Chapter 5,9,10,11,12,39,40 Flashcards

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0
Q

Identification with and understanding of another’s situation, feelings and motives

A

Empathy

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1
Q

The exchange of common symbols - written, spoken, or other kinds such as signing and body language.

A

Communication

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2
Q

To create a message

A

Encode

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3
Q

To interpret a message

A

Decode

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4
Q

A response to a message

A

Feedback

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5
Q

At birth, the heart rate ranges from____ to _____ beats per minute during the first 30 min of life.

A

100-180

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6
Q

The infants head is equal to _______ % of total body weight.

A

25

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7
Q

The _____ ______ a blood vessel that connects the pulmonary artery and the aorta in the fetus, constricts after birth.

A

Ductus arteriosus

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8
Q

The ____ _____ which is sometimes referred to as the “startle reflex” is the characteristic reflex of newborns.

A

Moro reflex

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9
Q

_____ parents encourage independence but will enforce rules.

A

Authoritive

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10
Q

In this stage of moral development, children are concerned with interpersonal norms, seeking the approval of others and developing the “good boy” or “good girl” mentality.

A

Conventional reasoning

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11
Q

Birth to 12 months

A

Infant

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12
Q

12 to 36 months

A

Toddler

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13
Q

3 to 5 years

A

Preschool age

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14
Q

6 to 12 yrs old

A

School age

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15
Q

13 to 18 yrs old

A

Adolescent

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16
Q

A _______ airway is shorter, narrower, less stable and more easily obstructed than that at any other stage in life.

A

Infants

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17
Q

Infants double their weight in ____ to _____ months

A

4 to 6

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18
Q

Infants triple their weight by the _____ to _____ month.

A

9 to 12

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19
Q

A reflex in the newborn which is elicited by placing a finger firmly in the infants Palm

A

Palmar grasp

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20
Q

Percussion sounds: booming and loud is?

A

Hyperresonance

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21
Q

Percussion sounds: hollow and loud is ?

A

Resonance

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22
Q

Force of blood against arteries when ventricles contract

A

Systolic blood pressure

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23
Q

Force of blood against arteries when ventricles relax

A

Diastolic blood pressure

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24
Q

Discoloration around the umbilicus suggestive of intra - abdominal hemorrhage

A

Cullen’s sign

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25
Q

Discoloration over the flanks suggesting intra - abdominal bleeding.

A

Grey Turner’s sign

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26
Q

An accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal space and in the abdomen

A

Ascites

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27
Q

The branch of medicine that deals with the health maintenance and the diseases of women, primarily of the reproductive organs.

A

Gynecology

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28
Q

The branch of medicine that deals with the care of women throughout pregnancy.

A

Obstetrics

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29
Q

Painful menstruation

A

Dysmenorrhea

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30
Q

Painful sexual intercourse

A

Dyspareunia

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31
Q

The most common complaints of women in the childbearing years are?

A

Abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding

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32
Q

Term used to describe the number of times a woman has been pregnant including if the woman was pregnant now.

A

Gravida

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33
Q

Refers to the number of deliveries

A

Para or parity

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34
Q

Refers to any pregnancy that ends before 20 wks of gestation regardless of cause

A

Abortion

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35
Q

Last menstrual cycle commonly abbreviated to

A

LMP ( or LNMP for last menstrual period)

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36
Q

Cyanosis and pallor may indicate?

A

Shock or gas exchange problem

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37
Q

A flushed appearance is more indicative of?

A

Fever

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38
Q

An acute infection of the reproductive organs that can be caused by a bacteria, virus or fungus

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

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39
Q

Gynecological emergencies can be generally divided into two categories

A

Medical and trauma

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40
Q

Probably the most common cause of nontraumatic abdominal pain is

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

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41
Q

The most common cause of PID is

A

Gonorrhea or chlamydia

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42
Q

Fever, chills, nausea, vomiting or even sepsis may accompany?

A

PID

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43
Q

Fluid filled pockets are ?

