Chapter 4-8 and 10 Flashcards

1
Q

The individual freedoms in the Bill of Rights were extended by the Fourteenth Amendment to include protection from deprivation of due process rights by
A. actions of the president.
B. the actions of individuals.
C. actions of the federal government.
D. actions of state and local governments.
E. actions of the U.S. military.

A

D. actions of state and local governments.

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2
Q

The term civil liberties refers to specific individual rights that
A. apply in civil cases but not in criminal cases.
B. apply in civil cases but not in military ones.
C. are constitutionally protected from infringement by government.
D. are constitutionally protected from infringement by individuals.
E. are not covered by the First Amendment.

A

C. are constitutionally protected from infringement by government.

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3
Q

The individual right that is widely regarded as the most basic of individual rights is
A. the right to an attorney.
B. freedom of expression.
C. the right to a jury trial.
D. the right to an adequate education.
E. protection against illegal searches and seizures.

A

B. freedom of expression.

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4
Q

Justice Holmes’s “clear and present danger” test holds that government can
A. restrict speech that threatens national security.
B. restrict any speech of an inflammatory nature.
C. imprison political dissidents during time of war without following normal procedures.
D. engage in prior restraint of the press whenever national security is at issue.
E. restrict speech that is disrespectful to specific classes of citizens.

A

A. restrict speech that threatens national security.

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5
Q

Like all other rights, the right of free expression is
A. spelled out in precise terms in the Bill of Rights.
B. not absolute.
C. fully respected by public officials.
D. protected from action by federal officials but not state officials.
E. None of these answers is correct.

A

B. not absolute.

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6
Q

The conviction of members of the U.S. Communist Party in the early 1950s was initially upheld as a lawful restriction of the right
A. not to incriminate oneself.
B. of free speech.
C. to a jury trial.
D. to confront one’s accusers in a court of law.
E. to worship any religion of choice.

A

B. of free speech.

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7
Q

Justice Stone argued in 1938 that
A. citizens should have priority over non-citizens in the legal system.
B. First Amendment rights are the basis of most other rights.
C. the interests of the majority are more important than the rights of the individual.
D. the requirements of national security take precedence over freedom of expression.
E. the Bill of Rights should be fully applied to the states.

A

B. First Amendment rights are the basis of most other rights.

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8
Q

The Supreme Court’s position on prior restraint of the press is that
A. national security needs are of highest priority.
B. only classified government documents are subject to prior restraint.
C. prior restraint can never be exercised by government.
D. prior restraint should apply only in rare circumstances, and it is better to hold the press responsible for what it has printed than to restrict what it may print.
E. prior restraint should be used fairly frequently in a democracy.

A

D. prior restraint should apply only in rare circumstances, and it is better to hold the press responsible for what it has printed than to restrict what it may print.

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9
Q

Government can lawfully prevent a political rally from taking place
A. under no circumstances; people have an unconditional right to express their views.
B. when the rally would require unduly expensive police protection.
C. when the views of those holding the rally are unpopular.
D. when it can demonstrate that harmful acts will necessarily result from the rally.
E. None of these answers is correct.

A

D. when it can demonstrate that harmful acts will necessarily result from the rally.

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10
Q
The inclusion of certain provisions of the Bill of Rights in the Fourteenth Amendment, so that these rights are protected from infringements by the state governments, is called 
A. the preferred position doctrine.
B. procedural change.
C. selective incorporation.
D. the absorption doctrine.
E. prior restraint.
A

C. selective incorporation.

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11
Q
Spoken words that are known to be false and harmful to a person's reputation are an example of 
A. libel.
B. slander.
C. blasphemy.
D. obscenity.
E. symbolic speech.
A

B. slander.

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12
Q

Which of the following is correct with regard to obscenity and the law?
A. Obscenity is not protected by the First Amendment.
B. Obscenity is never unlawful.
C. Child pornography is protected by the First Amendment.
D. Obscenity has been easy for courts to define with precision.
E. Obscenity is protected under the Ninth Amendment.

A

A. Obscenity is not protected by the First Amendment.

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13
Q

The establishment clause prohibits government from
A. establishing exceptions to the Bill of Rights.
B. establishing exceptions to the Fourteenth Amendment.
C. favoring one religion over another or supporting religion over no religion.
D. interfering with freedom of assembly.
E. interfering with the right to bear arms.

A

C. favoring one religion over another or supporting religion over no religion.

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14
Q
The Supreme Court upheld the use of tax-supported vouchers to attend private or parochial school in 
A. Engel v. Vitale.
B. Griswold v. Connecticut.
C. Zelman v. Simmons-Harris.
D. Ashcroft v. Free Speech Coalition.
E. Miller v. California.
A

C. Zelman v. Simmons-Harris.

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15
Q
According to the Supreme Court, prayer in public schools violates 
A. the free exercise clause.
B. the establishment clause.
C. the exclusionary rule.
D. procedural due process.
E. the clear and present danger test.
A

B. the establishment clause.

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16
Q
In 2007 the Supreme Court reversed its stance on partial-birth abortion, largely due to the replacement of Sandra Day O'Connor with 
A. Samuel Alito.
B. Anthony Kennedy.
C. Ruth Bader Ginsburg.
D. William Rehnquist.
E. Antonin Scalia.
A

A. Samuel Alito.

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17
Q

The exclusionary rule states that
A. federal law cannot be applied in state courts.
B. the laws of one state court cannot be applied in the courts of another state.
C. after seven years, the statute of limitations applies, except in murder cases.
D. evidence obtained illegally is inadmissible in court.
E. state law cannot be applied in federal courts.

A

D. evidence obtained illegally is inadmissible in court.

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18
Q
In Mapp v. Ohio, the selective incorporation process was extended to include 
A. criminal proceedings in the states.
B. civil cases.
C. pleas of insanity.
D. children (minors) accused of crime.
E. indigent litigants.
A

A. criminal proceedings in the states.

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19
Q

In the case of McNabb v. United States, Justice Felix Frankfurter defined the “history of liberty” primarily in terms of whether
A. governments had observed procedural guarantees.
B. those convicted are actually guilty.
C. those convicted have the opportunity for appeal.
D. those convicted are treated humanely while imprisoned.
E. everyone is treated fairly in every case.

A

A. governments had observed procedural guarantees.

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20
Q

Which of the following is true of the appeal process?
A. The Constitution guarantees at least one appeal after conviction, but many states continue to challenge this guarantee in court.
B. Both the federal and all state constitutions guarantee an appeal after conviction.
C. The Constitution does not guarantee an appeal after conviction, but the federal government and all states permit at least one appeal.
D. There are no guarantees of appeal at the federal or state level, but the appeal process has been effectively certified through common practice.
E. The guarantee of appeal in the states was established as part of selective incorporation as applied to the Fourteenth Amendment.

