symptoms
  • Rash, hypersensitivity reaction
216
Q

Efavirenz for HIV is associated with an increase in plasma concentration of what substance?

A

Cholesterol

217
Q

What are the long term effects of HIV treatment?

A

1.Immune reconstitution syndrome: as the immune system stands up on its feet again due to antiretroviral treatment, marked inflammatory reactions happen against opportunistic organisms

  1. Lipodystrophy syndrome: this is made up of insulin resistance, fat redistribution and dyslipidaemia
    Blood lipids and sugars should be measured before, 3-6 months after and yearly after HIV treatment.
  2. Osteonecrosis: following long-term exposure to treatment.
218
Q

Protease inhibitors are mainly associated with what side effects?

A

Lipodystrophy and metabolic effects.

219
Q

What can be used for the treatment of influenza and within how many hours of symptom onset should it be started?

A

Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) first line and zanamivir is reserved for those who are immunocompromised or when oseltamivir cannot be used
Within 48 hours

220
Q

What can be used for post-exposure prophylaxis of influenza and within how many hours of exposure?

A

Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) within 48 hours of exposure and zanamivir within 36 hours of exposure

221
Q

How long should influenza treatment be for?

A

Twice daily dosing for 5 days

222
Q

How long should post-exposure prophylaxis for influenza be for?

A

Once daily dosing for 10 days

223
Q

What is a particular caution with co-amoxiclav in in terms of side effects?

A

Cholestatic jaundice can occur either during or shortly after the use of co-amoxiclav.

224
Q

What is a rare but potentially fatal side effect of ketoconazole?

A

Associated with fatal hepatotoxicity. The CSM advise that prescribers should
weigh the potential benefits of ketoconazole treatment against the risk of liver damage and should
carefully monitor patients both clinically and biochemically.

225
Q

What penicillin based antibiotics must you take on an empty stomach (1 hour before food or 2 hours after food)?

A

Flucloxacillin
Ampicillin
Penicillin V

226
Q

What shouldn’t a patient take at the same time as tetracycline antibiotics?

A

Do not take milk, indigestion remedies, or medicines
containing iron or zinc at the same time of day as this medicine (prevents absorption of the antibiotic
and should be taken 2-3 hours apart)

Oxytetracycline and tetracycline should be taken on an empty stomach

227
Q

Which tetracycyline antibiotics should be taken on an empty stomach?

A

Oxytetracycline and tetracycyline

228
Q

What is the patient advice surrounding trimethoprim?

A

On long-term treatment, patients and their carers should be told how to recognise signs of blood disorders and advised to seek immediate medical attention if symptoms such as fever, sore throat, rash, mouth ulcers, purpura, bruising or bleeding develop.

229
Q

True or false:

Rifampicin should be taken on an empty stomach

A

True

230
Q

True or false:

Metronidazole should be taken on an empty stomach

A

False

Take with or just after food

231
Q

What shouldn’t a patient take at the same time as ciprofloxacin?

A

Do not take milk, indigestion remedies, or medicines containing iron or
zinc at the same time of day as this medicine.

232
Q

What specific monitoring should you do with daptomycin?

A

Creatine kinase twice a week

233
Q

What is the CHMP advice regarding the use of oral ketoconazole to treat fungal infections?

A

Marketing authorisation for oral ketoconazole to treat fungal infections should be suspended. The CHMP concluded that the risk of hepatotoxicity associated with oral ketoconazole is greater than the benefit in treating fungal infection

People with a prescription for oral ketoconazole should be referred back to their doctors

234
Q

How does calcium carbonate interact with doxycycline? What do you recommend the patient does if the patient is normally on calcium carbonate e.g. Adcal and is prescribed doxycycline?

A

Calcium carbonate is predicted to decrease the absorption of doxycycline

Separate administration by 2-3 hours

235
Q

What CD4 count is classed as AIDs?

A

<200

236
Q

Which of the following is active against pseudomonas:

  • Benpen
  • Flucloxacillin
  • Ampicillin
  • Piperacillin
A

Piperacillin (Pip taz)

237
Q

Which antibacterial drug increases the risk of serotonin syndrome?