A

Cyst

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44
Q

Infection of the urinary bladder

A

Cystitis

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45
Q

Painful urination often associated with cystitis

A

Dysuria

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46
Q

Abdominal pain associated with ovulation

A

Mittelschmerz

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47
Q

Infection of the endometrium

A

Endometritis

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48
Q

Commonly used term to describe a pregnancy which ends before 20 wks gestation.

A

Miscarriage

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49
Q

Condition in which endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus

A

Endometriosis

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50
Q

The implantation of a developing fetus outside of the uterus often in a Fallopian tube

A

Ectopic pregnancy

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51
Q

_______ is a life threatening condition.

A

Ectopic pregnancy

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52
Q

Excessive menstrual flow

A

Menorrhagia

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53
Q

The most common cause of spontaneous bleeding is?

A

Spontaneous abortion ( miscarriage )

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54
Q

Vaginal injuries are most often?

A

Lacerations due to sexual assault

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55
Q

Do not examine the external genitalia of a sexual assault victim unless there is?

A

Life threatening hemorrhage

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56
Q

Psychological and emotional support are the most important elements of care for the?

A

Sexual assault victim

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57
Q

Intrauterine pregnancy, at 3 months the uterus is barely palpable above the

A

Symphysis pubis

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58
Q

Intrauterine pregnancy at 4 months the uterus is palpable midway between the

A

Umbilicus and symphysis pubis

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59
Q

Intrauterine pregnancy at 5 months approx (20 wks) the uterus is palpable at the

A

Level of the umbilicus

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60
Q

The time from conception until delivery of the fetus

A

Prenatal period

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61
Q

The release of an egg from the ovary

A

Ovulation

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62
Q

The organ that serves as a lifeline for the developing fetus.

A

Placenta

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63
Q

The placenta and accompanying membranes that are expelled from the uterus after the birth of a child.

A

Afterbirth

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64
Q

Structure containing 2 arteries and one vein that connects the placenta and the fetus.

A

Umbilical cord

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65
Q

2 feet in length and 0.75 inch in diameter

A

Umbilical cord

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66
Q

The membranes that surround and protect the developing fetus throughout the period of intrauterine development.

A

Amniotic sac

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67
Q

Clear, watery fluid that surrounds and protects the developing fetus

A

Amniotic fluid

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68
Q

Amniotic sac sometimes called the

A

“Bag of waters”

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69
Q

After the 20th week of gestation, the volume of water in the sac varies from?

A

500 to 1000cc

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70
Q

The vascular system of the uterus contains about______ of the mothers total blood volume

A

1/6 16%

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71
Q

The approximate day the infant will be born

A

Estimated date of confinement (EDC)

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72
Q

The maternal heart rate increases by

A

10 to 15 bpm

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73
Q

Occurs when the gravid uterus compresses the inferior vena cava when the mother lies in a supine position causing decreased venous return to the right atrium which lowers blood pressure.

A

Supine hypotensive syndrome

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74
Q

Renal blood flow ______ during pregnancy

A

Increases

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75
Q

Peristalsis is ______ , so delayed gastric emptying is likely and bloating or constipation is common.

A

Slowed

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76
Q

Blood pressure ________ slightly during the first 2 trimesters

A

Decreases

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77
Q

Loosened pelvic joints caused by hormonal influences account for the

A

Waddling gate

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78
Q

The child’s sex can be determined visually at

A

16 wks

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79
Q

The umbilical vein connects directly to the inferior vena cava by a specialized structure called the

A

Ductus venosus

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80
Q

The fetus’s heart has a hole between the right and left atria termed the

A

Forman ovale

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81
Q

Number of pregnancies carried to full term

A

Parity

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82
Q

A woman who is pregnant for the first time

A

Primigravida

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83
Q

Diabetics are at an increased risk of developing

A

Preeclampsia and hypertension

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84
Q

Many patients develop diabetes during pregnancy called

A

Gestational diabetes

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85
Q

Babies born to diabetic mothers are also at increased risk of

A

Congenital anomalies (birth defects)

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86
Q

During pregnancy cardiac output increases up to

A

30%

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87
Q

If the fundus is just palpable above the symphysis pubis the pregnancy is about _____ to _____ gestation

A

12 to 16 weeks

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88
Q

When the uterine fundus reaches the umbilicus the pregnancy is about

A

20 wks

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89
Q

As pregnancy reaches full term the fundus is palpable near the

A

Xiphoid process

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90
Q

The bulging of the fetal head past the opening of the vagina during a contraction.

