Chapter 43: Assessment and Management of Patients with Hepatic Disorders Flashcards

1
Q
  1. A nurse is caring for a client with liver failure and is performing an assessment of the
    client’s increased risk of bleeding. The nurse recognizes that this risk is related to the
    client’s inability to synthesize prothrombin in the liver. What factor most likely
    contributes to this loss of function?
    A. Alterations in glucose metabolism
    B. Retention of bile salts
    C. Inadequate production of albumin by hepatocytes
    D. Inability of the liver to use vitamin K
A

ANS: D
Rationale: Decreased production of several clotting factors may be partially due to deficient absorption of vitamin K from the GI tract. This probably is caused by the inability
of liver cells to use vitamin K to make prothrombin. This bleeding risk is unrelated to the roles of glucose, bile salts, or albumin.

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2
Q
  1. A nurse is performing an admission assessment of a client with a diagnosis of cirrhosis.
    What technique should the nurse use to palpate the client’s liver?
    A. Place hand under the right lower abdominal quadrant and press down lightly
    with the other hand.
    B. Place the left hand over the abdomen and behind the left side at the 11th rib.
    C. Place hand under right lower rib cage and press down lightly with the other
    hand.
    D. Hold hand 90 degrees to right side of the abdomen and push down
    firmly.
A

ANS: C
Rationale: To palpate the liver, the examiner places one hand under the right lower rib cage and presses downward with light pressure with the other hand. The liver is not on
the left side or in the right lower abdominal quadrant.

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3
Q
  1. A client with portal hypertension has been admitted to the medical floor. The nurse
    should prioritize what assessments?
    A. Assessment of blood pressure and assessment for headaches and visual
    changes
    B. Assessments for signs and symptoms of venous thromboembolism
    C. Daily weights and abdominal girth measurement
    D. Blood glucose monitoring q4h
A

ANS: C
Rationale: Obstruction to blood flow through the damaged liver results in increased blood pressure (portal hypertension) throughout the portal venous system. This can result in varices and ascites in the abdominal cavity. Assessments related to ascites are daily weights and abdominal girths. Portal hypertension is not synonymous with cardiovascular hypertension and does not create a risk for unstable blood glucose or VTE.

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4
Q
  1. A nurse educator is teaching a group of recent nursing graduates about their
    occupational risks for contracting hepatitis B. What preventative measures should the
    educator promote? Select all that apply.
    A. Immunization
    B. Use of standard precautions
    C. Consumption of a vitamin-rich diet
    D. Annual vitamin K injections
    E. Annual vitamin B12 injections
A

ANS: A, B
Rationale: People who are at high occupational risk for contracting hepatitis B, including nurses and other health care personnel exposed to blood or blood products, should
receive active immunization. The consistent use of standard precautions is also highly beneficial. Vitamin supplementation is unrelated to an individual’s risk of HBV.

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5
Q
  1. A client who has undergone liver transplantation is ready to be discharged home.
    Which outcome of health education should the nurse prioritize?
    A. The client will obtain measurement of drainage from the T-tube.
    B. The client will exercise three times a week.
    C. The client will take immunosuppressive agents as required.
    D. The client will monitor for signs of liver dysfunction.
A

ANS: C
Rationale: The client is given written and verbal instructions about immunosuppressive agent doses and dosing schedules. The client is also instructed on steps to follow to
ensure that an adequate supply of medication is available so that there is no chance of running out of the medication or skipping a dose. Failure to take medications as instructed may precipitate rejection. The nurse would not teach the client to measure drainage from a T-tube as the client wouldn’t go home with a T-tube. The nurse may teach the client about the need to exercise or what the signs of liver dysfunction are, but the nurse would not stress these topics over the immunosuppressive drug regimen.

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6
Q
  1. A triage nurse in the emergency department is assessing a client who presented with
    reports of general malaise. Assessment reveals the presence of jaundice and increased
    abdominal girth. What assessment question best addresses the possible etiology of this
    client’s presentation?
    A. “How many alcoholic drinks do you typically consume in a week?”
    B. “To the best of your knowledge, are your immunizations up to date?”
    C. “Have you ever worked in an occupation where you might have been exposed to
    toxins?”
    D. “Has anyone in your family ever experienced symptoms similar to yours?”
A

ANS: A
Rationale: Signs or symptoms of hepatic dysfunction indicate a need to assess for alcohol use. Immunization status, occupational risks, and family history are also relevant
considerations, but alcohol use is a more common etiologic factor in liver disease.

