Chapter 4 Self Test Flashcards

0
Q

(018) 2. What possible system damage can occur to the missile in a ground shock environment?

A

Structure failure and flyout impact with launcher due to displacement or tilt.

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1
Q

(018) 1. Explain the air-blast induced ground motion.

A

The air blast induces motion as it passes over the surface, forcing the ground down and away from the explosion.

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2
Q

(018) 3. What is “peak overpressure”?

A

The maximum value of the air blast at the blast wave front.

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3
Q

(018) 4. What is the basic cause of damage in an acoustic environment?

A

Fluctuating air pressure

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4
Q

(018) 5. Upon what is EMP hardness strongly dependent?

A

The geometry of the facility, the arrangement of the equipment inside, and the measures taken within the facility to eliminate or diminish these currents.

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5
Q

(018) 6. Why is the extent of EMP greatly augmented in a high-altitude burst (HAB)?

A

The radiation source region is enlarged to a zone about 1,000 miles in diameter. This is because gamma rays can travel many miles at high altitudes before colliding with air molecules.

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6
Q

(018) 7. From figure 4-8, what part of nuclear radiation is usually absorbed in the surface of the target material, releasing their energy as heat?

A

X-rays

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7
Q

(018) 8. What prevents the entry of hot gases into the underground facilities?

A

The protection of the facility,soil, and the seals and blast valves.

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8
Q

(018) 9. What factors determine the formation and size of a crater and the resulting debris?

A

The size of the weapon, the altitude at which it was detonated, and the condition and type of soil.

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9
Q

(019) 1. What ground shock control method prevents items from contacting each other?

A

Adequate clearance

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10
Q

(019) 2. How does the missile suspension and alignment system protect the missile from ground shock?

A

It cushions the missile from vertical and horizontal movement so during a ground shock environment, the missile does not contact the launch tube sides.

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11
Q

(019) 3. How are the launcher closure rails designed to keep them from bending and preventing the door from rolling off?

A

The steel portion of both tracks is cut through about 4 inches, approximately seven feet out from the LER.

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12
Q

(019) 4. What is installed in the MAF to keep harmful overpressures from entering the facility?

A

Blast valves are installed in the MAFs to close the ventilation ducts when overpressure is sensed.

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13
Q

(019) 5. Why are electronic racks the only equipment considered potentially vulnerable to radiation?

A

Because of the semiconductors within the electronic units.

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14
Q

(019) 6. What hardness features protect the electronic racks from the effects of nuclear radiation?

A

Internal circuit protection, transient response improvements, reset of circuit elements, and memory devices, and nuclear radiation reduction.

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15
Q

(019) 7. What is the design requirement for hardening against thermal effects?

A

Sufficient excess material be provided to allow for a certain amount of material loss to occur during multiple nuclear attacks.

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16
Q

(019) 8. How is the launcher closure and abutment designed to prevent metal from melting and resolidifying?

A

By more fiberglass insulation and also by avoiding metal-to-metal contact between parts where motion is required after an attack.

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17
Q

(019) 9. How is the amount of debris falling into the launch tube reduced to an acceptable limit?

A

A debris collection system is installed on the closure face

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18
Q

(020) 1. What components limit vertical and horizontal movement of the suspended floor in the the Wing 3 and 5 LSB?

A

The LSB floors at Wings 3 and 5 are suspended from the ceiling by 10 spring-type shock absorbers which limits vertical movement. To prevent horizontal movement, the LSB suspended floor has 20 rubber pad type shock mounts.

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19
Q

(020) 2. What are two purposes for the horizontal restraints in the LER?

A

To dampen horizontal movement and provide a walking surface for personnel.

20
Q

(020) 3. Why do both the Wing 3 and 5 LCC shock isolators have two compressed air cylinders near the isolators?

A

To provide 2,200lbs of air in case of an emergency affecting the normal shock isolator air compressor.

21
Q

(020) 4. How are the LCEB shock absorbers adjusted?

A

Independently

22
Q

(020) 5. What happens in a shock attenuator when an overpressure occurs in a brine or water line?

A

It will rupture the diaphragm, allowing the brine or water to expand in the upper chamber.