A

Crowning

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91
Q

Termination of pregnancy before the 20th week of gestation.

A

Abortion

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92
Q

Causes of bleeding during pregnancy:

A
  • abortion
  • Ectopic pregnancy
  • placenta Previa
  • abruptio placentea
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93
Q

Most common cause of bleeding in the first and second trimesters of pregnancy

A

Abortion

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94
Q

Occurs as a result of abnormal implantation of the placenta on the lower half of the uterine wall resulting in partial or complete coverage of the cervical opening

A

Placenta Previa

95
Q

The onset of painless bright red vaginal bleeding which may occur as spotting or recurrent hemorrhage is the hallmark of

A

Placenta Previa

96
Q

The premature separation of a normally implanted placenta from the interior wall posing a potential life threat for both mother and fetus

A

Abruptio placentea

97
Q

Hypertensive disorders of pregnancy, which include preeclampsia and eclampsia occur in approximately ________ of all pregnancy.

A

5%

98
Q

The most common hypertensive disorder seen in pregnancy

A

Preeclampsia

99
Q

The thinning and shortening of the cervix during labor

A

Effacement

100
Q

The process of stopping labor

A

Tocolysis

101
Q

The time period surrounding the birth of the fetus

A

Puerperium

102
Q

The time and process that occur during childbirth

A

Labor

103
Q

Newborn infant

A

Neonate

104
Q

Abnormal deliveries

A
  • Breech presentation
  • prolapsed cord
  • Limb presentation
  • Occiput posterior
105
Q

In what age group does normal body temperature become that found in adults

A

School aged

106
Q

During the first week of life, the infants weight is expected to

A

Decrease by 5 to 10 %

107
Q

The anterior Fontanelle closes between

A

9 and 18 months old

108
Q

The process of learning used by children in which they build upon what they already know is called

A

Scaffolding

109
Q

The weight of a toddlers brain is approximately what percentage of the weight of the adult brain?

A

90 %

110
Q

Children begin to develop magical thinking at about

A

2 to 3 yrs old

111
Q

The school aged child gains about _____ per year

A

3 kg

112
Q

The female generally stops growing at

A

16 yrs old

113
Q

Peak physical condition occurs in

A

Early adulthood

114
Q

Focus on airway, breathing and circulation, monitor for shock as needed. Administer oxygen initiate IV access, consider fluid resuscitation and monitor the?

A

Heart

115
Q

Place PT in a position of comfort ______________ is the preferred position after the 24th week.

A

Left lateral recumbent

116
Q

Generally the lay people think of abortion as termination of pregnancy at maternal request and of _________ as an accident by nature.

A

Miscarriage

117
Q

Signs and symptoms of an abortion include:

A
  • Cramping
  • abdominal pain
  • backache
  • vaginal bleeding often accompanied by passage of clots and tissue
118
Q

Treat the patient suffering from an abortion as you would any patient at risk for

A

Hypovolemic shock

119
Q

Refers to the abnormal implantation of the fertilized egg outside of the uterus

A

Ectopic pregnancy

120
Q

Assume that any female of child bearing age with lower abdominal pain is experiencing an

A

Ectopic pregnancy

121
Q

Third trimester bleeding should be attributed to either __________ or ___________ usually presents with sharp pain with or without bleeding

A

Placenta Previa or abruptio placentae

122
Q

Because of the potential for profuse hemorrhage, always treat the patient with suspected placenta Previa for_________. Transport immediately since the definitive treatment is delivered by cesarean section.