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7
Q
  1. A nurse is participating in the emergency care of a client who has just developed
    variceal bleeding. What intervention should the nurse anticipate?
    A. Infusion of intravenous heparin
    B. IV administration of albumin
    C. STAT administration of vitamin K by the intramuscular route
    D. IV administration of octreotide
A

ANS: D
Rationale: Octreotide—a synthetic analog of the hormone somatostatin—is effective in decreasing bleeding from esophageal varices, and lacks the vasoconstrictive effects of
vasopressin. Because of this safety and efficacy profile, octreotide is considered the preferred treatment regimen for immediate control of variceal bleeding. Vitamin K and
albumin are not given, and heparin would exacerbate, not alleviate, bleeding.

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8
Q
  1. A nurse is caring for a client with hepatic encephalopathy. While making the initial shift
    assessment, the nurse notes that the client has a flapping tremor of the hands. The nurse
    should document the presence of what sign of liver disease?
    A. Asterixis
    B. Constructional apraxia
    C. Fetor hepaticus
    D. Palmar erythema
A

ANS: A
Rationale: The nurse will document that a client exhibiting a flapping tremor of the hands is demonstrating asterixis. While constructional apraxia is a motor disturbance, it is the
inability to reproduce a simple figure. Fetor hepaticus is a sweet, slightly fecal odor to the breath and not associated with a motor disturbance. Skin changes associated with liver
dysfunction may include palmar erythema, which is a reddening of the palms, but is not a flapping tremor.

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9
Q
  1. A local public health nurse is informed that a cook in a local restaurant has been
    diagnosed with hepatitis A. What should the nurse advise individuals to obtain who ate at
    this restaurant and have never received the hepatitis A vaccine?
    A. The hepatitis A vaccine
    B. Albumin infusion
    C. The hepatitis A and B vaccines
    D. An immune globulin injection
A

ANS: D
Rationale: For people who have not been previously vaccinated, hepatitis A can be prevented by the intramuscular administration of immune globulin during the incubation period, if given within 2 weeks of exposure. Administration of the hepatitis A vaccine will not protect the client exposed to hepatitis A, as protection will take a few weeks to develop after the first dose of the vaccine. The hepatitis B vaccine provides protection against the hepatitis B virus, but plays no role in protection for the client exposed to hepatitis A. Albumin confers no therapeutic benefit.

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10
Q
  1. What health promotion teaching should the nurse prioritize to prevent drug-induced
    hepatitis?
    A. Finish all prescribed courses of antibiotics, regardless of symptom resolution.
    B. Adhere to dosing recommendations of over-the-counter analgesics.
    C. Ensure that expired medications are disposed of safely.
    D. Ensure that pharmacists regularly review drug regimens for potential
    interactions.
A

ANS: B
Rationale: Although any medication can affect liver function, use of acetaminophen (found in many over-the-counter medications used to treat fever and pain) has been identified as the leading cause of acute liver failure. Finishing prescribed antibiotics and avoiding expired medications are unrelated to this disease. Drug interactions are rarely the cause of drug-induced hepatitis.

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11
Q
  1. Diagnostic testing has revealed that a client’s hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is
    limited to one lobe. The nurse should anticipate that this client’s plan of care will focus on
    what intervention?
    A. Cryosurgery
    B. Liver transplantation
    C. Lobectomy
    D. Laser hyperthermia
A

ANS: C
Rationale: Surgical resection is the treatment of choice when HCC is confined to one lobe of the liver and the function of the remaining liver is considered adequate for postoperative recovery. Removal of a lobe of the liver (lobectomy) is the most common surgical procedure for excising a liver tumor. While cryosurgery and liver transplantation are other surgical options for management of liver cancer, these procedures are not performed at the same frequency as a lobectomy. Laser hyperthermia is a nonsurgical treatment for liver cancer.

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12
Q
  1. A client has been diagnosed with advanced stage breast cancer and will soon begin
    aggressive treatment. What assessment findings would most strongly suggest that the
    client may have developed liver metastases?
    A. Persistent fever and cognitive changes
    B. Abdominal pain and hepatomegaly
    C. Peripheral edema unresponsive to diuresis
    D. Spontaneous bleeding and jaundice
A

ANS: B
Rationale: The early manifestations of malignancy of the liver include pain—a continuous dull ache in the right upper quadrant, epigastrium, or back. Weight loss, loss of strength,
anorexia, and anemia may also occur. The liver may be enlarged and irregular on palpation. Jaundice is present only if the larger bile ducts are occluded by the pressure of
malignant nodules in the hilum of the liver. Fever, cognitive changes, peripheral edema, and bleeding are atypical signs.

