Chapter 41: Cardiovascular Disorders

Question 1

1. The nurse is conducting a physical examination of a child with a ventricular septal defect. Which finding would the nurse expect to assess?
   A. Right ventricular heave
   B. Holosystolic harsh murmur along the left sternal
   C. Fixed split-second heart sound
   D. Systolic ejection murmur

Answer 1

Ans: B
Rationale: With ventricular septal defects, there is often a characteristic holosystolic harsh murmur along the left sternal border. Right ventricular heave, fixed split-second heart sound, and systolic ejection murmur are typically found with atrial septal defects.

Question 2

2. The nurse is administering digoxin as ordered and the child vomits the dose. What should the nurse do next?
   A. Contact the healthcare provider.
   B. Offer a snack and administer another dose.
   C. Immediately administer another dose.
   D. Administer next dose as ordered in 12 hours.

Answer 2

Ans: D
Rationale: Digoxin should be administered at regular intervals, every 12 hours, 1 hour before or 2 hours after feeding. If the child vomits digoxin, the nurse should not give a second dose and should wait until the next scheduled dose. It is not necessary to contact the healthcare provider.

Question 3

3. The nurse is caring for an infant with suspected patent ductus arteriosus. Which assessment finding would the nurse identify as helping to confirm this suspicion?
   A. Thrill at the base of the heart
   B. Harsh, continuous, machine-like murmur under the left clavicle
   C. Faint pulses
   D. Systolic murmur best heard along the left sternal border

Answer 3

Ans: B
Rationale: With patent ductus arteriosus, a harsh, continuous, machine-like murmur (usually loudest under the left clavicle) is heard at the first and second intercostal spaces. A thrill at the base, faint pulses, and systolic

Question 4

4. The nurse is conducting a physical examination of a child with a suspected cardiovascular disorder. Which finding would the nurse most likely expect to assess if the child had
   transposition of the great vessels?
   A. Significant cyanosis without presence of a murmur
   B. Abrupt cessation of chest output with an increase in heart rate/filling pressure
   C. Soft systolic ejection
   D. Holosystolic murmur

Answer 4

Ans: A
Rationale: Significant cyanosis without presence of a murmur is highly indicative of transposition. Abrupt cessation of chest output accompanied by an increase in heart rate and filling pressure is indicative of cardiac tamponade. A soft systolic ejection or holosystolic murmur can be found with other disorders, such as hypoplastic left heart syndrome, but is not highly suspicious of transposition.

Question 5

5. The nurse is assessing a child with suspected infective endocarditis. Which assessment finding would the nurse interpret as a sign of extracardiac emboli?
   A. Pruritus
   B. Roth spots
   C. Delayed capillary refill
   D. Erythema marginatum

Answer 5

Ans: B
Rationale: Roth spots are splinter hemorrhages with pale centers on the sclerae, palate, buccal mucosa, chest, fingers, or toes, and are signs of extracardiac emboli. Delayed capillary refill time does not point to extracardiac emboli. Wheezing and pruritus are indicative of a hypersensitivity reaction. Erythema marginatum is a classic rash associated with acute rheumatic fever.

Question 6

6. When conducting a physical examination of a child with suspected Kawasaki disease, which finding would the nurse expect to assess?
   A. Hirsutism or striae
   B. Strawberry tongue
   C. Malar rash
   D. Café au lait spots

Answer 6

Ans: B
Rationale: Dry, fissured lips and a strawberry tongue are common findings with Kawasaki disease. Acne, hirsutism, and striae are associated with anabolic steroid use. Malar rash is associated with lupus. Café au lait spots are associated with neurofibromatosis.

Question 7

7. After teaching a group of students about acute rheumatic fever, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which assessment finding?
   A. Janeway lesions
   B. Jerky movements of the face and upper extremities
   C. Black lines
   D. Osler nodes

Answer 7

Ans: B
Rationale: Sydenham chorea is a movement disorder of the face upper extremities associated with acute rheumatic fever. Janeway lesions, black lines, and Osler nodes are associated with infective endocarditis.

