Chapter 4 Flashcards, Genes and Genetic Diseases

1
Q

What are genes?

A

Genes are the basic units of inheritance, composed of DNA and located on chromosomes.

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2
Q

What are the four types of nitrogenous bases in DNA?

A

The four types of nitrogenous bases in DNA are A, C, G, and T.

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3
Q

What is the physical structure of DNA?

A

The physical structure of DNA is a double helix.

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4
Q

How do DNA bases relate to proteins?

A

DNA bases code for amino acids, which make up proteins, specified by triplet codons of nitrogenous bases.

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5
Q

What is DNA replication based on?

A

DNA replication is based on complementary base pairing.

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6
Q

What is the role of DNA polymerase?

A

DNA polymerase is the primary enzyme involved in replication, adding bases to the new DNA strand and performing proofreading functions.

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7
Q

What is a mutation?

A

A mutation is an inherited alteration of genetic material (i.e., DNA).

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8
Q

What are mutagens?

A

Substances that cause mutations are called mutagens.

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9
Q

What is the mutation rate in humans?

A

The mutation rate in humans varies from locus to locus and ranges from 10−4 to 10−7 per gene per generation.

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10
Q

What are the two basic processes involving RNA?

A

Transcription and translation are the two basic processes in which proteins are specified by DNA.

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11
Q

How is RNA chemically different from DNA?

A

RNA is single stranded and has uracil rather than thymine as one of its four nitrogenous bases.

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12
Q

What is transcription?

A

Transcription is the process by which DNA specifies a sequence of mRNA.

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13
Q

What happens to RNA sequences before mRNA leaves the nucleus?

A

Much of the RNA sequence is spliced from the mRNA before it leaves the nucleus.

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14
Q

What are introns and exons?

A

Introns are excised sequences, while exons are the sequences that remain to code for proteins.

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15
Q

What are microRNAs (miRNAs)?

A

MicroRNAs are small RNA sequences, 17 to 27 nucleotides in length, that bind to specific mRNA sequences and down-regulate their expression.

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16
Q

What is long noncoding RNA (lncRNA)?

A

Long noncoding RNA (lncRNA) is a nontranslated RNA greater than 200 nucleotides in length, with at least 10,000 lncRNAs in the genome.

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17
Q

What do transcription factors do?

A

Transcription factors bind to DNA sequences called transcription factor binding sites to regulate the timing of transcription.

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18
Q

What is translation?

A

Translation is the process by which RNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides.

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19
Q

Where does translation take place?

A

Translation takes place in the ribosomes.

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20
Q

What is the role of tRNA during translation?

A

During translation, mRNA interacts with tRNA, which has an attachment site for a specific amino acid.

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21
Q

What types of cells do humans have?

A

Humans consist of diploid somatic cells (body cells) and haploid gametes (sperm and egg cells).

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22
Q

How many pairs of chromosomes do humans have?

A

Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes: 22 pairs are autosomes and 1 pair are sex chromosomes.

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23
Q

What are the sex chromosomes for females and males?

A

Females have two homologous X chromosomes; males have an X and a Y chromosome.

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24
Q

What is a karyotype?

A

A karyotype is an ordered display of chromosomes arranged according to length and the location of the centromere.

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25
Q

What can be used to make chromosome bands more visible?

A

Various types of stains can be used to make chromosome bands more visible.

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26
Q

What is the prevalence of major diagnosable chromosome abnormalities?

A

About 1 in 150 live births has a major diagnosable chromosome abnormality.

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27
Q

What are the leading known causes of intellectual disability and miscarriage?

A

Chromosome abnormalities are the leading known cause of intellectual disability and miscarriage.

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28
Q

What is polyploidy?

A

Polyploidy is a condition in which a euploid cell has some multiple of the normal number of chromosomes.

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29
Q

What are triploidy and tetraploidy?

A

Triploidy is having three copies of each chromosome; tetraploidy is having four copies of each chromosome. Both conditions are lethal.

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30
Q

What are aneuploid cells?

A

Somatic cells that do not have a multiple of 23 chromosomes are aneuploid.

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31
Q

What causes aneuploidy?

A

Aneuploidy is usually the result of nondisjunction.

32
Q

What is trisomy?

A

Trisomy is a type of aneuploidy in which one chromosome is present in three copies in somatic cells.

33
Q

What is partial trisomy?

A

A partial trisomy is one in which only part of a chromosome is present in three copies.

34
Q

What is monosomy?

A

Monosomy is a type of aneuploidy in which one chromosome is present in only one copy in somatic cells.

35
Q

How do monosomies compare to trisomies in terms of physical defects?

A

In general, monosomies cause more severe physical defects than do trisomies.

36
Q

What is Down syndrome?