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13
Q
  1. A client is being discharged after a liver transplant and the nurse is performing
    discharge education. When planning this client’s continuing care, the nurse should
    prioritize what risk diagnosis?
    A. Risk for infection related to immunosuppressant use
    B. Risk for injury related to decreased hemostasis
    C. Risk for unstable blood glucose related to impaired gluconeogenesis
    D. Risk for contamination related to accumulation of ammonia
A

ANS: A
Rationale: Infection is the leading cause of death after liver transplantation. Pulmonary and fungal infections are common; susceptibility to infection is increased by the
immunosuppressive therapy that is needed to prevent rejection. This risk exceeds the threats of injury and unstable blood glucose. The diagnosis of Risk for Contamination
relates to environmental toxin exposure.

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14
Q
  1. A nurse is caring for a client with hepatic encephalopathy. The nurse’s assessment
    reveals that the client exhibits episodes of confusion, is difficult to arouse from sleep and
    has rigid extremities. Based on these clinical findings, the nurse should document what
    stage of hepatic encephalopathy?
    A. Stage 1
    B. Stage 2
    C. Stage 3
    D. Stage 4
A

ANS: C
Rationale: Clients in the third stage of hepatic encephalopathy exhibit the following symptoms: stuporous, difficult to arouse, sleep most of the time, exhibits marked
confusion, incoherent in speech, asterixis, increased deep tendon reflexes, rigidity of extremities, marked EEG abnormalities. Clients in stages 1 and 2 exhibit clinical
symptoms that are not as advanced as found in stage 3, and clients in stage 4 are comatose. In stage 4, there is an absence of asterixis, absence of deep tendon reflexes,
flaccidity of extremities, and EEG abnormalities.

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15
Q
  1. A client has developed hepatic encephalopathy secondary to cirrhosis and is receiving
    care on the medical unit. The client’s current medication regimen includes lactulose four
    times daily. What desired outcome should the nurse relate to this pharmacologic
    intervention?
    A. Two to three soft bowel movements daily
    B. Significant increase in appetite and food intake
    C. Absence of nausea and vomiting
    D. Absence of blood or mucus in stool
A

ANS: A
Rationale: Lactulose is given to reduce serum ammonia levels. Two or three soft stools per day are desirable; this indicates that lactulose is performing as intended. Lactulose
does not address the client’s appetite, symptoms of nausea and vomiting, or the development of blood and mucus in the stool.

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16
Q
  1. A nurse is performing an admission assessment for an 81-year-old client who
    generally enjoys good health. When considering normal, age-related changes to hepatic
    function, the nurse should anticipate what finding?
    A. Similar liver size and texture as in younger adults
    B. A nonpalpable liver
    C. A slightly enlarged liver with palpably hard edges
    D. A slightly decreased size of the liver
A

ANS: D
Rationale: The most common age-related change in the liver is a decrease in size and weight. The liver is usually still palpable, however, and is not expected to have hardened
edges.

17
Q
  1. A nurse is caring for a client with a blocked bile duct from a tumor. What
    manifestation of obstructive jaundice should the nurse anticipate?
    A. Watery, blood-streaked diarrhea
    B. Orange and foamy urine
    C. Increased abdominal girth
    D. Decreased cognition
A

ANS: B
Rationale: If the bile duct is obstructed, the bile will be reabsorbed into the blood and carried throughout the entire body. It is excreted in the urine, which becomes deep
orange and foamy. Bloody diarrhea, ascites, and cognitive changes are not associated with obstructive jaundice.

18
Q
  1. During a health education session, a participant has asked about the hepatitis E virus.
    What prevention measure should the nurse recommend for preventing infection with this
    virus?
    A. Following proper hand-washing techniques
    B. Avoiding chemicals that are toxic to the liver
    C. Wearing a condom during sexual contact
    D. Limiting alcohol intake
A

ANS: A
Rationale: Avoiding contact with the hepatitis E virus through good hygiene, including hand-washing, is the major method of prevention. Hepatitis E is transmitted by the fecal–
oral route, principally through contaminated water in areas with poor sanitation. Consequently, none of the other listed preventative measures is indicated.

