Chapter 45 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The clinic nurse is teaching a young wife about preventing recurrent urinary tract infections. What information should the nurse include?
A

A. Bathe daily.
B. Avoid voiding immediately after sexual intercourse.
C. Drink liberal amounts of fluids.
D. Void every 6 to 8 hours.

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2
Q
  1. A 42-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of intermittent urinary incontinence when she sneezes. The clinic nurse is aware this is what type of incontinence?
A

A. Stress incontinence
B. Reflex incontinence
C. Overflow incontinence
D. Functional incontinence

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3
Q
  1. A nurse is caring for a female patient with urinary retention. The nurse teaches this patient to follow which principle for self-catheterization?
A

A. Assume a supine position for self-catheterization.
B. Use a clean technique at home to catheterize.
C. Insert the catheter 1 to 2 inches into the urethra.
D. Self-catheterize every 2 hours at home.

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4
Q
  1. A 52-year-old patient is scheduled to undergo ileal conduit surgery. The patient has several appropriate questions. What would be the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient?
A

A. Self-care deficit related to the surgical procedure and creation of an ileal conduit
B. Knowledge deficit about the surgical procedure and postoperative care
C. Fear and anxiety related to the surgical procedure
D. Risk of infection related to the surgical procedure

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5
Q
  1. The educator on your unit is working with a patient who has been diagnosed with oxalate renal calculi. When planning this patient’s teaching what nutritional guidelines would the educator include?
A

A. Restrict protein intake to 60 g/d.
B. Restrict sodium intake to 5 to 6 g/d.
C. Follow a low-calcium diet.
D. Encourage intake of oxalates (peanuts, wheat bran, strawberries, rhubarb, tea, and spinach).

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6
Q
  1. The nurse is caring for a patient who underwent percutaneous lithotripsy earlier in the day. In this procedure, an ultrasonic probe inserted through a nephrostomy tube into the renal pelvis generates ultra-high-frequency sound waves to shatter renal calculi. What instruction should the nurse give the patient?
A

A. Limit oral fluid intake for 1 to 2 weeks.
B. Report the presence of fine, sandlike particles through the nephrostomy tube.
C. Notify the physician about cloudy or foul-smelling urine.
D. Report bright pink urine within 24 hours after the procedure.

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7
Q
  1. A new patient has been admitted to your unit. The patient’s laboratory data has been posted in the computer and the nurse is reviewing the data. The nurse recognizes the patient has a bacteriuria when the bacteria count in the urine exceeds:
A

A. 10^2 colonies/mL of clean-catch midstream urine
B. 10^3 colonies/mL of clean-catch midstream urine
C. 10^4 colonies/mL of clean-catch midstream urine
D. 10^5 colonies/mL of clean-catch midstream urine

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8
Q
  1. The clinic nurse is preparing a plan of care for a patient complaining of stress incontinence. The plan of care incorporates behavioral therapy as an approach to the management of stress incontinence. What role will the nurse have in implementing the behavioral therapy approach?
A

A. Provide medication teaching related to pseudoephedrine sulfate.
B. Teach the patient to perform pelvic floor muscle exercises.
C. Prepare the patient for an anterior vaginal repair procedure.
D. Provide information on the semipermanent procedure, periurethral bulking.

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9
Q
  1. You are caring for a patient admitted to your unit with renal calculi. A renal ultrasound indicates that the patient does not have hydronephrosis and the physician writes orders to increase the patient’s fluid intake. The nurse instructs the patient to increase her fluid intake to a level where the patient produces at least how many mL/day of urine?
A

A. 500 mL urine/day
B. 1000 mL urine/day
C. 1500 mL urine/day
D. 2000 mL urine/day

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10
Q
  1. A patient with cancer of the bladder has just returned to the unit from the PACU after surgery to create an ileal conduit. The nurse is monitoring the patient’s urine output hourly and notifies the physician when the hourly output is less than what?
A

A. 30 mL/hour
B. 50 mL/hour
C. 100 mL/hour
D. 125 mL/hour

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11
Q
  1. The nurse is caring for a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter. The nurse is aware that what nursing action helps prevent infection in a patient with an indwelling catheter?
A

A. Vigorously clean the meatus area daily.
B. Apply powder to the perineal area twice daily.
C. Empty the drainage bag at least every 8 hours.
D. Irrigate the catheter every 8 hours with normal saline.