Linezolid
Vancomycin
Telvancin
Septrin

A

Linezolid as it is a weak MAOI

Serotonin syndrome risk increases with:
SSRIs
TCAs
Macrolides
Amiodarone
Fluoroquinolones
Antipsychotics
Quinine

Risk of hypertensive crisis

238
Q 
Which drug class is most associated with lipodystrophy?
Antiretroviral drugs
Alkylating agents
TCAs
ARBs
A

Antiretroviral drugs can cause redistribution of fat around the body

239
Q

Quinine can be very toxic - what are the signs of toxicity?

A

Life-threatening features include arrhythmias (which can have a very rapid onset) and convulsions (which can be intractable).

240
Q

What are adverse effects of quinine?

A 
Tinnitus
Deafness
Blindness
QT prolongation
Hypoglycaemia
GI upset
Hypersensitivity reactions
241
Q

What advice should you give to a patient on metronidazole regarding their urine?

A

May darken urine (brown)

242
Q

Which of these is used to boost the effects of protease inhibitors?

Elvitegravir
Maraviroc
Ritonavir
Etravirine

A

Ritonavir - it is a protease inhibitor itself but it inhibits CYP enzymes that would otherwise metabolise other protease inhibitors

243
Q

What are the side effects of trimethoprim?

A 
Megaloblastic anaemia
GI effects
Taste disturbance
Elevated creatinine levels
Skin rash
Hyperkalaemia
244
Q

Trimethoprim can cause high levels of what electrolyte?

A

Potassium

245
Q

What is the advice surrounding ribavirin and contraception?

A

Effective contraception essential during treatment and for 4 months after treatment in females and for 7 months after treatment in males of childbearing age.

246
Q

What is the standard dose of oseltamivir in:

i) Treatment of flu
ii) Prevention of flu

A

i) 75mg BD for 5 days for treatment

ii) 75mg OD for 10 days for prophylaxis

247
Q

Is teicoplanin / vancomycin good for treating gram negative or positive organisms?

A

Gram positive

248
Q

Allopurinol and what antibiotic can result in a skin rash?

A

Amoxicillin

249
Q

True or false:

NSAIDs and fluoroquinolones together increase seizure risk

A

True

250
Q

Can macrolides cause QT prolongation?

A

Yes

251
Q

What tetracyclines can you take with milk?

A

Does Like Milk acronym

Doxycline
Lymecycline
Minocycline

252
Q

What is 1st line treatment for chlamydia (both the patient and partner)?

If this is not suitable, what regimes can be used instead?

A

Doxycycline 100 mg BD for 7 days

Alternatives:
Azithromycin 1 g orally for one day, then 500mg orally once daily for two days

Erythromycin 500 mg BD for 10–14 days

253
Q

How you manage a pregnant lady with chlamydia?

A

Azithromycin 1 g orally for one day, then 500mg orally once daily for two days

Erythromycin 500 mg BD for 10–14 days

254
Q

If a patient is thought to have chlamydia and presents in a primary care setting, where should you refer to?

A

GUM clinic

255
Q

When should you do an STI screen in a patient with chlamydia?

A

1 week after completing treatment

256
Q

If a patient and their partner are being treated for chlamydia, how long should they abstain from sexual intercourse?

With what antibiotic is this different?

A

Until they have both finished treatment

With azithromycin, you need to wait 7 days after

257
Q

Does a partner of someone of chlamydia need to be treated if their screen result is negative?

A

Yes

258
Q

How many weeks after the start of treatment do you do a test of cure treatment for chlamydia?

A

5 weeks

259
Q

What age should you offer repeat testing of chlamydia in 3-6 months after treatment?

A

<25 years

260
Q

What can a high ESR indicate?

A

Inflammation, infection

261
Q

Is ESR usually low or raised in infection?

A

Raised

262
Q

Why aren’t quinolones e.g. ciprofloxacin, ofloxacin generally used in children?

A

Quinolones cause arthropathy and therefore are not recommended in children and growing adolescents.

263
Q

Can you use tetracyclines in renal impairment?