19
Q
  1. A client’s health care provider has ordered a “liver panel” in response to the client’s
    development of jaundice. When reviewing the results of this laboratory testing, the nurse
    should expect to review what blood tests? Select all that apply.
    A. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
    B. C-reactive protein (CRP)
    C. Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT)
    D. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
    E. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)
A

ANS: A, C, D
Rationale: Liver function testing includes GGT, ALT, and AST. CRP addresses the presence of generalized inflammation and BNP is relevant to heart failure; neither is included in a liver panel.

20
Q
  1. A client with liver disease has developed ascites; the nurse is collaborating with the
    client to develop a nutritional plan. The nurse should prioritize which of the following in
    the client’s plan?
    A. Increased potassium intake
    B. Fluid restriction to 2 L per day
    C. Reduction in sodium intake
    D. High-protein, low-fat diet
A

ANS: C
Rationale: Clients with ascites require a sharp reduction in sodium intake. Potassium intake should not be correspondingly increased. There is no need for fluid restriction or increased protein intake.

21
Q
  1. A nurse is amending a client’s plan of care in light of the fact that the client has
    recently developed ascites. What should the nurse include in this client’s care plan?
    A. Mobilization with assistance at least 4 times daily
    B. Administration of beta-adrenergic blockers as prescribed
    C. Vitamin B12 injections as prescribed
    D. Administration of diuretics as prescribed
A

ANS: D
Rationale: Use of diuretics along with sodium restriction is successful in 90% of clients with ascites. Beta-blockers are not used to treat ascites and bed rest is often more beneficial than increased mobility. Vitamin B12 injections are not necessary.

22
Q
  1. A nurse is caring for a client who has been admitted for the treatment of advanced
    cirrhosis. What assessment should the nurse prioritize in this client’s plan of care?
    A. Measurement of abdominal girth and body weight
    B. Assessment for variceal bleeding
    C. Assessment for signs and symptoms of jaundice
    D. Monitoring of results of liver function testing
A

ANS: B
Rationale: Esophageal varices are a major cause of mortality in clients with uncompensated cirrhosis. Consequently, this should be a focus of the nurse’s assessments and should be prioritized over the other listed assessments, even though
each should be performed.

23
Q
  1. A client with a diagnosis of cirrhosis has developed variceal bleeding and will
    imminently undergo variceal banding. What psychosocial nursing diagnosis should the
    nurse most likely prioritize during this phase of the client’s treatment?
    A. Decisional conflict
    B. Deficient knowledge
    C. Death anxiety
    D. Disturbed thought processes
A

ANS: C
Rationale: The sudden hemorrhage that accompanies variceal bleeding is intensely anxiety-provoking. The nurse must address the client’s likely fear of death, which is a
realistic possibility. For most clients, anxiety is likely to be a more acute concern than lack of knowledge or decisional conflict. The client may or may not experience disturbances in thought processes.

24
Q
  1. A client with a diagnosis of esophageal varices has undergone endoscopy to gauge
    the progression of this complication of liver disease. Following the completion of this
    diagnostic test, what nursing intervention should the nurse perform?
    A. Keep client NPO until the results of test are known.
    B. Keep client NPO until the client’s gag reflex returns.
    C. Administer analgesia until post-procedure tenderness is relieved.
    D. Give the client a cold beverage to promote swallowing ability.
A

ANS: B
Rationale: After the examination, fluids are not given until the client’s gag reflex returns. Lozenges and gargles may be used to relieve throat discomfort if the client’s physical
condition and mental status permit. The result of the test is known immediately. Food and fluids are contraindicated until the gag reflex returns.

25
Q
  1. A client with esophageal varices is being cared for in the ICU. The varices have begun
    to bleed. The client has Ringer lactate at 150 cc/hr infusing. The nurse should also
    anticipate what intervention?
    A. Positioning the client supine
    B. Administering diuretics
    C. Oxygen by nasal cannula
    D. Administering volume expanders
A

ANS: D
Rationale: Because clients with bleeding esophageal varices have intravascular volume depletion and are subject to electrolyte imbalance, IV fluids with electrolytes and volume
expanders are provided to restore fluid volume and replace electrolytes. Diuretics would reduce vascular volume. Supine positioning could exacerbate bleeding because of the effects of gravity. Nasal cannula are unlikely to meet the client’s oxygenation needs.