A

C. The Constitution does not guarantee an appeal after conviction, but the federal government and all states permit at least one appeal.

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21
Q

The Supreme Court has reasoned that a right of privacy is provided by
A. the Civil Rights Act of 1964.
B. the Ninth Amendment, which says that people’s rights are not limited to those enumerated in the Constitution.
C. the Tenth Amendment, which reserves to the people and the states those powers not granted to the federal government.
D. the implication of said right by the freedoms in the Bill of Rights.
E. the Civil Rights Act of 1991.

A

D. the implication of said right by the freedoms in the Bill of Rights.

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22
Q
The right to privacy was instrumental in which decision? 
A. Roe v. Wade
B. Mapp v. Ohio
C. Schenck v. United States
D. Miranda v. Arizona
E. New York Times Co. v. United States
A

A. Roe v. Wade

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23
Q

In Planned Parenthood v. Casey (1992), the justices
A. ruled that states are free to adopt abortion laws of their choosing.
B. reaffirmed the essential aspects of Roe v. Wade.
C. invoked the Ninth Amendment for the first time in an abortion decision.
D. invalidated the right to an abortion in the early months of pregnancy.
E. None of these answers is correct.

A

B. reaffirmed the essential aspects of Roe v. Wade.

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24
Q

In Bowers v. Hardwick (1986), the Supreme Court justices determined that
A. the right of privacy includes abortion in the early months of pregnancy.
B. search warrants are not needed in murder investigations.
C. freedom of speech and freedom of assembly sometimes conflict.
D. state militia members have the right to peacefully assemble.
E. the right to privacy does not include homosexual acts.

A

E. the right to privacy does not include homosexual acts.

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25
Q

What is the greatest restriction on appeals in the United States?
A. the refusal by state appeals court judges to grant even a first appeal
B. a federal law that bars in most instances a second federal appeal by a state prison inmate
C. the lack of any formal right of appeal in the federal process
D. a federal law that bars a first federal appeal to persons convicted of homicides
E. the very low income of some convicted persons, which reduces their ability to appeal

A

B. a federal law that bars in most instances a second federal appeal by a state prison inmate

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26
Q

The inevitable discovery exception
A. holds that the exclusionary rule can be waived in cases where failure to convict can lead to further public harm.
B. holds that otherwise excludable evidence can be admitted in trial if police believed they were following the proper procedures.
C. allows the use of evidence that would have been discovered regardless by other means or through other forms of evidence.
D. has effectively invalidated the exclusionary rule.
E. holds that a convicted person may not appeal the conviction when his or her own actions would have ultimately led to further unlawful acts.

A

C. allows the use of evidence that would have been discovered regardless by other means or through other forms of evidence.

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27
Q

The Fourth Amendment protects Americans from
A. any search conducted without a warrant.
B. unreasonable searches.
C. unreasonable searches conducted only by federal officers.
D. all searches conducted by state officers.
E. searches conducted only by local officers.

A

B. unreasonable searches.

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28
Q
Voluntary school prayer in the public schools was ruled unconstitutional in 
A. Escobedo v. Illinois (1964).
B. Engel v. Vitale (1962).
C. Buckley v. Valeo (1976).
D. Gitlow v. New York (1925).
E. Roth v. United States (1957).
A

B. Engel v. Vitale (1962).

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29
Q
Which of the following, relative to the others, is typically more protective of individual rights? 
A. the U.S. Congress
B. the general public
C. public opinion
D. the presidency
E. the judiciary
A

E. the judiciary

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30
Q
The freedoms of speech, press, assembly, and petition are found in 
A. the First Amendment.
B. the Fourth Amendment.
C. the Sixth Amendment.
D. the Tenth Amendment.
E. the Fourteenth Amendment.
A

A. the First Amendment.

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31
Q

Which of the following is true about the Sedition Act of 1798?
A. The Act prohibited malicious newspaper stories about the president.
B. The Supreme Court ruled the Act unconstitutional.
C. The Senate voted it down, while the House passed it.
D. Thomas Jefferson strongly supported it.
E. The state governments refused to enforce it.

A

A. The Act prohibited malicious newspaper stories about the president.

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32
Q

In Schenck v. United States (1919), the Supreme Court ruled that
A. the Espionage Act was unconstitutional.
B. speech could be restricted when the nation’s security is at stake.
C. speech unrelated to national security can never be restricted.
D. speech by unpopular groups can be restricted more than speech by popular groups.
E. all forms of political dissent are constitutional.

A

B. speech could be restricted when the nation’s security is at stake.

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33
Q

In the Johnson flag-burning case, the Supreme Court ruled that
A. flag burning is an imminent danger to public safety.
B. flag burning is not symbolic speech.
C. flag burning, although offensive, cannot be prohibited.
D. flag burning can be prohibited by the national government but not by the states.
E. flag burning could be banned by Congress.

A

C. flag burning, although offensive, cannot be prohibited.

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34
Q
The Miranda warning was upheld by the Supreme Court in 2000 in 
A. Palko v. Connecticut.
B. Stenberg v. Carhart.
C. Reno v. ACLU.
D. Ferguson v. Charleston.
E. Dickerson v. United States.
A

E. Dickerson v. United States.

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35
Q

According to the Supreme Court, prior restraint on the press is only acceptable if
A. lower federal courts approve the action.
B. the government can clearly justify the restriction.
C. the press itself willingly accepts that restraint.
D. the press is careless in its claims.
E. the press is malicious in its intent.

A

B. the government can clearly justify the restriction.

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36
Q
"You have the right to remain silent....Anything you say can and will be used against you in a court of law....You have the right to an attorney". This is called the 
A. preferred position doctrine.
B. clear and present danger test.
C. Miranda warning.
D. fairness doctrine.
E. None of these answers is correct.
A

C. Miranda warning.

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37
Q

According to the Supreme Court, which is true regarding freedom of assembly?
A. Individuals have the right to command immediate access to a public auditorium.
B. Individuals have the right to hold a public rally in the middle of a busy intersection at a time of their choosing.
C. Public officials can regulate the time, place, and conditions of public assembly, provided the regulations are reasonable.
D. Public officials can prohibit assembly by unpopular groups.
E. Freedom of assembly is an absolute right, because it is in the First Amendment.