A

Shock

123
Q

Signs and symptoms of abruptio placentae vary. With a marginal abruption there will be _____________. With a central abruption there will be _____________ and stiff, boardlike abdomen. Complete abruption will result in_____________.

A
  1. Bleeding but no pain
  2. Sharp tearing pain
  3. Massive hemorrhage
124
Q

Seizures (or coma) develop in its most severe form known as

A

Eclampsia

125
Q

Preeclampsia is defined as an increase in systolic blood pressure by ______ and/or diastolic increase of ________

A

30 mmHg

15 mmHg

126
Q

The most serious manifestation of the hypertensive disorder of pregnancy is characterized by generalized tonic-clonic (major motor) seizure activity

A

Eclampsia

127
Q

Hypertension is considered chronic when the blood pressure is greater than ________ before pregnancy or the 20th week of gestation or if it persists for more than 42 days postpartum

A

140/90

128
Q

Preeclampsia and eclampsia are life threatening. Keep the pt calm. Dim the lights place the pt in a left lateral recumbent position and transport quickly w/o lights and siren. Administer _________ to control seizures if they occur. Medical direction may request administration of antihypertensive or sedative drugs.

A

Magnesium sulfate 2 gm in 10-20 min

129
Q

.25 mg sub Q 45 degrees prevents contractions

A

Brethene

130
Q

Albuterol (Proventil)

A

Class: sympathomimetic bronchodilator

B 1+2 stimulant

5 mg nebulized

Combi

2.5 mg when mixed with Atrovent     .5 mg Atrovent
131
Q

If you are unable to control the seizures with Magnesium sulfate, consider

A

Diazepam ( Valium ) or other sedative

132
Q

Supine - hypotensive syndrome usually occurs in the

A

Third trimester

133
Q

Supine hypotensive syndrome occurs when the gravid uterus compresses the inferior vena cava when the mother lies in a

A

Supine position

134
Q

Treatment for supine hypotensive syndrome is

A

Left lateral recumbent position or elevate right hip

Monitor fetal heart tones and maternal vital signs

If volume depletion is evident, start IV with normal saline

135
Q

In the last 20 wks placental hormones cause an increased resistance to insulin and a

A

Decreased glucose tolerance

136
Q

If blood glucose is below 60 mg/dl

A

Draw red top tube of blood

Start an IV

Administer 25g of D50

137
Q

If blood glucose is above 200 mg/dl

A

Draw a red top tube of blood

Start IV

Administer 1 to 2 liters of normal saline

138
Q

As early as the _______ week of gestation the uterus contracts intermittently

A

13th

139
Q

Painless, irregular contractions are known as

A

Braxton hicks contractions

140
Q

In terms of fetal development the fetus is not considered to be full term until the _____ week

A

38th

141
Q

The process by which delivery occurs is called

A

Labor

142
Q

The patient with suspected preterm labor should be

A

Transported immediately

143
Q

Stages of labor:

A

Stage one: dilatation

Stage two: expulsion

Stage three: placental

144
Q

Time contractions from the beginning of one contraction until the

A

Beginning of the next contraction

145
Q

The first stage of labor begins with the onset of true labor contractions and ends with the

A

Complete dilatation and effacement of the cervix

146
Q

The second stage of labor begins with the complete dilatation of the cervix and ends with the

A

Delivery of the fetus

147
Q

The contractions are very strong, occurring every 2 min and lasting for

A

60-75 sec

148
Q

The most common presentation is for the fetus to be delivered

A

Head first, face down (vertex position)

149
Q

The third and final stage of labor begins immediately after the birth of the infant and ends with the

A

Delivery of the placenta

150
Q

A drop in the fetal heart rate to less than 90 bpm indicates

A

Fetal distress and requires immediate transport w mother in left lateral recumbent position

151
Q

As the head crowns control it with

A

Gentle pressure

152
Q

Don’t be alarmed if baby’s extremities remain dusky after birth, this is called ________ and is very common in the first hours of life.