Question 8

8. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a child and finds that the child has a grade III murmur. After auscultating the child’s heart sounds, how would the nurse document this murmur?
   A. Loud without a thrill
   B. Loud with a precordial thrill
   C. Soft and easily heard
   D. Loud, audible with a stethoscope

Answer 8

Ans: A
Rationale: A grade III murmur is loud without a thrill. Grade II is soft and easily heard. Grade IV is loud with a precordial thrill. Grade V is characterized as loud, audible with a stethoscope.

Question 9

9. The nurse is caring for a 2-month-old infant who has been diagnosed with acute heart failure. The nurse is providing teaching about nutrition. Which statement by the mother indicates a need for further teaching?
   A. “The baby may need as much as 150 calories/kg/day.”
   B. “Small, frequent feedings are best if tolerated.”
   C. “I need to feed him every hour to make sure he eats enough.”
   D. “Gavage feedings may be required for now.”

Answer 9

Ans: C
Rationale: Although offering small frequent feedings is appropriate if the infant tolerates them, feeding
every hour is not necessary. During the acute phase, continuous or intermittent gavage feedings may be needed to help the infant maintain or gain weight. Due to the increased metabolic demands, the infant may require as much as 150 calories/kg/day.

Question 10

10. The nurse is caring for an infant girl with a suspected cardiovascular disorder. Which statement by the mother would warrant further investigation?
    A. “My baby does not make any grunting noises.”
    B. “The baby seems more comfortable over my shoulder.”
    C. “The baby usually drinks all of her bottle.”
    D. “I don’t notice any rapid breathing patterns.”

Answer 10

Ans: B
Rationale: The nurse should be alert to statements indicating that the baby seems to be more comfortable when she is sitting up or over her mother’s shoulder than when she is lying flat. Grunting or rapid breathing would be a cause for concern. Drinking all of the bottle would be considered normal.

Question 11

11. Auscultation of a child’s heart reveals a loud murmur with a precordial thrill. The nurse documents this as which grade?
    A. Grade II
    B. Grade III
    C. Grade IV
    D. Grade V

Answer 11

Ans: C
Rationale: A grade IV murmur is loud with a precordial thrill. A grade II murmur is soft and easily heard. A grade III murmur is characterized as loud without a thrill. A grade V murmur is characterized as loud, audible without a stethoscope.

Question 12

12. After assessing a child’s blood pressure, the nurse determines the pulse pressure and finds that it is narrowed. What would the nurse identify as associated with this finding?
    A. Aortic stenosis
    B. Patent ductus arteriosus
    C. Aortic insufficiency
    D. Complete heart block

Answer 12

Ans: A
Rationale: A narrowed pulse pressure is associated with aortic stenosis. A widened pulse pressure is associated with patent ductus arteriosus, aortic insufficiency, fever, anemia, or complete heart block.

Question 13

13. A 9-year-old child has undergone a cardiac catheterization and is being prepared for discharge. The nurse is instructing the parents and child about postprocedure care. Which statement by the parents indicates that the teaching was successful?
    A. “This pressure dressing needs to stay on for 5 days from now.”
    B. “He can’t eat but he can drink fluids for the next 24 hours.”
    C. “He should avoid taking a bath for about 3 days, but he can shower.”
    D. “It’s normal if he says he feels like his heart skipped a beat.”

Answer 13

Ans: C
Rationale: After a cardiac catheterization, the child should avoid tub baths for about 3 days, but he can shower or use sponge baths. The pressure dressing should be removed the day after the procedure and a dry sterile dressing or adhesive bandage is applied for the next several days. After the procedure, the child can resume his usual diet. Any reports of fluttering or the heart skipping a beat should be reported.

Question 14

14.A newborn is diagnosed with patent ductus arteriosus. The nurse anticipates that the healthcare provider will most likely order which medication?
A. Alprostadil
B. Heparin
C. Indomethacin
D. Spironolactone

Answer 14

Ans: C
Rationale: Indomethacin is the drug typically ordered to close a patent ductus arteriosus. Alprostadil
would be indicated to maintain the ductus arteriosus temporarily in infants with ductal-dependent congenital heart defects. Heparin would be used for prophylaxis and treatment of thromboembolic disorders, especially after surgery. Spironolactone would be used to manage
edema due to heart failure and to treat hypertension.