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12
Q
  1. The school nurse is teaching a health class to a group of seniors. Today the nurse is talking about urinary tract infections. The nurse is correct when she informs the group that:
A

A. The prevalence of UTIs in men older than 50 years of age is less than the prevalence of women in the same age group.
B. The prevalence of UTIs in men older than 50 years of age approaches that of women in the same age group.
C. The prevalence of UTIs in men older than 50 years of age is greater than the prevalence of women in the same age group.
D. The prevalence of UTIs in men cannot be measured, as men generally do not report UTIs

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13
Q
  1. A patient newly admitted to your unit has an ileal conduit. You need to determine the appliance size to order for this patient. What does the nurse measure to determine the size of the appliance needed?
A

A. The circumference of the stoma
B. The narrowest part of the stoma
C. The widest part of the stoma
D. Half the width of the stoma

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14
Q
  1. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of difficulty voiding. What nursing action should the nurse take to encourage a patient who is having difficulty voiding?
A

A. Use a slipper bedpan.
B. Apply a cold compress to the perineum.
C. Have the patient lie in a supine position.
D. Provide privacy for the patient.

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15
Q
  1. A nurse is caring for an 85-year-old patient experiencing urinary incontinence. This nurse is aware that:
A

A. Antispasmodics are often prescribed to decrease urinary incontinence.
B. Restricting fluid intake is recommended.
C. Reflux incontinence is common in the elderly.
D. Urinary incontinence is not a consequence of aging.

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16
Q
  1. You are admitting a patient diagnosed with urinary retention. What question should be included as part of the assessment?
A

A. “Do you have dribbling urine?”
B. “Are you following a fluid-restricted diet?”
C. “Do you experience shortness of breath?”
D. “Are you experiencing vertigo?”

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17
Q
  1. A patient with kidney stones is scheduled for extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL). The patient asks the nurse to explain what will be done. What is the nurse’s best response?
A

A. “Shock waves will break the stones in the kidney to the size of sand grains.”
B. “The surgeon will make an incision in the kidney and remove the stones.”
C. “A scope will be inserted into the kidney and the stones will be removed.”
D. “The surgeon will make an incision and remove the kidney.”

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18
Q
  1. You are caring for a patient who has undergone creation of a urinary diversion. Forty-eight hours postoperatively the patient verbalizes that the stoma is a dark purplish color. This nurse is aware of what?
A

A. The stoma is healthy.
B. The stoma is infected.
C. Vascular supply to the stoma may be compromised.
D. The ostomy appliance around the stoma is too loose.

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19
Q
  1. Where are most uncomplicated UTIs acquired?
A

A. Hospital
B. Community
C. Through sexual intercourse
D. Nosocomial

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20
Q
  1. You work in a urology clinic. A patient, 35 years of age, is diagnosed with a urinary tract infection (UTI). What is your role in managing this patient’s treatment?
A
A.	How to identify	
B.	How to reduce fluid intake	
C.	How to improve nutrition	
D.	How to manage prescribed medication regimens	
E.	coli
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21
Q
  1. You are writing a nursing plan of care for a patient with a UTI. What would be an appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient?
A

A. Deficient knowledge about taking hot showers
B. Knowledge deficit related to personal caring
C. Deficient knowledge about factors predisposing to infection
D. Knowledge deficit related to medical decisions about UTIs

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22
Q
  1. A 35-year-old female with chronic recurrent UTIs is admitted to the hospital for diagnostic testing of an upper urinary tract problem. You know that incomplete emptying of the bladder due to bladder outlet obstruction can cause what?
A

A. Hydronephrosis
B. Nephritic syndrome
C. Pylonephritis
D. Nephrotitis

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23
Q
  1. An 82-year-old female is brought to the clinic by her daughter for transient episodes of incontinence. While assessing this patient, what question should be a priority for the nurse to ask the patient and the family?
A

A. Do these episodes last more than a week?
B. Has there been a change in other systems of the body?
C. Does the patient take bubble baths?
D. What improves the symptoms?

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24
Q
  1. The nurse is presenting an educational event at a local senior center. You have been asked to talk about “Keeping Your Urinary System Healthy.” What important information should you include in your presentation?
A

A. “Urinary incontinence, to some degree, is expected in people over 60 years of age.”
B. “Urinary incontinence is easily treated in the older adult.”
C. “Urinary incontinence is more prevalent in the United States than diabetes or ulcer disease.”
D. “Urinary incontinence is overreported and overtreated.”