A

No - should not be given at all in renal impairment

Apart from doxycycline and minocycline (but these should be used with caution)

264
Q

Can tetracyclines cause hepatotoxicity?

A

Yes

265
Q

True or false:

Tetracyclines can be used during pregnancy

A

False

266
Q

True or false:

Trimethoprim can be used during pregnancy

A

False - teratogenic in first trimester

267
Q

True or false:

Nitrofurantoin can be used during pregnancy

A

True

But avoid at term

268
Q

Can metronidazole be used during pregnancy?

A

No

Only use if benefit outweighs risk

269
Q

Is Ben Pen active against streptococci?

A

Yes

270
Q

Is linezolid active against MRSA?

A

Yes

271
Q

Can chloramphenicol be used in pregnancy?

A

No

272
Q

Should metronidazole be taken with or without food?

A

With or just after food

273
Q

What electrolyte disturbances can be caused by aminoglycosides?

A

Hypokalaemia
Hypo Mg
Hypo Ca

274
Q

What is the MHRA warning about gentamicin?

A

Potential for histamine-related adverse drug reactions with some batches

275
Q

Is gentamicin used for MRSA?

A

No

276
Q

Red man syndrome caused by vancomycin causes is associated with what other clinical features?

A

Hypotension
Bronchospasms

Caused by rapid infusion

277
Q

If a patient on a tetracycline develops a headache, what should they do?

A

Stop

Side effect of tetracyclines- benign intracranial hypertension

278
Q

What tetracyclines should you avoid milk in? (DOT)

A

Demeclocycline
Oxytetracycline
Tetracycline

279
Q

What tetracyclines can you have milk with? (DLM)

A

Doxycycline
Lymecycline
Minocycline

280
Q

What tetracyclines cause oesophageal irritation and is recommended to take with plenty of fluid?

A

Doxycycline
Minocycline
Tetracycline

281
Q

Can ciprofloxacin cause QT prolongation?

A

Yes

282
Q

Are quinolones active against MRSA?

A

No

283
Q

If a patient on a quinolone develops psychiatric disturbances, what should you recommend?

A

They should stop the drug

284
Q

What is the interaction between ciprofloxacin and theophylline?

A

Ciprofloxacin is an enzyme inhibitor and causes theophylline toxicity - convulsions risk

285
Q

Which quinolone should you protect yourself from sunlight if on it?

A

Ofloxacin

286
Q

Cholestatic jaundice risk is increased with amoxicillin/flucloxacillin if on it for more than how many days?

A

14 days

287
Q

What is the dosing regimen for Malarone for the prophylaxis of malaria?

A

1 tablet OD, started 1-2 days before, during, and 7 days after

Take with food/milky drink

288
Q

Should Malarone be taken on an empty stomach or with food?

A

Take with food/milky drink to maximise absorption

289
Q

What is the renal cut off for Malarone?

A

<30 mL/min

290
Q

What is the dosing regimen for doxycycline for the prophylaxis of malaria?

A

1 tablet OD, started 1-2 days before, during, and 4 weeks after

291
Q

How long do you continue malaria prophylaxis with doxycycline after leaving the area of risk?

A

4 weeks after

292
Q

What is the dosing regimen for chloroquine in the prophylaxis of malaria?

A

2 tablets once a week
Start 1 week before, during and 4 weeks after

Take just after food

293
Q

Should chloroquine be taken on an empty stomach?

A

No - Take just after food

294
Q

Should proguanil be taken on an empty stomach?

A

No - Take just after food

295
Q

What is the dosing regimen for proguanil in the prophylaxis of malaria?

A

2 tablets OD
Started 1 week before trip
Continue for 4 weeks after

Take just after food

296
Q

Should mefloquine be taken on an empty stomach?

A

No

Take just after food

297
Q

What are the side effects associated with glycopeptides?

A
  • Nephrotoxicity
  • Ototoxicity
  • Red man syndrome - associated with too rapid infusions and other symptoms are hypotension and bronchospasms
  • Phlebitis - rotate infusion sites
  • Neutropenia
  • Steven Johnsons
298
Q

What is the dose of trimethoprim for a UTI?