23
Q

(021) 1. How does most EMP energy enter the LCC?

A

Through conductors that are penetrating the liner.

24
Q

(021) 2. How does the LCC motor-generator provide EMP reduction?

A

By isolating the input power source from the output power.

25
Q

(021) 3. What limits high-level EMP entering the facility on conductors?

A

Electrical surge arresters (ESAs) are installed at the point of entry.

26
Q

(021) 4. Why do the launcher closure seals have a stiff steel ring and high seal mating pressure?

A

To ensure electrical contact between the launcher closure and the launch tube liner.

27
Q

(021) 5. How do ground clamps reduce EMP energy in penetrating conduits?

A

EMP energy is reduced by the ground clamps contacting the cable shield, providing a continuity path directly to the conduit and the launch liner.

28
Q

(021) 6. What provides additional EMP limiting and filtering where ESAs do not provide enough decoupling?

A

Electrical surge filter assemblies

29
Q

(022) 1. What work activity can degrade or render ineffective hardness-critical features?

A

Improper maintenance practices

30
Q

(022) 2. What are the three basic rules for preserving hardness?

A

Perform all maintenance IAW applicable technical manuals, continually consider weapons system hardness requirements and be alert to any conditions or occurrences that may affect them. Report to MMOC any maintenance requirement not specifically covered by TO procedures.

31
Q

(022) 3. What important considerations should you remember when installing fasteners?

A

Proper thread engagement, correct torque values, and correct tightening sequence (patterns)

32
Q

(022) 4. When replacing or repairing electrical bonding and grounding hardware, what criteria must the new hardware meet?

A

The same type and quantity of hardware in the original connection must be used.

33
Q

(022) 5. Before mating a connector, you look for what kind of contamination and damage?

A

Bent, broken or missing pins, or damaged surfaces

34
Q

(022) 6. What two conditions should you be alert to while performing maintenance on or around cable assemblies?

A

Shield damage such as broken or frayed strands, punctures, and corrosion. Sharp cable bends (exceeding allowable bend radius) which can result in a ruptured cable shield.

35
Q

(023) 1. What is installation hardware?

A

A term applies to equipment and the provisions necessary for installation of equipment.

36
Q

(022) 2. List examples of installation hardware.

A

Nuts, bolts, washers, screws, brackets, clamps, hangers, studs, tethers, ties, plating, welds, and protective coatings

37
Q

(023) 3. What are the types of equipment installations?

A

Hard-mounted, shock-mounted, and surface installations

38
Q

(023) 4. What are some examples of hard-mounted equipment?

A

ESA frames, filters and junction boxes mounted directly to the launch tube walls or the ESA enclosure walls

39
Q

(023) 5. What is the purpose of shock loops?

A

A shock loop provides enough slack between two attachments, such as clamps, to permit movement without over-stressing the line or clamps.

40
Q

(023) 6. What weapons effects are surface installations primarily designed to resist?

A

Shock, vibration, and air-blast

41
Q

(023) 7. What is the basic requirement for replacing installation hardware?

A

That it must be replaced with identical items or authorized equivalents, and the hardness-critical provisions of the original installation must be maintained.

42
Q

(024) 2. What is the most practical method of securing fasteners?

A

Safety wire (lock wire)

43
Q

(025) 1. What is a good rule of thumb on when to perform RFI gasket inspections?

A

Anytime you can see the gasket or the mating surface, you must perform a comprehensive inspection using the TO.

44
Q

(025) 2. What are the criteria for broken strands in a wire mesh RFI gasket on equipment racks?

A

Broken strands shall not exceed 20 broken strands per inch and not more than 10 percent of strands shall be cut or broken at worn spots.

45
Q

(025) 3. When performing an inspection, why should the exposed wire mesh and mating surface be free of paint, corrosion, or non-conductive deposits?

A

This contamination can prevent metal-to-metal contact

46
Q

(025) 4. What types of gaskets are used on the WSCC?

A

Composite elastomer, metallic-fibered gasket material, a brass finger spring compression material, and a preformed woven stranded-wire material gasket

47
Q

(025) 5. On the secondary access system composite elastomer, metallic-fibered gasket, what can be applied to corner joint separations?

A

Silicon