26
Q
  1. A client with a history of injection drug use has been diagnosed with hepatitis C. When
    collaborating with the care team to plan this client’s treatment, the nurse should
    anticipate what intervention?
    A. Administration of immune globulins
    B. A regimen of antiviral medications
    C. Rest and watchful waiting
    D. Administration of fresh-frozen plasma (FFP)
A

ANS: B
Rationale: There is no benefit from rest, diet, or vitamin supplements in HCV treatment. Studies have demonstrated that antiviral agents are most effective. Immune globulins
and FFP are not indicated.

27
Q
  1. A group of nurses have attended an in-service on the prevention of occupationally
    acquired diseases that affect health care providers. What action has the greatest
    potential to reduce a nurse’s risk of acquiring hepatitis C in the workplace?
    A. Disposing of sharps appropriately and not recapping needles
    B. Performing meticulous hand hygiene at the appropriate moments in care
    C. Adhering to the recommended schedule of immunizations
    D. Wearing an N95 mask when providing care for clients on airborne precautions
A

ANS: A
Rationale: HCV is bloodborne. Consequently, prevention of needlestick injuries is paramount. Hand hygiene, immunizations and appropriate use of masks are important
aspects of overall infection control, but these actions do not directly mitigate the risk of HCV.

28
Q
  1. A client has been admitted to the critical care unit with a diagnosis of toxic hepatitis.
    When planning the client’s care, the nurse should be aware of what potential clinical
    course of this health problem? Place the following events in the correct sequence.
  2. Fever rises.
  3. Hematemesis.
  4. Clotting abnormalities.
  5. Vascular collapse.
  6. Coma.
    A. 1, 2, 5, 4, 3
    B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
    C. 2, 3, 1, 4, 5
    D. 3, 1, 2, 5, 4
A

ANS: B
Rationale: Recovery from acute toxic hepatitis is rapid if the hepatotoxin is identified early and removed or if exposure to the agent has been limited. Recovery is unlikely if
there is a prolonged period between exposure and onset of symptoms. There are no effective antidotes. The fever rises; the client becomes toxic and prostrated. Vomiting
may be persistent, with the emesis containing blood. Clotting abnormalities may be severe, and hemorrhages may appear under the skin. The severe GI symptoms may lead to vascular collapse. Delirium, coma, and seizures develop, and within a few days the client may die of fulminant hepatic failure unless he or she receives a liver transplant.

29
Q
  1. A nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis secondary to heavy alcohol use. The
    nurse’s most recent assessment reveals subtle changes in the client’s cognition and
    behavior. What is the nurse’s most appropriate response?
    A. Ensure that the client’s sodium intake does not exceed recommended levels.
    B. Report this finding to the primary provider due to the possibility of hepatic
    encephalopathy.
    C. Inform the primary provider that the client should be assessed for alcoholic
    hepatitis.
    D. Implement interventions aimed at ensuring a calm and therapeutic care
    environment.
A

ANS: B
Rationale: Monitoring is an essential nursing function to identify early deterioration in mental status. The nurse monitors the client’s mental status closely and reports changes so that treatment of encephalopathy can be initiated promptly. This change in status is likely unrelated to sodium intake and would not signal the onset of hepatitis. A supportive care environment is beneficial, but does not address the client’s physiologic deterioration.

30
Q
  1. A client with end-stage liver disease has developed hypervolemia. What nursing
    interventions would be most appropriate when addressing the client’s fluid volume
    excess? Select all that apply.
    A. Administering diuretics
    B. Administering calcium channel blockers
    C. Implementing fluid restrictions
    D. Implementing a 1500 kcal/day restriction
    E. Enhancing client positioning
A

ANS: A, C, E
Rationale: Administering diuretics, implementing fluid restrictions, and enhancing client positioning can optimize the management of fluid volume excess. Calcium channel
blockers and calorie restriction do not address this problem.

31
Q
  1. A client with liver cancer is being discharged home with a biliary drainage system in
    place. The nurse should teach the client’s family how to safely perform which of the
    following actions?
    A. Aspirating bile from the catheter using a syringe
    B. Removing the catheter when output is 15 mL in 24 hours
    C. Instilling antibiotics into the catheter
    D. Assessing the patency of the drainage catheter
A

ANS: D
Rationale: Families should be taught to provide basic catheter care, including assessment of patency. Antibiotics are not instilled into the catheter and aspiration using a syringe is contraindicated. The family would not independently remove the catheter; this would
be done by a member of the care team when deemed necessary.