A

200mg BD

299
Q

What is the safest macrolide to use in pregnancy?

A

Erythromycin

300
Q

What is penicillin G?

A

Benzylpenicillin

301
Q

What is first line for acute infective exacerbation of COPD and how long for?

A

Amoxicilin, clarithromycin or doxycycline for 5 days

302
Q

What is first line for acute exacerbation of bronchietasis and how long for?

A

Amoxicilin, clarithromycin or doxycycline for 7-14 days

303
Q

What is the CURB score and what does each marker mean?

A 
Confusion - mental test 8 or less 
Urea > 7 mmol/L
Resp rate 30 breaths/min or more
Blood pressure systolic < 90 or diastolic 60 or less
65 years and older

1 point for each
Low risk 0-1
Moderate 2
High risk 3-5

304
Q

What is the dose of nitrofurantoin for a UTI?

A

50mg QDS

305
Q

When would you add flucloxacillin to pneumonia treatment?

A

If staphylococcus is suspected

306
Q

How would you manage someone with mild facial cellulitis?

What if the patient was penicillin allergic?

A

Co-amoxiclav

Clarithromycin for people with a penicillin allergy

307
Q

How do you treat Scarlet fever?

A

Pen V

308
Q

How long should you abstain from alcohol after a metronidazole course?

A

48 hours

309
Q

Within what time should you notify PHE of a patient with a notifiable disease?

What about if it is urgent?

A

Send the form to the proper officer within 3 days, or notify them verbally within 24 hours if the case is urgent by phone, letter, encrypted email or secure fax machine.

310
Q

What are the treatment options for recurrent thrush?

A

Initially:

3 doses of 150mg fluconazole ( 3 days apart)
or intravaginal antifungal for 10-14 days

After:

Maintenance of 6 months or oral fluconazole 150mg weekly or intravaginal clotrimazole 500mg weekly

311
Q

What are the treatment options for recurrent UTIs if trigger is not known and if trigger is known?

A

Manage acute UTI first

Then,

i) If trigger is known, 1st choice is trimethoprim 200mg single dose after trigger exposure

Nitrofurantoin 100mg single dose after trigger exposure

Alternatives- amoxicillin 500mg or cefalexin 500mg

ii) If trigger is NOT known, 1st choice trimethoprim 100mg ON

Nitrofurantoin 50-100mg ON

Alternatives: Amoxicillin 250mg ON or cefalexin 125mg ON

312
Q 
Which antibiotic(s) can be used in a patient who has had an anaphylactic 
reaction to penicillin?
a) Cefuroxime 
b) Meropenem 
c) Gentamicin 
d) Ciprofloxacin 
e) Clarithromycin
f) All of the above
A

Ciprofloxacin
Gentamicin
Clarithromycin

313
Q

Which of the following is NOT a current example of clinically important
antibiotic resistance?
a. Meticillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus
b. Penicillin resistant Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Strep)
c. Fluoroquinolone resistant P. aeruginosa
d. Vancomycin resistant Enterococci

A

B
The producerStreptomycesspecies, despite being Gram-positive, are highlyresistanttopenicillins, which is due to either overproduction of PBPs or synthesis of low-affinity PBPs. Naturally resistant.

314
Q

Which of the following conditions should generally be treated with antibiotic
therapy in patients who are not immunosuppressed and not pregnant?
a. Acute bronchitis
b. Asymptomatic urinary tract infection
c. Cellulitis
d. All of the above

A

C cellulitis

315
Q

Which of the following is NOT a way that a bacterium can acquire antibiotic
resistance
a. Acquiring resistance gene from its host’s cells
b. On its own through evolution
c. From its parent cell
d. Scavenging resistance genes from the environment
e. Exchanging DNA with another bacterium

A

A. Acquiring resistance gene from its host’s cells

316
Q

Which of these antibiotics have useful clinical activity against Pseudomonas?

a. Ciprofloxacin
b. Co-amoxiclav
c. Ceftazidime
d. Cefotaxime

A

A and c

317
Q 
Which of these would be suitable to treat Gram positive cocci isolated from a 
blood culture?
a. Flucloxacillin
b. Vancomycin
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Trimethoprim
A