A

Acrocyanosis

153
Q

The average neonatal respiratory rate should average

A

30 to 60 breaths per minute

154
Q

APGAR scoring system is a means of evaluating the status of a newborns vital functions at

A

1 minute and 5 minutes after delivery

155
Q

APGAR stands for

A

Appearance ( skin color )

Pulse rate

Grimace ( irritability )

Activity ( muscle tone )

Respiratory effort

156
Q

If the infants respirations are below 30 per min and tactile stimulation does not increase the rate to a normal range immediately

A

Assist ventilations using BVM with hi flow O2

157
Q

If heart rate is below 60 and does not respond to ventilations

A

Initiate chest compressions and transport to NICU

158
Q

Acess the HR using a stethoscope to auscultate the apical pulse by feeling the pulse at the base of the umbilical cord or palpating

A

The brachial or femoral artery

159
Q

Newborn HR should be between 100-180 with _________ being optimal

A

140-160 bpm

160
Q

If the infant starts to breath with its face pressed against the vaginal wall

A

Form a V with index and middle finger on either side of infants nose and push vaginal wall away from infants face

161
Q

occurs when the umbilical cord precedes the fetal presenting part

A

Prolapsed cord

162
Q

If the baby is in a transverse lie across the uterus an arm or leg is the presenting part, this is called

A

Limb presentation

163
Q

If mother presents with prolapsed cord or limb presentation place patient in the

A

Knee chest position, administer oxygen and transport

164
Q

With multiple births usually one presents vertex while the other is

A

Breeched

165
Q

Twins may share one placenta or there may be two, after delivery of the first baby

A

Clamp and cut the cord them deliver the second baby

166
Q

Occurs when the infants head is too big to pass through the maternal pelvis easily. This may be caused by an over sized fetus

A

Cephalopelvic disproportion

167
Q

The usual management of cephalopelvic disproportion is

A

C section

168
Q

Occurs when the infants shoulders are larger than its head.

A

Shoulder dystocia (“ turtle sign “)

169
Q

The loss of more than 500cc of blood immediately following delivery

A

Postpartum hemorrhage

170
Q

The most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage is

A

Uterine atony or lack of muscle tone

171
Q

When there is a loss of more than 500cc of blood immediately following delivery administer

A

O2 and begin fundal massage

2 large bore IVs of normal saline

Treat for shock as necessary

172
Q

Diazepam ( valium )

A

Seizure activity 5 mg over 2 min IV every 10-15 min prn.

Anticonvulsant
* relatively weak anticonvulsant and of short duration.

Class: benzodiazepine, hypnotic, anticonvulsant

173
Q

Midazolam ( Versed )

A
  • RSI - 5 mg
  • Behavioral - 2.5 mg
  • Cardioversion - 2.5 mg start with 1-2 mg and titrate up to 2-3 mg doses every 1-2 min based on response and effect.

Class - Benzodiazepine sedative ~ hypnotic

Indications : 
• Cardioversion 
• behavioral emergencies 
• transcutaneous pacing 
• RSI
• Seizures
174
Q

Fentanyl ( sublimaze )

A

Faster acting

Class: synthetic narcotic analgesic

Dose:
• pain
- 100 mcg repeated @ 50 mcg to a max of 250

• RSI
- 500 to 750 mcg q 3-5 minutes repeated once; BP 90 systolic

  • analgesia for burns, fractures ect
  • Cardioversion
  • sedation and pain management during RSI
175
Q

Morphine

A

Vasodilator

Class: Narcotic analgesic

Dose: 1-4 mg slow IV over 1-5 min titrate to effect

Indications:

  • chest pn associated with MI
  • CHF with pulmonary edema w or w/o chest pn, pressure

• pain management in :

  • burns
  • sickle cell crisis
  • fractures
176
Q

Succinylcholine ( Anectine )

A

Class: Neuromuscular Blocker ( Depolarizing )

Onset: less than 1 minute

Dose: 1 to 1.5 mg/kg rapid IV, repeat if needed

Indications: to facilitate endotracheal intubation (RSI)

Duration 4 - 10 min

177
Q

Methylprednisolone ( Solu-medrol)