A

C. Public officials can regulate the time, place, and conditions of public assembly, provided the regulations are reasonable.

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38
Q
Which of the following is the only country that comes close to the United States in terms of the percentage of its citizens who are behind bars? 
A. Singapore
B. Japan
C. Great Britain
D. Romania
E. Russia
A

E. Russia

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39
Q

According to the Supreme Court, what is the status of prayer in the public schools?
A. Formal prayer is not allowed, but moments of silence are constitutional.
B. State-supported prayers are not allowed in public schools.
C. Prayer is now allowed, but each school must allow students to leave the classroom when prayers are read aloud.
D. Bible readings in public schools are constitutional.
E. Student-led prayers at public school football games are constitutional.

A

B. State-supported prayers are not allowed in public schools.

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40
Q

What Illinois policy did the Supreme Court invalidate with its decision in Witherspoon v. Illinois (1968)?
A. allowing the prosecution an unlimited number of challenges in capital cases
B. preventing convicted persons in capital cases from filing an appeal
C. preventing the prosecution from challenging jury selections in felony cases
D. the failure to provide low income defendants with court-appointed lawyers
E. encouragement of low income defendants to act as their own attorney

A

A. allowing the prosecution an unlimited number of challenges in capital cases

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41
Q
Which constitutional amendment protects the individual against self-incrimination? 
A. First
B. Second
C. Fourth
D. Fifth
E. Ninth
A

D. Fifth

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42
Q

Gideon v. Wainwright required the states to
A. temporarily abolish the death penalty.
B. expand the exclusionary rule to both felony and misdemeanor cases.
C. furnish attorneys for poor defendants in felony cases.
D. grant speedy trials to defendants after 90 days of delay.
E. provide more funding for education.

A

C. furnish attorneys for poor defendants in felony cases.

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43
Q

Since the 1980s, the Supreme Court has addressed the exclusionary rule by
A. expanding its application to virtually all criminal cases both at the state and federal levels.
B. determining that the rule was unconstitutional, in that it weakened the effectiveness of the police in maintaining an orderly society.
C. expanding its application to federal cases only.
D. expanding its application to state cases only.
E. None of these answers is correct.

A

E. None of these answers is correct.

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44
Q
The right to counsel is guaranteed by the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Amendment. 
A. First
B. Fifth
C. Sixth
D. Ninth
E. Tenth
A

C. Sixth

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45
Q

The Lemon test is designed to
A. test a state’s practice of guaranteeing procedural due process rights.
B. ensure the secular nature of a government action.
C. prevent a prosecution or defense from creating a biased jury.
D. test state adherence to rights protected by proxy in the Fourteenth Amendment.
E. ensure that a defendant has been given access to counsel from the time of arrest through a trial.

A

B. ensure the secular nature of a government action.

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46
Q
Which of the following amendments contains a due process clause? 
A. First
B. Tenth
C. Third
D. Fourteenth
E. Twenty-first
A

D. Fourteenth

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47
Q

The Supreme Court
A. has ruled that even forms of symbolic speech considered to be dangerous to the public are protected.
B. ruled during the Vietnam war that the burning of draft registration cards was a protected form of symbolic speech.
C. has reduced its protections of symbolic speech dramatically, and recently has ruled against flag burning as a form of protected symbolic speech.
D. has protected symbolic speech much more substantially than it has protected verbal speech.
E. has generally protected symbolic speech, though less substantially than it has protected verbal speech.

A

E. has generally protected symbolic speech, though less substantially than it has protected verbal speech.

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48
Q

How did the Supreme Court’s position on the rights of the accused in state courts change in the 1960s?
A. The Supreme Court began to allow states greater freedom to interpret the rights of the accused.
B. The Supreme Court began to dramatically reduce federal power to force the states to make special accommodations for the rights of accused minorities.
C. The Supreme Court began to protect the rights of the accused from action by the states.
D. The Supreme Court position did not change noticeably.
E. The Supreme Court ceased to enforce the practice of selective incorporation.

A

C. The Supreme Court began to protect the rights of the accused from action by the states.

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49
Q
Libel applies to defamation of an individual's reputation through the 
A. written word.
B. spoken word.
C. written and spoken word.
D. written, spoken, and symbolic word.
E. None of these answers is correct.
A

A. written word.

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50
Q
In the Constitution, procedural due process is protected by the 
A. Fourth Amendment.
B. Fifth Amendment.
C. Sixth Amendment.
D. Eighth Amendment.
E. All these answers are correct.
A

E. All these answers are correct.

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51
Q
If a person yells "fire" in a crowded theater when there is no fire, and people are hurt in the ensuing panic, that individual abused his/her freedom of speech according to the doctrine of 
A. malice.
B. clear and present danger.
C. unlawful assembly.
D. privacy.
E. prior restraint.
A

B. clear and present danger.

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52
Q

When can police legally begin their interrogation of a suspect?
A. immediately upon arrest
B. after the suspect has been warned that his or her words can be used as evidence
C. only after the suspect has met with an attorney
D. after the suspect has been arrested and is in the custody of the police
E. after the suspect has been formally charged with a specific crime

A

B. after the suspect has been warned that his or her words can be used as evidence

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53
Q
Gideon v. Wainwright is to the Sixth Amendment as Mapp v. Ohio is to the 
A. First Amendment.
B. Fourth Amendment.
C. Fifth Amendment.
D. Eighth Amendment.
E. Tenth Amendment.
A

B. Fourth Amendment.

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54
Q
Roughly a third of all U.S. executions in the past quarter-century have taken place in 
A. Vermont.
B. South Carolina.
C. Texas.
D. Alabama.
E. California.
A

C. Texas.

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55
Q

In a 2004 case involving the issue of whether a U.S. citizen accused of terrorist acts is entitled to constitutional protections, the Supreme Court held that such citizens
A. are protected only if they live in the United States.
B. are protected only if they have not been previously convicted of a crime.
C. are protected only if law enforcement officials decide they deserve such protections.
D. must be handled by military courts.
E. do have the right to a judicial hearing.

A

E. do have the right to a judicial hearing.

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56
Q

The USA Patriot Act
A. grants the government new powers of surveillance.
B. relaxed restrictions on the sharing of intelligence surveillance information with criminal investigators.
C. gives intelligence agencies the authority to share crime-related information with law enforcement agencies.
D. was enacted in response to the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001.
E. All these answers are correct.