32
Q
  1. A client with cirrhosis has experienced a progressive decline in his health; and liver
    transplantation is being considered by the interdisciplinary team. How will the client’s
    prioritization for receiving a donor liver be determined?
    A. By considering the client’s age and prognosis
    B. By objectively determining the client’s medical need
    C. By objectively assessing the client’s willingness to adhere to
    post-transplantation care
    D. By systematically ruling out alternative treatment options
A

ANS: B
Rationale: The client would undergo a classification of the degree of medical need through an objective determination known as the Model of End-Stage Liver Disease (MELD) classification, which stratifies the level of illness of those awaiting a liver transplant. This algorithm considers multiple variables, not solely age, prognosis, potential for adherence, and the rejection of alternative options.

33
Q
  1. A nurse has entered the room of a client with cirrhosis and found the client on the
    floor. The client reports falling when transferring to the commode. The client’s vital signs
    are within reference ranges and the nurse observes no apparent injuries. What is the
    nurse’s most appropriate action?
    A. Remove the client’s commode and supply a bedpan.
    B. Complete an incident report and submit it to the unit supervisor.
    C. Have the client assessed by the primary provider due to the risk of internal
    bleeding.
    D. Perform a focused abdominal assessment in order to rule out injury.
A

ANS: C
Rationale: A fall would necessitate thorough medical assessment due to the client’s risk of bleeding. The nurse’s abdominal assessment is an appropriate action, but is not wholly sufficient to rule out internal injury. Medical assessment is a priority over removing the commode or filling out an incident report, even though these actions are appropriate.

34
Q
  1. A client with liver cancer is being discharged home with a hepatic artery catheter in
    place. The nurse should be aware that this catheter will facilitate which of the following?
    A. Continuous monitoring for portal hypertension
    B. Administration of immunosuppressive drugs during the first weeks after
    transplantation
    C. Real-time monitoring of vascular changes in the hepatic system
    D. Delivery of a continuous chemotherapeutic dose
A

ANS: D
Rationale: In most cases, the hepatic artery catheter has been inserted surgically and hasa prefilled infusion pump that delivers a continuous chemotherapeutic dose until
completed. The hepatic artery catheter does not monitor portal hypertension, deliver immunosuppressive drugs, or monitor vascular changes in the hepatic system.

35
Q
  1. A nurse on a solid organ transplant unit is planning the care of a client who will soon
    be admitted upon immediate recovery following liver transplantation. What aspect of
    nursing care is the nurse’s priority?
    A. Implementation of infection-control measures
    B. Close monitoring of skin integrity and color
    C. Frequent assessment of the client’s psychosocial status
    D. Administration of antiretroviral medications
A

ANS: A
Rationale: Infection control is paramount following liver transplantation. This is a priority over skin integrity and psychosocial status, even though these are valid areas of
assessment and intervention. Antiretrovirals are not indicated.

36
Q
  1. A 55-year-old female client with hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is undergoing
    radiofrequency ablation. The nurse should recognize what goal of this treatment?
    A. Destruction of the client’s liver tumor
    B. Restoration of portal vein patency
    C. Destruction of a liver abscess
    D. Reversal of metastasis
A

ANS: A
Rationale: Using radiofrequency ablation, a tumor up to 5 cm in size can be destroyed in one treatment session. This technique does not address circulatory function or abscess
formation. It does not allow for the reversal of metastasis.

37
Q
  1. A nurse is caring for a client with severe hemolytic jaundice. Laboratory tests show
    free bilirubin to be 24 mg/dL (408 mmol/L). For what complication is this client at risk?
    A. Chronic jaundice
    B. Pigment stones in portal circulation
    C. Central nervous system damage
    D. Hepatomegaly
A

ANS: C
Rationale: Prolonged jaundice, even if mild, predisposes to the formation of pigment stones in the gallbladder, and extremely severe jaundice (levels of free bilirubin
exceeding 20 to 25 mg/dL) poses a risk for CNS damage. There are not specific risks of hepatomegaly or chronic jaundice resulting from high bilirubin.

38
Q
  1. The nurse’s review of a client’s most recent laboratory results indicates a bilirubin
    level of 3.0 mg/dL (51 mmol/L). The nurse assesses the client for:
    A. jaundice.
    B. bleeding.
    C. malnutrition.
    D. hypokalemia.
A

ANS: A
Rationale: Jaundice becomes clinically evident when the serum bilirubin level exceeds 2.0 mg/dL (34 mmol/L). Elevated bilirubin levels are not associated with hypokalemia, malnutrition or bleeding, though these complications may result from the underlying liver
disorder.