Question 15

15. The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for the parents of a child who has been diagnosed with a congenital heart defect. What would the nurse be least likely to include?
    A. Daily weight assessment
    B. Maintenance of strict bed rest
    C. Prevention of infection
    D. Signs of complications

Answer 15

Ans: B
Rationale: A child with congenital heart disease should be allowed to engage in activity as tolerated, with rest periods frequently throughout the day to prevent overexertion. Daily weights, infection prevention measures, and signs of complications are all appropriate to include when teaching parents of a child with a congenital heart defect.

Question 16

16. After teaching a class about the hemodynamic characteristics of congenital heart disease, the instructor determines that the teaching has been successful when the class identifies which defect as an example of a disorder involving increased pulmonary blood flow?
    A. Tetralogy of Fallot
    B. Atrial septal defect
    C. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
    D. Transposition of the great vessels

Answer 16

Ans: B
Rationale: Atrial septal defect is an example of a disorder involving increased pulmonary blood flow. Tetralogy of Fallot is a defect involving decreased pulmonary blood flow. Transposition of the great vessels and hypoplastic left heart syndrome are examples of mixed disorders.

Question 17

17. A 7-year-old child with a family history of cardiovascular disease is being screened for hyperlipidemia. When reviewing the child’s laboratory test results, which total cholesterol level would be of significant concern?
    A. 120 mg/dL (3.11 mmol/L)
    B. 150 mg/dL (3.88 mmol/L)
    C. 180 mg/dL (4.66 mmol/L)
    D. 210 mg/dL (5.44 mmol/L)

Answer 17

Ans: D
Rationale: A total cholesterol level greater than 200 mg/dL (5.18 mmol/L) is considered high and would be of the greatest concern. Levels of 120 mg/dL (3.11 mmol/L) and 150 mg/dL (3.88 mmol/L) are considered within the normal range. A level of 180 mg/dL (4.66 mmol/L) would be considered borderline and significant. However, a level greater than 200 mg/dL (5.18 mmol/L) would be of greater concern.

Question 18

18. A child with a suspected cardiovascular disorder is to undergo diagnostic testing and is scheduled for an echocardiogram. When explaining this test to the child, what would the nurse most likely include?
    A. “This test will check the pattern of how your heart is beating.”
    B. “They’ll take a picture of your chest to look at the heart’s size.”
    C. “A special wand that picks up sound is used to check your heart.”
    D. “Small patches are attached to your chest to check the heart rhythm.”

Answer 18

Ans: C
Rationale: An echocardiogram is a noninvasive ultrasound procedure using a gel-coated wand that assesses the heart wall thickness, the size of the chambers, valve and septal motion, and the relationship of the great vessels to other structures. An electrocardiogram reveals the pattern
or rhythm of the heart’s beating and involves small patches or electrodes attached to the chest. A chest radiograph involves a radiographic film of the chest to determine the size of the heart `and its chambers.

Question 19

19. The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a child with infective endocarditis. What would the nurse expect to find? Select all that apply.
    A. White blood cell count revealing leukopenia
    B. Microscopic hematuria with urinalysis
    C. Electrocardiogram with prolonged PR interval
    D. Lungs clear on auscultation
    E. Petechiae on palpebral conjunctiva

Answer 19

Ans: B, C, E
Rationale: With infective endocarditis, leukocytosis, microscopic hematuria, prolonged PR interval, adventitious lung sounds, and petechiae on the palpebral conjunctiva are noted.

Question 20

20. A child with heart failure is receiving supplemental oxygen. The nurse understands that in addition to improving oxygen saturation, this intervention also has what effect?
    A. Cause vasodilation
    B. Increase pulmonary vascular resistance
    C. Promote diuresis
    D. Mobilize secretions

Answer 20

Ans: A
Rationale: Oxygen improves oxygen saturation and also functions as a vasodilator and decreases pulmonary vascular resistance. Diuretics promote diuresis. Chest physiotherapy helps to mobilize secretions.