A

E. All these answers are correct.

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57
Q

The focus of civil liberties is the ________ and the focus of civil rights is the ________.
A. individual; individual
B. group; group
C. individual; group
D. group; individual
E. Tenth Amendment; Twenty-seventh Amendment

A

C. individual; group

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58
Q

Disadvantaged Americans have generally gained their rights
A. through the enlightened policies of advantaged Americans.
B. through judicial action only.
C. through struggle against entrenched interests.
D. mainly through action by the states rather than the federal government.
E. by waiting patiently for public opinion to back their cause.

A

C. through struggle against entrenched interests.

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59
Q
Culminating in a historic victory in 1954, black activists in the early twentieth century generally pursued civil rights through 
A. legal action.
B. legislative action.
C. pressure for presidential decree.
D. bureaucratic action.
E. campaigning through mass media.
A

A. legal action.

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60
Q

The Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka, Kansas ruling (1954) held that racial segregation in schools violated the
A. due process clause of the Fifth Amendment.
B. due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment.
C. equal protection clause of the Fourteenth Amendment.
D. Civil Rights Act.
E. establishment clause of the First Amendment.

A

C. equal protection clause of the Fourteenth Amendment.

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61
Q
The modern civil rights movement had a peak moment with the March on Washington in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A. 1954
B. 1960
C. 1963
D. 1968
E. 1973
A

C. 1963

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62
Q

In the case of United States v. Virginia (1996), the Supreme Court ruled that
A. strict racial quotas were a valid means of ensuring racial diversity on college campuses.
B. private colleges could refuse to admit prospective students on the basis of sexual orientation.
C. male-only admissions policies at state-supported military academies were unconstitutional.
D. because female instructors created an undue distraction at all-male universities, the schools in question could discriminate against women in their hiring practices.
E. colleges affiliated with a particular religion could not take the religious persuasion of job candidates into consideration during the hiring process.

A

C. male-only admissions policies at state-supported military academies were unconstitutional.

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63
Q

Which statement about women’s rights is correct?
A. The Equal Rights Amendment (ERA) was ratified by the necessary 38 states in 1982.
B. The women’s rights movement began in the era of World War I and within a few years achieved voting rights for women.
C. Women have made clear gains in the areas of appointive and elective offices.
D. Women tend to cast their votes for Republican candidates.
E. All these answers are correct.

A

C. Women have made clear gains in the areas of appointive and elective offices.

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64
Q
The movement for women's rights was initially aligned with 
A. the abolition movement.
B. the Progressive movement.
C. the labor movement.
D. the modern civil rights movement.
E. the modern environmental movement.
A

A. the abolition movement.

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65
Q

All of the following statements about Latino Americans are true EXCEPT that
A. they are the fastest-growing minority in the United States.
B. they have made major political gains in terms of electing local officials, particularly in the southwestern states.
C. Hispanics are healthier and have a longer life expectancy than would be expected from their education and income levels.
D. their average annual income is relatively close to the national average.
E. they are one of the nation’s oldest ethnic groups.

A

D. their average annual income is relatively close to the national average.

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66
Q
The average pay for full-time female employees is about \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ percent of that for full-time male employees. 
A. 93
B. 50
C. 65
D. 80
E. 70
A

D. 80

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67
Q

Native Americans
A. today number more than 2 million.
B. have a far higher infant mortality rate than the national average.
C. have in recent years filed suit to reclaim their ancestral lands.
D. are less than half as likely to finish college as other Americans.
E. All these answers are correct.

A

E. All these answers are correct.

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68
Q

All of the following statements about Asian American rights are true EXCEPT that
A. they have not attained a proportionate share of top business positions.
B. Asian Americans are an upwardly mobile group but are underrepresented in top positions in society due to past and present discrimination.
C. Asian Americans have the highest percentage of two-parent families of any racial group.
D. Asian Americans have made notable educational advancements.
E. Asian Americans have the second highest median family income of any group.

A

E. Asian Americans have the second highest median family income of any group.

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69
Q
Any law that attempts a racial or ethnic classification is subject to the 
A. reasonable basis test.
B. strict scrutiny test.
C. intermediate scrutiny test.
D. precedent basis test.
E. suspect classification test.
A

B. strict scrutiny test.

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70
Q

The Civil Rights Act of 1964 was aimed in large part at eliminating discrimination
A. by governments in their conduct of elections (e.g., registration, placement of polling booths).
B. by private individuals in their social relations—bigoted statements and other acts of prejudice are unlawful under most circumstances.
C. by governments in their job practices and provision of services (e.g., schools, roads).
D. by private individuals in their employment practices and in their operation of public accommodations (e.g., hotels, restaurants).
E. against gays and lesbians.

A

D. by private individuals in their employment practices and in their operation of public accommodations (e.g., hotels, restaurants).

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71
Q

De jure discrimination and de facto discrimination are two ways in which some Americans are treated as less equal than others. Examples of public policies designed to address each of these forms of discrimination are
A. the Brown decision (de jure), and affirmative action (de facto).
B. affirmative action (de jure), and the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (de facto).
C. the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (de jure), and the Brown decision (de facto).
D. the Supreme Court’s busing decisions (de jure), and affirmative action decisions (de facto).
E. None of these answers is correct.

A

A. the Brown decision (de jure), and affirmative action (de facto).

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72
Q

In applying the reasonable basis test, courts tend to
A. require government only to show that a particular law is reasonable.
B. assess whether a law had the support of a two-thirds majority of legislators at the time of passage.
C. determine whether a law is working well and, if so, to allow it to remain in effect.
D. prohibit any law that results in the unequal treatment of Americans.
E. interpret the equal protection clause in a strict manner.

A

A. require government only to show that a particular law is reasonable.

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73
Q

Housing in America
A. falls largely outside the scope of the law—people are free to rent or sell property to whomever they want.
B. is an area where equality in practice is now nearly a reality; people of similar incomes, regardless of race or color, find it equally easy to qualify for home mortgages.
C. is an unimportant civil rights issue, since housing patterns almost completely reflect the personal preferences of people and are not substantially influenced by past or present racial bias.
D. continues to evidence a high degree of racial segregation.
E. None of these answers is correct.

A

D. continues to evidence a high degree of racial segregation.

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74
Q

One example of a policy that aimed chiefly to overcome de facto discrimination is
A. the Equal Rights Amendment.
B. the Voting Rights Act of 1965.
C. busing to achieve racial integration in the schools.
D. the Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka, Kansas ruling.
E. the Fourteenth Amendment.