A

Class: Glucocorticoid

Dose: 125 mg IV

  • spinal cord injury
  • initial dose is 30 mg/kg IV bolus followed by an infusion of 5.4 mg/kg/he for 23 hrs

Onset: 1-2 hrs

Indications:
anaphylaxis / allergic state
Inhalation of hot smoke and gases
Bronchodilator - unresponsive asthma COPD
Shock / (controversial)
Acute spinal cord injury / (controversial)

anti inflammatory not smooth muscle

178
Q

Epinephrine

A

Cardiac arrest 1 mg

Respiratory .3 - .5 mg sub Q

Bradycardia 2 - 10 mcg/min

179
Q

Physical exam techniques:

A
  • inspection
  • palpation
  • percussion
  • auscultation
180
Q

Body language , consist of gestures, mannerisms and posture by which a person communicates with others.

A

Nonverbal communication

181
Q

In the United States the socially acceptable distance between strangers is

A

4 - 12 ft

182
Q

Arms extended, open hands, relaxed large muscles and a nodding head characterize an

A

Open stance

183
Q

Nothing builds trust and rapport or calms patients faster than the power of

A

Touch

184
Q

Effective communication with pediatric pt’s depends on

A

Age

185
Q

Newborns do not

A

Shiver

186
Q

Magnesium sulfate

A

Class: electrolyte / anticonvulsant

Dose:
• Asthma: 1 to 2 g in 50 mL over 5 to 20 min
• Eclamptic Seizures: 2 to 5 g over 10-15 min

Indications: seizures of eclampsia
Asthma
Torsades de pointes

187
Q

Epinephrine

A

Class: sympathomimetic

Dose:
•Cardiac arrest - IV 1 mg q 3-5 min
ET 2-2 1/2 times the IV dose via ET
~ repeat every 3-5 minutes

•Anaphylactic reaction
~ mild reaction 0.3-0.5 mg (1:1,000) SubQ
~ moderate reaction 0.3-0.5 mg (1:10,000) slow IV 1-2 min

•symptomatic Bradycardia
~ infusion of 2-10 mcg/min titrated to response

Indications :

anaphylaxis
All forms of cardiac arrest
Reactive airway disease ( asthma, COPD)

188
Q

Number of pulses felt in 1 minute

A

Pulse rate

189
Q

Pattern and equality of intervals between beats

A

Pulse rhythm

190
Q

Strength, which can be weak, thready , strong or bounding

A

Pulse quality

191
Q

May indicate an increase in parasympathetic nervous system stimulation

A

Bradycardia

192
Q

Exhalation is the _________process of the respiratory muscles elastic recoil

A

Passive

193
Q

A measure of systemic vascular

A

Diastolic BP

194
Q

Difference between systolic and diastolic pressures

A

Pulse pressure

195
Q

Hypertension is defined in adults as a pressure higher than

A

140/90

196
Q

The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures

A

Pulse pressure

197
Q

In the tilt test, a positive sign for Hypovolemia is

A

BP drops by 10 to 20 mmHg

Pulse rate rises by 10 to 20 bpm

198
Q

Each narrow line on a sphygmomanometer represents what pressure difference

A

2 mmHg

199
Q

which pulse point is recommended with small children

A

Brachial

200
Q

The sphygmomanometer should be inflated to what level beyond the point at which the patients radial pulse disappears

A

30 mmHg

201
Q

Real time measurement of exhaled carbon dioxide concentrations

A

Capnography

202
Q

Abnormal facial hair grown on women

A

Hirsutism

203
Q

Light crackling, popping , non musical sounds usually heard during inspiration

A

Crackles

204
Q

Continuous high pitched musical sounds similar to a whistle

A

Wheezes

205
Q

Continuous sounds with a lower pitch and a snoring quality

A

Rhonchi

206
Q

Predominantly inspiratory wheeze associated with laryngeal obstruction

A

Stridor

207
Q

The squeaking or grating sound of the pleural linings rubbing together

A

Pleural friction rub

208
Q

The simplest and often most neglected form of standard precaution is

A

Hand washing

209
Q

Cleansing agent that is toxic to living tissue is

A

Disinfectant

210
Q

Drug administered through the mucous membrane of the ear canal is an

A

Aural medication

211
Q

The female external genitalia are known collectively as the ____ or ______.