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25
Q
  1. A 55-year-old male patient is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with a presumptive diagnosis of renal stones. While assessing the patient you note increased tenderness over the costovertebral area. The patient complains of increased pain and nausea, and then has an episode of vomiting. You know that these symptoms are indicative of what?
A

A. Renal colic
B. Intestinal colic
C. Ureteral stones
D. Nephritis

26
Q
  1. A patient has been admitted to the renal unit for lithotripsy. After the procedure you instruct the patient on straining their urine to collect stone fragments for analysis. The results of the stone analysis show that the stones are made of urate. What does this finding indicate?
A

A. A disturbance of phosphoric acid metabolism
B. A disturbance in uric acid metabolism
C. A disorder of calcium metabolism
D. A disorder of oxalate metabolism

27
Q
  1. A patient had a ileal conduit and is being cared for by a critical care nurse. What is a complication the nurse would monitor this patient for in the immediate postoperative unit?
A

A. Hyperkalemic acidosis
B. Colon obstruction
C. Ureteral obstruction
D. Gangrene of the ilium

28
Q
  1. A patient who has been admitted to your unit for urinary diversion surgery has asked to talk with you. The patient asks what complications she may have from the surgery. What would be an appropriate response by the nurse?
A

A. “Potential complications may include peritonitis due to continuity of anastomosis.”
B. “Potential complications may include stoma ischemia due to trauma.”
C. “Potential complications may include necrosis due to supplemented blood supply to stoma.”
D. “Potential complications may include stoma retraction and separation of mucocutaneous border due to tension or trauma.”

29
Q
  1. The nurse is writing a plan of care for a patient who has just returned from the PACU following surgery for urinary diversion. What would be a major postoperative nursing diagnosis following surgery for urinary diversion?
A

A. Potential for sexual dysfunction related to structural and physiologic alterations
B. Deficient knowledge about management bowel function
C. Acute pain related to ureteral obstruction.
D. Disturbed body image related to perceived rejection of significant other

30
Q
  1. You are formulating a plan of care for a patient who is scheduled to have urinary diversion surgery. What would be an appropriate preoperative nursing diagnosis for this patient?
A

A. Exhibits reduced anxiety about surgery and expected losses
B. Imbalanced nutrition, less than body requirements related to inadequate nutritional intake
C. Exhibits adequate nutritional status
D. Demonstrates knowledge about the surgical procedure and postoperative course

31
Q
  1. A patient has been admitted to the unit you are working on for a scheduled cutaneous ureterostomy. Another staff nurse comes to you asking why this patient is having this particular procedure. How should you respond?
A

A. “Patients who get cutaneous ureterostomies are patients who can’t manage an ileal conduit.”
B. “Patients who get cutaneous ureterostomies are patients who have obstructed ureters due to large kidney stones.”
C. “Patients who get cutaneous ureterostomies are patients who have obstructed ureters due to advanced pelvic cancer.”
D. “Patients who get cutaneous ureterostomies are patients who don’t have strong support networks.”

32
Q
  1. A patient, 6 months postoperative from the placement of an ileal conduit, has come to the clinic for routine follow-up. What long-term complications should this patient be assessed for?
A

A. Pyelonephrosis
B. Renal deterioration due to acute reflux
C. Widening of the stoma
D. Ureteral obstruction

33
Q
  1. You are writing a teaching plan for a 45-year-old male patient with recurrent UTIs. What diagnostic test would the nurse expect to teach this patient about?
A

A. Ultrasonography
B. Transrectal ultrasonography
C. Cystourethroscopy
D. CT scan

34
Q
  1. A patient with urinary retention is admitted to your unit. What may be a causative factor in adult urinary retention?
A

A. Ureteral pathology
B. Prostatic atrophy
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Urge incontinence

35
Q
  1. You are caring for an 84-year-old female patient who was brought to the emergency room by her family, who related that their mother had had mental status changes and periods of incontinence and they were very concerned. What condition would the nurse suspect the patient had?
A

A. Urinary retention
B. Urinary stasis
C. Urinary calculi
D. Urinary tract infection

36
Q
  1. An example of an upper urinary tract infection (UTI) is:
A

a. acute pyelonephritis.
b. cystitis.
c. prostatitis.
d. urethritis.

37
Q
  1. A sign of possible UTI is:
A

a. a negative urine culture.
b. an output of 200 to 900 mL with each voiding.
c. cloudy urine.
d. urine with a specific gravity of 1.005 to 1.022.

38
Q
  1. The most common site of a lower UTI is the:
A

a. bladder.
b. kidney.
c. prostate.
d. urethra.

39
Q
  1. There is an increased risk of UTIs in the presence of:
A

a. altered metabolic states.
b. immunosuppression.
c. urethral mucosa abrasion.
d. all of the above.

40
Q
  1. The most common organism responsible for UTIs in women and the elderly is:
A

a. Klebsiella.
b. Escherichia coli.
c. Proteus.
d. Pseudomonas.