Question 21

21. The nurse is developing a plan of care for an infant with heart failure who is receiving digoxin. The nurse would hold the dose of digoxin and notify the health care provider if the
    infant’s apical pulse rate was:
    A. 140 beats per minute
    B. 120 beats per minute
    C. 100 beats per minute
    D. 80 beats per minute

Answer 21

Ans: D
Rationale: In an infant, if the apical pulse rate is less than 90 beats per minute, the dose is held and the healthcare provider should be notified.

Question 22

22. A nurse is working with an adolescent who is slightly overweight and was recently diagnosed with hypertension. They are discussing nutritional management. Which statement by the adolescent demonstrates understanding of the information?
    A. “I have to make sure that I don’t eat a lot of salty foods.”
    B. “I can eat any amount at a meal as long as I don’t eat between meals.”
    C. “I should eat plenty of fresh fruits and vegetables.”
    D. “If I skip breakfast, I can eat a much bigger lunch.”

Answer 22

Ans: C
Rationale: Nutritional management includes controlling portion size, decreasing the intake of sugary beverages and snacks, eating more fresh fruits and vegetables, and eating a healthy breakfast. Salt restriction and potassium or calcium supplements have not been shown to decrease blood pressure in children.

Question 23

23. A child is diagnosed with Kawasaki disease and is in the acute phase of the disorder. What would the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe? Select all that apply.
    A. Intravenous immunoglobulin
    B. Ibuprofen
    C. Acetaminophen
    D. Aspirin
    E. Alprostadil

Answer 23

Ans: A, D
Rationale: In the acute phase, high-dose aspirin in four divided doses daily and a single infusion of intravenous immunoglobulin are used. Acetaminophen is used to reduce fever. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents such as ibuprofen are avoided while the child is receiving aspirin
therapy. Alprostadil is used to temporarily keep the ductus arteriosus patent in infants with ductal-dependent congenital heart defects.

Question 24

24. An infant with congenital heart disease is to undergo surgery to correct the defect. The mother states, “I guess I’m going to have to stop breastfeeding her.” Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
    A. “That’s true, but we’ll make sure she gets the best intravenous nutrition.”
    B. “Unfortunately, your baby needs more nutrients than what breast milk can provide.”
    C. “Breast milk may help to boost her immune system, so you can continue to use it.”
    D. “She won’t be able to suck, so we have to give her fortified formula through a tube.”

Answer 24

Ans: C
Rationale: Breastfeeding a child before and after cardiac surgery may boost the infant’s immune system, which can help fight postoperative infection. If breastfeeding is not possible, mothers can pump milk and the breast milk may be given via bottle, dropper, or gavage feeding. In addition,
breastfeeding is associated with decreased energy expenditure during the act of feeding.

Question 25

25. During a follow-up visit, the parents of a 5-month-old infant diagnosed with congenital heart disease tell the nurse, “We’re just so tired and emotionally spent. All these tests and examinations are overwhelming. We just want to have a normal life. We’re so focused on the baby that it seems like our 3-year-year-old is lost in the shuffle.” Which nursing diagnosis would the nurse identify as most appropriate?
    A. Risk for delayed growth and development related to necessary treatments
    B. Deficient knowledge related to the care of a child with congenital heart disease
    C. Interrupted family processes related to demands of caring for the ill child
    D. Fear related to infant’s cardiac condition and need for ongoing care

Answer 25

Ans: C
Rationale: The statements by the parents indicate that there is disruption in the family resulting from the demands of caring for the ill infant and they verbalized concern about their older child. The child may be at risk for delayed growth and development, but this is not indicated by the parents’ statements. The parents may lack knowledge about their infant’s condition and they may be experiencing fear about the infant’s condition, but the statements reflect issues related to the family functioning.