A

C. busing to achieve racial integration in the schools.

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75
Q

The policy of affirmative action arose when
A. it became apparent that disadvantaged Americans would not attain equal employment opportunities through lawsuits that benefited single individuals only.
B. the Supreme Court declared in Bakke that the Fourteenth Amendment requires government and large firms to hire more women and minorities.
C. the Supreme Court ruled that de facto discrimination is unlawful.
D. private firms decided on their own that a more diverse workforce was actually a more productive and effective workforce.
E. the Supreme Court rendered its Adarand v. Pena decision in 1995.

A

A. it became apparent that disadvantaged Americans would not attain equal employment opportunities through lawsuits that benefited single individuals only.

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76
Q

The Supreme Court’s decision in the Regents of the University of California v. Bakke case
A. invalidated the principle of affirmative action.
B. ruled that Bakke could not be admitted to medical school.
C. established quota systems as a legitimate basis of affirmative action.
D. upheld the principle of affirmative action.
E. None of these answers is correct.

A

D. upheld the principle of affirmative action.

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77
Q

One reason that affirmative action is so controversial is that
A. since the 1980s the Supreme Court has imposed it on the American public despite congressional attempts to end it.
B. most Americans admit that they oppose programs that ensure equal treatment for minorities.
C. it is applied only to private businesses and schools, not to government programs and institutions.
D. the Supreme Court has repeatedly declared it unconstitutional both in principle and in practice.
E. it is viewed as giving preferential treatment, which is unpopular, instead of simply ensuring equal treatment.

A

E. it is viewed as giving preferential treatment, which is unpopular, instead of simply ensuring equal treatment

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78
Q
The Supreme Court halted the general use of quotas in the granting of federal contracts in the 1995 case of 
A. Adarand v. Pena.
B. Fullilove v. Klutznick.
C. Craig v. Boren.
D. Rostker v. Goldberg.
E. United States v. Virginia.
A

A. Adarand v. Pena.

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79
Q

With regard to affirmative action, the Supreme Court in recent years has
A. moved to outlaw it.
B. moved to narrow its application.
C. asked Congress to clarify the policy.
D. asked the president to clarify the policy.
E. asked the state legislatures to clarify the policy.

A

B. moved to narrow its application.

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80
Q

The Supreme Court’s ruling in the Swann case on busing differed from the Brown decision in that Swann
A. addressed the problem of de facto discrimination.
B. applied to many northern communities in addition to communities in the South.
C. sanctioned the use of busing in desegregation.
D. dealt specifically with the issue of busing.
E. All these answers are correct.

A

E. All these answers are correct.

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81
Q

Since the height of the busing era, the trend in public schools has been
A. toward greater integration.
B. toward greater segregation.
C. to rely more and more on busing.
D. to reinstate de jure racial segregation.
E. to retain the gains in racial integration achieved through the 1970s, but not to further them.

A

B. toward greater segregation.

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82
Q

Native Americans
A. have always been legal citizens of the United States.
B. were not given citizenship status en masse until the twentieth century.
C. do not today have the full legal rights of other U.S. citizens.
D. are U.S. citizens unless they choose to live on a reservation.
E. have numbered roughly ten million in the United States since the 1700s.

A

B. were not given citizenship status en masse until the twentieth century.

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83
Q
The demand that women should receive equal pay relative to men for work that is similarly demanding, involves similar responsibilities, and requires similar levels of education and training is the basis of the concept of 
A. equality of opportunity.
B. affirmative action.
C. comparable worth.
D. de jure discrimination.
E. reverse discrimination.
A

C. comparable worth.

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84
Q
Which region of the world has the highest proportion of women serving in its national legislatures? 
A. Scandinavia
B. Latin America
C. North America
D. East Asia
E. Central Europe
A

A. Scandinavia

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85
Q
According to Gunnar Myrdal, what is America's curse? 
A. greed
B. racial discrimination
C. obesity
D. street violence
E. religious intolerance
A

B. racial discrimination

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86
Q
Women in America obtained the right to vote in national elections in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A. 1790
B. 1865
C. 1890
D. 1920
E. 1974
A

D. 1920

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87
Q
Asian Americans account for about \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ percent of professionals and technicians in the United States. 
A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15
E. 25
A

B. 5

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88
Q

In 2007 the Supreme Court ruled that the pursuit of racial integration in public schools through busing
A. was a practice that should be left to state governments to adopt or reject.
B. should be enacted and monitored by the federal government to ensure full compliance.
C. was as necessary to ensure racial justice as was the ending of de facto segregation in 1954.
D. was a permanent solution to an intractable problem.
E. deprived white students of their Fourteenth Amendment right to equal protection.

A

E. deprived white students of their Fourteenth Amendment right to equal protection.

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89
Q
In 2000, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ became the first state to legalize the civil union of same-sex couples. 
A. Vermont
B. Massachusetts
C. New Hampshire
D. Rhode Island
E. Connecticut
A

A. Vermont

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90
Q
How many states ratified the Equal Rights Amendment? 
A. none of them
B. only a few
C. about half
D. nearly three-fourths
E. all but three of them
A

D. nearly three-fourths

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91
Q

Which of the following would be considered the worst setback by affirmative action proponents?
A. Adarand v. Pena
B. Craig v. Boren
C. Regents of the University of California v. Bakke
D. Swann v. Charlotte-Mecklenberg Board of Education
E. None of these answers is correct.

A

A. Adarand v. Pena

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92
Q

What event occurred in 1877 in the South that brought about rapid legal discrimination against blacks?
A. a backlash against the civil rights movement
B. the religious revival movement
C. the removal of federal troops
D. several state legislature elections that brought racist leadership into power
E. a severe depression that reduced the economic power of the black population

A

C. the removal of federal troops

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93
Q

Which of the following statements is true?
A. About one in three single-parent families that are headed by women live below the poverty line.
B. The 1993 Family and Medical Leave Act represented a setback for women by reducing the amount of guaranteed benefits that new mothers receive.
C. Recent Supreme Court decisions have made it harder for employees to sue an organization that retaliates against them for filing a sexual harassment complaint.
D. There are generally fewer single-parent families headed by women below the poverty line than two-parent families below the poverty line.
E. The “feminization of poverty” describes the phenomenon of greater government protection for women below the poverty line than men.

A

A. About one in three single-parent families that are headed by women live below the poverty line.

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94
Q

The 1996 Defense of Marriage Act
A. authorizes states to grant marital rights to a same-sex couple that has been granted these rights by another state.
B. authorizes states to deny marital rights to a same-sex couple that has been granted these rights by another state.
C. invalidated, through federal legislation, the marriages of same-sex couples that had become married in states that allow same-sex unions.
D. established a timeline by which all states must legally allow same-sex marriages.
E. invalided state laws that had mandated that marriage be defined only as a union between a man and a woman.