A and b

318
Q

Which of these conditions needing IV antibiotics could be referred to an outpatient parenteral antibiotic therapy (OPAT) team?

a. Resolving cellulitis needing a further 7 days therapy
b. An ESBL positive urinary tract infection
c. Meningitis – from day 2 of therapy
d. Osteomyelitis needing a further 6 weeks of treatment
e. All of the above

A

A
B
D

319
Q

Gentamicin dosing is based on actual body weight so obese patients will need a significantly higher dose than lean patients
T or F

A

False it is based on ideal body weight

320
Q

IV Flucloxacillin plus IV vancomycin is a useful combination to treat a patient with MRSA bacteraemia
T or F?

A

False – the flucloxacillin would be serving no purpose as by definition MRSA is resistant to flucloxacillin

321
Q

If a Pseudomonas infection is resistant to ciprofloxacin,
parenteral treatment with an alternative drug is the only
option
T or F

A 
True – All other groups of antibiotics with activity against Pseudomonas species are only available 
parenterally. 
Treatment may involve one or more of the following types of antibiotics:
ceftazidime
ciprofloxacin (Cipro) or levofloxacin
gentamicin
cefepime
aztreonam
carbapenems
ticarcillin
ureidopenicillins
322
Q

Clostridium difficile infection is sometimes treated with more than one antibiotic at the same time
T or F

A

Metronidazole
Vancomycin
Fidamoxacin

True – Metronidazole plus vancomycin is a useful combination for serious cases

323
Q

Extended spectrum beta-lactamase producing organisms (ESBLs) may be resistant to common antibiotics including those without with a beta-lactam ringed structure
T or F

A

T

324
Q

Trimethoprim x Methotrexate interaction can be fatal

T or F

A

T - even in low doses, can result in serious systemic toxicity characterized by pancytopenia, oral mucositis, and nephrotoxicity.

325
Q

A concentration dependant kill is associated with penicillins
T or F

A

False – Penicillin is a time-dependent antibiotic and exerts optimal bactericidal effect when drug
concentrations are maintained above the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) of the organism.

326
Q

Out-patient parenteral antibiotic therapy (OPAT) using IV teicoplanin could be useful for the treatment of some cases of osteomyelitis
T or F

Bonus: what is treatment for osteomyelitis

A

True – Where the organism is susceptible to teicoplanin, it is useful for OPAT as it can be given once
daily (or even three times a week)

Osteomyelitis - OnlyFans fuR Cleaned Vaginas
1st line flucloxacillin
Pen allergy: clindamycin
MRSA: vancomycin
+ consider adding fusidic acid OR rifampicin

327
Q

Mr jones is a 54 year old man . He is one of your regular patients. He calls the pharmacy to request a delivery as his calves are swollen, red, warm to touch and very painful. His doctor has confirmed he has cellulitis and has sent his prescription to the pharmacy electronically. Mr Jones is allergic to penicillin. What antibiotic would be the most appropriate to treat his cellulitis?

A. Flucloxacillin

B. Clindamycin

C. Vancomycin

D. Phenoxymethylpenicillin

E. Nitrofurantoin

A

B Clindamycin

328
Q 
Antibiotics safe for pregnancy?
Which to avoid?
Diaminopyridones
Quinolones
Nitrofurantoin
Trimethoprim
Cephalosporins
Penicillins
A
  • penicillins
  • cephalosporins
  • nitrofurantoin except at term

AVOID

  • diaminopyridones
  • quinolones
  • trimethoprim preferably avoided in 1st trimester
329
Q

Is this true?
Antibacterials normally excreted by the kidney accumulate with resultant toxicity unless the dose is reduced; especially aminoglycosides; tetracyclines, and nitrofurantoin should be avoided altogether.

A

True

Aminoglycoside

330
Q

Which aminoglycosides are active against P. aeruginosa?

Amikacin
Tobramycin
Gentamicin
Streptomycin

A

Amikacin, tobramycin and gentamicin are active against P. aeruginosa, streptomycin is active against M. tuberculosis.

Pre-reg exam MRMCOPY (33 decks)

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