41
Q
  1. A first-line fluoroquinolone antibacterial agent for UTIs that has been found to be significantly effective is:
A

a. Bactrim.
b. Cipro.
c. Macrodantin.
d. Septra.

42
Q
  1. Frequently, a urinary analgesic is prescribed for relief of burning, pain, and other symptoms of a UTI. An
    example would be:
A

a. Bactrim.
b. Levaquin.
c. Pyridium.
d. Septra.

43
Q
  1. Health information for a female patient diagnosed as having cystitis includes all of the following except:
A

a. cleanse around the perineum and urethral
meatus (from front to back) after each bowel
movement.
b. drink liberal amounts of fluid.
c. shower rather than bathe in a tub.
d. void no more frequently than every 6 hours
to allow urine to dilute the bacteria in the
bladder.

44
Q
  1. Complications of chronic pyelonephritis include:
A

a. end-stage renal disease.
b. hypertension.
c. kidney stone formation.
d. all of the above.

45
Q
  1. The type of incontinence that results from a sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure is:
A

a. reflex incontinence.
b. stress incontinence.
c. overflow incontinence.
d. urge incontinence.

46
Q
  1. Incontinence or dyssynergia is a voiding dysfunction found in the following neurogenic disorder:
A

a. cerebellar ataxia.
b. diabetes.
c. multiple sclerosis.
d. Parkinson’s disease.

47
Q
  1. Fluid management as a method of behavioral therapy for incontinence requires a daily liquid intake of:
A

a. 0.5 mL.
b. 1.0 mL.
c. 1.5 mL.
d. 2.0 mL.

48
Q
  1. Spastic neurogenic bladder is associated with all of the following except:
A
a. a loss of conscious sensation and cerebral
motor control.
b. a lower motor neuron lesion.
c. hypertrophy of the bladder walls.
d. reduced bladder capacity.
49
Q
  1. The major complication of neurogenic bladder is:
A

a. hypertrophy.
b. infection.
c. pain.
d. spasm.

50
Q
  1. The major cause of death for patients with neurologic impairment of the bladder is:
A

a. myocardial infection.
b. pulmonary edema.
c. septicemia.
d. renal failure.

51
Q
  1. Nursing measures for the patient with neurogenic bladder include:
A

a. encouraging a liberal fluid intake.
b. keeping the patient as mobile as possible.
c. offering a diet low in calcium.
d. all of the above.

52
Q
  1. When managing a closed urinary drainage system, the nurse needs to remember not to:
A

a. allow the drainage bag to touch the floor.
b. disconnect the bag.
c. raise the drainage bag above the level of the
patient’s bladder.
d. do any of the above.

53
Q
  1. A woman is taught to catheterize herself by inserting the catheter into the urethra:
A

a. 0.5 to 1 in.
b. 2 in.
c. 3 in.
d. 5 in.

54
Q
  1. A major clinical manifestation of renal stones is:
A

a. dysuria.
b. hematuria.
c. infection.
d. pain.

55
Q
  1. Patients with urolithiasis need to be encouraged to:
A

a. increase their fluid intake so that they can
excrete 2,500 mL to 4,000 mL every day,
which will help prevent additional stone
formation.
b. participate in strenuous exercises so that the
tone of smooth muscle in the urinary tract
can be strengthened to help propel calculi.
c. supplement their diet with calcium needed to
replace losses to renal calculi.
d. limit their voiding to every 6 to 8 hours so
that increased volume can increase hydrostatic
pressure, which will help push stones along
the urinary system.

56
Q
  1. A patient being prescribed a diet moderately reduced in calcium and phosphorus should be taught to avoid:
A

a. citrus fruits.
b. milk.
c. pasta.
d. whole grain breads.

57
Q
  1. The most common symptom of cancer of the bladder is:
A

a. back pain.
b. dysuria.
c. visible, painless hematuria.
d. infection.

58
Q
  1. The predominant cause of bladder cancer is:
A

a. chronic renal failure.
b. cigarette smoking.
c. environmental pollution.
d. metastasis from another primary site.

59
Q
  1. The most effective intravesical agent for transurethral resection or fulguration for bladder cancer is:
A

a. bacille Calmette-Guerin (BCG).
b. doxorubicin.
c. ethoglucid.
d. thiotepa.

60
Q
  1. The urinary diversion whereby the patient will void from his rectum for the rest of his life is known as a:
A

a. cutaneous ureterostomy.
b. nephrostomy.
c. suprapubic cystotomy.
d. ureterosigmoidostomy.