A

B. authorizes states to deny marital rights to a same-sex couple that has been granted these rights by another state.

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95
Q

Which of the following statements is true of age discrimination in the United States?
A. The courts have not given government and employers much leeway in establishing age-based policies.
B. Forced retirement for reasons of age is not permissible even if justified by the nature of a particular job or the performance of a particular employee.
C. Age discrimination is among the forms of discrimination prohibited by the U.S. Constitution.
D. Mandatory retirement ages for most jobs have been eliminated by law.
E. Hiring bias on the basis of age is still allowed by all private companies, but has been most abolished in government and public agencies.

A

D. Mandatory retirement ages for most jobs have been eliminated by law.

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96
Q
Equality of result policies are primarily directed at \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ discriminatory effects. 
A. de jure
B. de facto
C. religious
D. gender
E. due process
A

B. de facto

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97
Q
The central issue in the Bakke case was 
A. school desegregation.
B. sexual harassment.
C. affirmative action.
D. Native Americans' civil rights.
E. comparable worth.
A

C. affirmative action.

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98
Q

Which of the following is true?
A. Public schools are becoming more segregated nationally.
B. Many urban public school districts have ended the use of busing for desegregation purposes.
C. White flight to suburban schools has made it more difficult to desegregate urban schools.
D. The Supreme Court, after ordering cutbacks in busing, said that communities were free to use alternatives, such as increased spending on schools in poor neighborhoods.
E. All these answers are correct.

A

E. All these answers are correct.

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99
Q
Today, women currently hold about \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of the seats in Congress. 
A. 1 in 4
B. 1 in 6
C. 1 in 5
D. 1 in 10
E. 1 in 15
A

B. 1 in 6

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100
Q
The Fourteenth Amendment applies to discriminatory action by 
A. government only.
B. private parties only.
C. both government and private parties.
D. the president specifically.
E. Congress specifically.
A

A. government only.

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101
Q
Of the following states, which tends to have larger numbers of Caribbean Hispanics? 
A. California
B. Texas
C. New Jersey
D. New Mexico
E. Arizona
A

C. New Jersey

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102
Q
Native Americans were made "official" citizens of the United States in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A. 1789
B. 1856
C. 1924
D. 1972
E. 1998
A

C. 1924

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103
Q

Which of the following is true of discrimination against the disabled in the United States?
A. The Americans with Disabilities Act grants protections to the disabled only in the employment sphere.
B. Congress passed the Americans with Disabilities Act in 1975.
C. Before 1975, four million children with disabilities were getting either no education or an inappropriate one.
D. Through the Education for All Handicapped Children Act of 1975, Congress required that schools receiving federal funding provide all children, however severe their disability, with a free and appropriate education.
E. Discrimination against the disabled is among the forms of discrimination prohibited by the Constitution, but has also been strengthened through statutes

A

E. Discrimination against the disabled is among the forms of discrimination prohibited by the Constitution, but has also been strengthened through statutes

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104
Q

The March on Washington for Jobs and Freedom
A. brought about greater rights to the disabled.
B. came in response to the passage of the Civil Rights Act.
C. was conducted by women seeking fairer treatment in the workplace.
D. was conducted by women seeking the right to vote.
E. was conducted by African Americans seeking equality of rights.

A

E. was conducted by African Americans seeking equality of rights.

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105
Q

What was politically significant about Geraldine Ferraro in 1984?
A. She became the first woman to be elected governor of a state.
B. She became the first woman to run on the national ticket of a major political party.
C. She became the first woman to serve as attorney general of the United States.
D. She was the first woman to hold the top position in the U.S. House of Representatives.
E. She was the first person to hold the top position in the U.S. Senate.

A

B. She became the first woman to run on the national ticket of a major political party.

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106
Q
In 2004, by order of the state's Supreme Court, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ instituted same-sex marriage. 
A. California
B. Texas
C. Vermont
D. Massachusetts
E. Alabama
A

D. Massachusetts

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107
Q
The first woman ever to serve on the U.S. Supreme Court was appointed by 
A. President Truman.
B. President Eisenhower.
C. President Kennedy.
D. President Reagan.
E. President Carter.
A

D. President Reagan.

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108
Q
The first large and well-organized attempt to promote women's rights came in 1848 in 
A. Boston, Massachusetts.
B. San Francisco, California.
C. Minneapolis, Minnesota.
D. Seneca Falls, New York.
E. Madison, Wisconsin.
A

D. Seneca Falls, New York.

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109
Q
The famous speech featuring the words "I have a dream" in the civil rights movement was delivered by 
A. Jesse Jackson.
B. Martin Luther King Jr.
C. Thurgood Marshall.
D. John F. Kennedy.
E. Robert F. Kennedy.
A

B. Martin Luther King Jr.

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110
Q

When the United States first came into being, married women were not permitted to
A. vote.
B. hold office.
C. serve on juries.
D. own and dispense property without the husband’s consent.
E. All these answers are correct.

A

E. All these answers are correct.

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111
Q
Which one of the following occurred after the Brown decision? 
A. Civil Rights Act of 1964
B. Voting Rights Act of 1965
C. 1957 Little Rock riots
D. "I have a dream" speech
E. All these answers are correct.
A

E. All these answers are correct.

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112
Q

The Supreme Court concept of suspect classifications suggests that
A. it is impossible to impose quotas fairly because they require classifications of merit based on race.
B. it is inherently suspect to classify one school district or public facility reserved for a particular race as inferior or superior to another.
C. laws that classify people differently on the basis of their race or ethnicity are presumed to have discrimination as their purpose.
D. any form of classification of people based on race or gender is not a sufficient basis for which to overturn an established federal law.
E. any law designed to specifically affect members of different genders in different ways is inherently discriminatory.

A

C. laws that classify people differently on the basis of their race or ethnicity are presumed to have discrimination as their purpose.

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113
Q

Which of the following is true?
A. In 1996, Congress passed the Defense of Marriage Act (DOMA), which defines marriage as “a legal union of one man and one woman as husband and wife”.
B. The Supreme Court justices ruled in 2003 that states cannot ban homosexual relations among consenting adults.
C. The Supreme Court justices ruled in 1996 that states could not adopt discriminatory policies toward gays and lesbians.
D. All are true: The Supreme Court ruled states could not adopt discriminatory policies toward gays and lesbians (1996), Congress passed DOMA (1996), and states cannot ban homosexual relations among consenting adults (2003).
E. None of these answers is correct.