A

Down syndrome is a trisomy of chromosome 21 and affects 1 in 800 live births.

37
Q

Who is more likely to have a child with Down syndrome?

A

Down syndrome is much more likely to occur in the offspring of women older than 35 years of age.

38
Q

How do sex chromosome aneuploidies compare to autosome aneuploidies?

A

Most aneuploidies of the sex chromosomes have less severe consequences than those of the autosomes.

39
Q

What are the most commonly observed sex chromosome aneuploidies?

A

The most commonly observed sex chromosome aneuploidies are 47,XXX; 45,X (Turner syndrome); 47,XXY (Klinefelter syndrome); and 47,XYY.

40
Q

What are some abnormalities of chromosome structure?

A

Abnormalities of chromosome structure include deletions, duplications, inversions, and translocations.

41
Q

What are Mendelian traits?

A

Mendelian traits are caused by single genes, each occupying a position, or locus, on a chromosome.

42
Q

What are alleles?

A

Alleles are different forms of genes located at the same locus on the chromosome.

43
Q

What does an individual have at any given locus in a somatic cell?

A

An individual has two genes, one from each parent, and may be homozygous or heterozygous for a locus.

44
Q

What is an individual’s genotype and phenotype?

A

An individual’s genotype is their genetic makeup, while the phenotype reflects the interaction of genotype and environment.

45
Q

What happens at a heterozygous locus?

A

At a heterozygous locus, a dominant gene’s effects mask those of a recessive gene.

46
Q

When is a recessive gene expressed?

A

The recessive gene is expressed only when it is present in two copies.

47
Q

What modes of inheritance do genetic diseases caused by single genes usually follow?

A

Autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, or X-linked recessive.

48
Q

What is an important tool in the analysis of modes of inheritance?

A

Pedigree charts.

49
Q

What do recurrence risks specify?

A

The probability that future offspring will inherit a genetic disease.

50
Q

What is the recurrence risk for autosomal dominant diseases?

A

Usually 50%.

51
Q

How can germline mosaicism alter recurrence risks?

A

Unaffected parents can produce multiple affected offspring due to a mutation in the germline.

52
Q

Are skipped generations seen in classic autosomal dominant pedigrees?

53
Q

Are males and females equally likely to exhibit autosomal dominant diseases?

54
Q

What is incomplete penetrance?

A

A gene that is not always expressed phenotypically.

55
Q

Is penetrance age-dependent?

A

Yes, as seen in Huntington disease and familial breast cancer.

56
Q

What is variable expressivity?

A

A characteristic of many genetic diseases.

57
Q

What is the recurrence risk for autosomal recessive diseases?

A

25% when both parents are heterozygous carriers.

58
Q

Are males and females equally likely to be affected by autosomal recessive diseases?

59
Q

What is the relationship between consanguinity and autosomal recessive diseases?

A

Consanguinity is sometimes present and becomes more prevalent with rarer recessive diseases.

60
Q

What is available for an increasing number of autosomal recessive diseases?

A

Carrier detection tests.

61
Q

How does the frequency of genetic diseases change in the offspring of first-cousin matings?

A

It approximately doubles.

62
Q

What happens to one of the two X chromosomes in each normal female somatic cell?

A

One is inactivated early in embryogenesis.

63
Q

What is X inactivation?

A

Random, fixed, and incomplete inactivation of one X chromosome.

64
Q

How is gender determined embryonically?

A

By the presence of the SRY gene on the Y chromosome.

65
Q

What are X-linked genes?

A

Genes located on the X chromosome.

66
Q

Why are X-linked recessive diseases seen more often in males?

A

Males need only one copy of the gene to express the disease.

67
Q

Can fathers pass X-linked genes to their sons?

68
Q

Are skipped generations often seen in X-linked recessive disease pedigrees?

A

Yes, due to transmission through carrier females.

69
Q

What do recurrence risks for X-linked recessive diseases depend on?

A

The carrier and affected status of the mother and father.

70
Q

What is a sex-limited trait?

A

A trait that occurs in only one of the sexes.

71
Q

What is a sex-influenced trait?

A

A trait that occurs more often in one sex than in the other.

72
Q

What occurs during meiosis I that can cause recombinations of alleles?

A

Crossing over occurs and can cause recombinations of alleles located on the same chromosome.

73
Q

How can the frequency of recombinations be used in genetics?

A

The frequency of recombinations can be used to infer the map distance between loci on the same chromosome.

74
Q

What is the role of a marker locus in genetic disease prediction?

A

A marker locus, when closely linked to a disease-gene locus, can be used to predict whether an individual will develop a genetic disease.

75
Q

What will facilitate gene identification, diagnosis, and disease treatment?

A

The complete human genome sequence will facilitate gene identification, diagnosis, and disease treatment.