A

Vulva or pudendum

212
Q

The external genitalia consist of the

A

Perineum, mons pubis, labia and clitoris

213
Q

Muscular tissue that separates the vagina and the anus

A

Perineum

214
Q

Fatty layer of tissue over the pubic symphysis

A

Mons pubis

215
Q

Structures that protect the vagina and urethra, including the labia majora and the labia minora

A

Labia

216
Q

Hollow thick walled muscular inverted pear shaped organ that connects with the vagina

A

Uterus

217
Q

The primary function of the uterus is to provide

A

A site for fetal development

218
Q

The rounded uppermost portion of the uterus is the

A

Fundus

219
Q

The fist 2 weeks of the menstrual cycle are known as the

A

Proliferative phase

220
Q

Sloughing of the uterine lining (endometrium) if a fertilized egg is not implanted. It is controlled by the cyclical release of hormones.

A

Menstruation

221
Q

During the menstrual phase the ischemic endometrium is shed along with a discharge of blood mucus and cellular debris, a process known as

A

Menstruation

222
Q

Big toe dorsiflexes and the other toes fan out when the sole is stimulated

A

Babinski’s response

223
Q

A child in severe respiratory distress may exhibit a __________ type pattern in which his sternum and abdomen rise and fall in opposition to each other.

A

Sea-saw

224
Q

Auscultate for breath sounds with the bell of your stethoscope at the

A

Midaxillary line

225
Q

Evaluation of the skin you want to evaluate its

A

Color, moisture, temperature as well as texture mobility and turgor and check any lesions

226
Q

Light crackling, popping, non musical sounds that may be heard usually during inspiration

A

Crackles

227
Q

Progressively deeper, faster breathing alternating gradually with shallow, slower breathing indicating brainstem injury

A

Cheyene-stokes respirations

228
Q

Rapid deep respirations caused by severe metabolic and central nervous system problems

A

Kussmaul’s respirations

229
Q

Etomidate ( Amidate )

A

Class: hypnotic

Dose: 0.1 to 0.3 mg/kg over 10 to 20 sec

Duration: 3 to 5 min

Indications: RSI

230
Q

Rocuronium Bromide (Zemuron)

A

Class: neuromuscular blocker (non-Depolarizing)

Dose: 0.6 mg/kg

Duration: 15-45 min

Indications: •To provide long term paralysis as a part of the RSI process
• To manage post resuscitation hypothermia through the prevention of shivering

231
Q

Vecuronium (Norcuron)

A

Class: neuromuscular blocker (non-Depolarizing)

Dose: 0.1 mg/kg over 1 to 2 min

Duration 15 to 45 min

Indications: To provide long term paralysis as part of the RSI process

To manage post resuscitation hypothermia through the prevention of shivering

232
Q

Viewing one’s own life as the most desirable, acceptable or best and acting in a superior manner to another culture’s way of life.

A

Ethnocentrism

233
Q

Naloxone ( Narcan )

A

Class: synthetic narcotic antagonist

Dose: 0.5 to 2 mg IV/IM/,SQ,ET / repeat at 5 min intervals

Indications: for the complete or partial reversal of CNS and respiratory depression induced by narcotics.

234
Q

Ipratroprium Bromide ( Atrovent )

A

Class: parasympatholytic bronchodilator

Dose: 0.5 mg nebulized, can be mixed with Albuterol

Indications:
• Bronchial asthma 
• Chronic bronchitis / COPD 
• Inhalation of hot gasses 
• Often used with Albuterol
235
Q

Abnormal clarity of patients transmitted voice sounds

A

Bronchophony

236
Q

The infant receives its blood from the placenta by means of the

A

Umbilical vein