A

D. All are true: The Supreme Court ruled states could not adopt discriminatory policies toward gays and lesbians (1996), Congress passed DOMA (1996), and states cannot ban homosexual relations among consenting adults (2003).

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114
Q

According to polls, men and women tend to disagree on certain issues. Of the following issues, about which are men and women closest in agreement? 

A. abortion rights

B. affirmative action

C. poverty assistance

D. education assistance
E. use of military force

A

A. abortion rights


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115
Q
Scholars have done the LEAST study into the political influence of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ on American citizens. 

A. religion

B. families

C. schools

D. media

E. peers
A


A. religion


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116
Q

A member of Congress who wants to act on what the majority of his or her constituency thinks on a particular issue would be advised to respond to which of the following indicators?

A. letters from constituents

B. the editorial positions of newspapers in the constituency

C. public demonstrations by constituents

D. a poll based on a random sample of constituents

E. the number of yard signs on major streets

A

D. a poll based on a random sample of constituents


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117
Q
The accuracy of a poll is usually expressed in terms of 

A. population density.

B. census parameter.

C. population error.

D. sampling error.

E. interview error.
A

D. sampling error.


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118
Q

The term public opinion is frequently used in reference to all of American society. This perspective is

A. accurate, since Americans are one people and indivisible.

B. less accurate than a view of public opinion based on the majority, since the political system operates on the principle of majority rule.

C. less accurate than the idea that Americans form many publics, which differ greatly in such things as the level of attention they pay to politics.

D. less accurate than a view of public opinion based on what the news media are saying about the public.

E. accurate, because there is little diversity in American public opinion.

A

C. less accurate than the idea that Americans form many publics, which differ greatly in such things as the level of attention they pay to politics.

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119
Q

In his definition of public opinion, the author claims that the opinions of private individuals become public opinion when they 

A. first enter people’s heads.

B. are openly expressed.

C. become part of the conflict between the Republican and Democratic parties.

D. are measured in opinion polls.

E. become part of the conflict between populists and libertarians.

A

B. are openly expressed.

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120
Q

The key factors in determining the accuracy of an opinion poll are the

A. population size and the sample size.

B. sample size and the timeline over which the sample was taken.

C. size of the sample and whether the sample was selected from the population by a random method.

D. sample size and whether the sample has the same percentage of men and women as the population.

E. anonymous nature of the sampling process and sample size.

A

C. size of the sample and whether the sample was selected from the population by a random method.


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121
Q
Sources of polling error can include 

A. question order.

B. unrepresentative samples.

C. respondents' lack of knowledge or interest in the issue.

D. question wording.

E. All these answers are correct.
A


E. All these answers are correct.

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122
Q

The process of political socialization in the United States is 

A. normally cumulative; political beliefs attained earlier in life tend to be retained to a substantial degree.

B. highly structured; children are subjected to an intense system of government-mandated political indoctrination.

C. highly effective; Americans are the best informed citizens in the world.

D. extremely narrow; most Americans get nearly all their opinions from a single source.

E. uniform; there are almost no differences in the opinions of various groups, such as northerners and southerners.

A

A. normally cumulative; political beliefs attained earlier in life tend to be retained to a substantial degree.

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123
Q

Dramatic change in party identification is uncommon and is almost always a consequence of 

A. a change in the policy position o
f the president.
B. major upheaval.

C. popular satisfaction with a government initiative.

D. a change in the law.

E. a Supreme Court ruling.

A

B. major upheaval.


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124
Q
The process by which individuals acquire their political opinions is called 

A. popular culture.

B. social communication.

C. socio-economic change.

D. political socialization.

E. political assimilation
A

D. political socialization.

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125
Q

As an agent of political socialization, the American family has its greatest effect on individuals’ 

A. party identification.

B. choice and form of higher education.

C. professional career.

D. knowledge of particular public policies.

E. rate of political participation.

A

A. party identification.


126
Q

Of the 2009-2010 health care reform legislation, a Gallup poll found that nearly a third of the public mistakenly believed that the legislation package included 

A. vastly increased funding for Medicaid, the federal health care program for low-income individuals.

B. government committees that would decide which elderly patients would receive life-saving treatment and which would not.

C. an elimination of the Medicare program.

D. government-sponsored health care for illegal immigrants.

E. a legalization of partial-birth abortions.

A


B. government committees that would decide which elderly patients would receive life-saving treatment and which would not.


127
Q
A consistent pattern of opinion on particular issues that stems from a coherent set of political beliefs is called 

A. conservatism.

B. ideology.

C. socialization.

D. politicization.

E. None of these answers is correct.
A

B. ideology.


128
Q

Which of the following statements about Americans and ideology and political thinking is true? 

A. Liberalism and conservatism have such imprecise meanings that it is not useful to think about politics in these terms.

B. Americans overwhelmingly identify themselves as liberals.

C. Americans are highly sophisticated in their political thinking.

D. Only a minority of Americans can be classified as true ideologues.

E. Americans are highly consistent in their political thinking.

A

D. Only a minority of Americans can be classified as true ideologues.

129
Q

Each of the following statements could be considered true of either economic or social liberals, EXCEPT that 

A. they favor government activism in the area of distribution of economic benefits.

B. they prefer a smaller role for government in upholding social and cultural traditions.

C. they favor more government spending for the poor.

D. they believe lifestyle choices should be left to the individual.

E. they believe that government should be used to promote traditional values.

A

E. they believe that government should be used to promote traditional values.

130
Q

Which of the following statements is true? 

A. Franklin Roosevelt had little faith that public opinion would preserve the Social Security program, and expected it to be dismantled within a few decades.

B. Public opinion on the usefulness of the Social Security system tends to swing back and forth dramatically with the health of the national economy.

C. George W. Bush attempted to privatize aspects of social security, only to back down in the face of determined resistance.

D. Franklin Roosevelt attempted to increase the size of the Social Security system, but backed down in the face of strong public opinion against any expansion.

E. Ronald Reagan refused, against the wishes of his party, to propose reform of the Social Security system, because he knew public opinion would oppose it.

A

C. George W. Bush attempted to privatize aspects of social security, only to back down in the face of determined resistance

131
Q

Which of the following is true of the relationship between public opinion and shifts in major government policies? 

A. On high-profile issues particularly, public opinion tends to affect policy to a greater degree than policymakers’ agendas affect public opinion.

B. Analysts Page and Shapiro concluded that leaders’ opinions ultimately affect most policy issues more than the larger public opinion.