Question 26

26. A child with suspected dyslipidemia undergoes laboratory testing. The nurse is reviewing the results. Which finding would the nurse interpret as supporting the diagnosis? Select all that apply.
    A. Total cholesterol level of 150 mg/dL (3.88 mmol/L)
    B. Total cholesterol level of 180 mg/dL (4.66 mmo/L)
    C. Total cholesterol level of 220 mg/dL (5.70 mmol/L)
    D. LDL level of 90 mg/dL (2.33 mmol/L)
    E. LDL level of 120 mg/dL (3.11 mmol/L)
    F. LDL level of 140 mg/dL (3.63 mmol/L)

Answer 26

Ans: C, F
Rationale: A total cholesterol level over 200 mg/dL (5.18 mmol/L) and LDL level above 130 mg/dL (3.37 mmol/L) are considered high and would support the diagnosis of dyslipidemia. Total cholesterol levels between 170 to 199 mg/dL (4.40 to 5.15 mmol/L) and LDL levels between 110 to 129 mg/dL (2.85 to 3.34 mmol/L) are considered borderline. Total cholesterol levels less than 170 mg/dL (4.40 mmol/L) and LDL levels less than 110 mg/dL (2.85 mmol/L) are acceptable in children.

Question 27

27. The mother of a 4-week-old infant is tearful. She reports the healthcare provider has told her that her son has a small atrial septal defect. She reports she is worried and asks the nurse more about the condition. Which statement by the parents best indicates an understanding of the
    nurse’s teaching?
    A. “This greatly places my son at risk for cardiac failure.”
    B. “If this does not resolve by the time my child is 1 year old, he will likely need surgery.”
    C. “Most of the time this condition spontaneously resolves.”
    D. “Since the surgery to correct this condition can be risky, my son will need to be at least
    40 pounds.”

Answer 27

Ans: C
Rationale: Atrial septal defects in children most likely resolve without treatment. Those that are not corrected by the age of 18 months will likely require surgical intervention. When planned, surgery is not usually performed until the child is at least 3 years of age. There is no indication other problems are present, so the child is not at an increased risk for cardiac failure.

Question 28

28. The nurse is caring for a child that just returned from a coronary arteriogram in which the catheter was placed through the left femoral artery. Which nursing actions demonstrate knowledge of the procedure? Select all that apply.
    A. The nurse allows the client up to the bathroom only.
    B. The nurse assesses the dorsalis pedis pulse in the left foot.
    C. The nurse assesses the puncture site frequently.
    D. The nurse tells the parents that the healthcare provider will discuss the results of the
    procedure with them.
    E. The nurse assesses the client's vital signs every 8 hours.

Answer 28

Ans: B, C, D
The nurse must assess the pulse distal to the puncture site to determine that circulation remains adequate to the extremity. Assessing the puncture site ensures early recognition of bleeding from the site. The healthcare provider will be able to inform the parents regarding the
results of the procedure after completion. The child should be kept on bed rest for a specified period of time, so they cannot be up to the bathroom. Vital signs will need to be taken more frequently than every 8 hours for early detection of complications.

Question 29

29. The nurse is caring for a newborn diagnosed with an atrial septal defect (ASD). The parents voice concern and state, “I can’t believe this happening. Will our child be okay?” What is the nurse’s best response?
    A. “If the defect isn’t treated it can cause problems such as pulmonary hypertension, heart
    failure, atrial arrhythmias, or stroke.”
    B. “While each case is different, the majority of these defects correct on their own. Let’s see what the tests show, then speak with the healthcare provider.”
    C. “Since there are no symptoms being exhibited right now, your child will likely not
    require surgery until the age of 3 years.”
    D. “Most children have no symptoms of this defect.”

Answer 29

Ans: B
Rationale: While all responses supply correct information about the disorder, the best response is, “While
each case is different, the majority of these defects correct on their own. Let’s see what the tests show, then speak with the healthcare provider.” This individualizes the response to this child, offers realistic hope, and verifies that the healthcare provider will need to be consulted to answer questions regarding prognosis.