C. The linguist Noam Chomsky claimed that democracy consistently preserved the will of the people over the will of elite interests.

D. Analysts Robert Erikson, Michael MacKuen, and James Stimson found a pattern consistent with their claim that “public opinion has little influence over policy”.

E. All these answers are correct.

A

A. On high-profile issues particularly, public opinion tends to affect policy to a greater degree than policymakers’ agendas affect public opinion.

132
Q

What are the two distinguishing characteristics of political socialization?

A. Schools are the most influential agent of political socialization, and political socialization is strongest during childhood.

B. Family is the strongest agent of political socialization, and political socialization is strongest during high school and college.

C. Political socialization is cumulative, and is most heavily developed during childhood.

D. Political socialization is transitory, and is most heavily developed during young adulthood.

E. Political socialization occurs primarily among educated populations, and is most heavily developed during adulthood.

A

C. Political socialization is cumulative, and is most heavily developed during childhood.


133
Q

The only presidential election in which the Gallup poll erred badly was

A. 1928 Hoover-Smith.

B. 1936 Roosevelt-Landon.

C. 1948 Truman-Dewey.

D. 1964 Johnson-Goldwater.
E. 2000 Bush-Gore.

A

C. 1948 Truman-Dewey.


134
Q

Which of the following would NOT be considered a secondary socializing agent? 

A. leaders

B. the media

C. peers

D. church

E. None of these answers is correct, as all represent secondary socializing agents.

A

D. church


135
Q

Women are less likely than men to favor 

A. affirmative action.

B. abortion rights.

C. higher levels of education spending.

D. the use of force to settle international disputes.

E. All these answers are correct.

A

D. the use of force to settle international disputes.


136
Q
All of the following ideological types are prevalent in the United States EXCEPT 

A. liberals.

B. conservatives.

C. populists.

D. libertarians.

E. communists.
A

E. communists.

137
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ once said that he spent nearly all his adult life in government and yet had never seen a government. 

A. Theodore Roosevelt

B. Woodrow Wilson

C. Abraham Lincoln

D. George W. Bush

E. Harry Truman
A


B. Woodrow Wilson


138
Q

Friedrich Engels believed that communism would not take root in the United States because 

A. the poorer American classes still had enough material wealth to be happy with their station.

B. American workers lacked sufficient class consciousness.

C. the government was already providing substantial financial assistance to the working class.

D. the Social Security system provided workers with a safety net not available to workers in Europe.

E. the government of the U.S. was too militantly anti-communist and would not allow propaganda to spread.

A

B. American workers lacked sufficient class consciousness.


139
Q
In a test of "civic literacy" conducted in 2007, the average college senior scored a grade of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. F
A

E. F

140
Q
Which of the following groups in the U.S. shows a higher level of support for collective bargaining? 

A. workers in the service sector

B. factory workers

C. small farmers

D. white-collar workers

E. workers in the skilled crafts
A

B. factory workers


141
Q

Society in Northern Ireland is presented by the text as a demonstration of what difference with U.S. society?

A. the lack of importance in measured public opinion for the political process

B. the status of the family as a secondary agent of socialization instead of a primary agent

C. the relatively small influence that government propaganda has on the individual

D. the lack of religion as a defining frame of refere
nce
E. the lack of crosscutting between groups

A

E. the lack of crosscutting between groups

142
Q

Which of the following is true of letter writers and demonstrators? 

A. They tend to be individuals who have participated in violent or physical expressions of political opinion.

B. They tend to espouse a more conservative ideological leaning.

C. They tend to have a greater effect on policymakers than the public opinion polls of the general population.

D. Roughly 10 percent of Americans participate in a mass demonstration or write a letter to the editor each year.

E. Their opinions tend to be atypical of the population as whole.

A


E. Their opinions tend to be atypical of the population as whole.

143
Q

To accurately poll the citizens of the United States as opposed to the citizens of a single state, 

A. a much larger sample size will be required.

B. the sample requirements will be nearly the same.

C. a smaller sample size will be required.

D. less randomization will be needed because the sample size will be larger.

E. a larger sampling error can be accepted.

A

B. the sample requirements will be nearly the same.


144
Q

The accuracy of polling is diminished when respondents 

A. give what they regard as the socially correct response.

B. are asked about familiar issues.

C. have an opinion and reveal it.

D. admit they are not familiar with an issue and offer no opinion.

E. None of these answers is correct.

A

A. give what they regard as the socially correct response.


145
Q

Journalist Walter Lippmann suggested that

A. polling, even when done scientifically, cannot be trusted because it is in people’s nature to be dishonest in response to political questions.

B. the dominance of polling has brought about an ideological shift toward the more radical ends of the political spectrum among elected representatives.

C. polling had provided political parties with even more entrenched power, reducing the influence of third party candidates.

D. effective government cannot be run by politicians that base their public opinions on poll results.

E. pollsters have had more effect on the outcome of presidential elections in recent decades than have the people who do the voting.

A

D. effective government cannot be run by politicians that base their public opinions on poll results.

146
Q
In terms of party identification, about two-thirds of adults call themselves 

A. liberals.

B. Republicans or Democrats.

C. Republicans.

D. Independents.

E. Democrats.
A

B. Republicans or Democrats.


147
Q

In general, public opinion 

A. determines specific government actions.

B. is unrelated to government action.

C. sets limits on government action.

D. generally affects government action only on election issues.

E. is strongest during a presidential election.

A

C. sets limits on government action.


148
Q

What was the primary cause for an increase in the public’s support for a military invasion of Iraq during the six-month period leading to the start of the war?

A. the inability of the United Nations to discover strong evidence of weapons of mass destruction

B. mainstream media coverage of the actions of the Iraqi government

C. grass-roots efforts by conservative groups that argued it was necessary for greater national security

D. Bush administration efforts to press the case for war

E. election-year posturing on national security issues by congressional candidates for office

A


D. Bush administration efforts to press the case for war

149
Q
Which of the following ideological types favor government activism in the economic realm? 

A. liberals and populists

B. populists and libertarians

C. conservatives and liberals

D. populists and conservatives

E. liberals and libertarians
A

A. liberals and populists


150
Q
The most powerful religious force in contemporary American society is the 

A. Protestants.

B. religious right.

C. Catholics.

D. Jews.

E. Muslims.
A


B. religious right.


151
Q
Three-fourths of Ivy League students surveyed could not identify \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ as the author of the phrase, "a government of the people, by the people, and for the people". 

A. George Washington

B. James Madison

C. George Gallup

D. Abraham Lincoln

E. Thomas Jefferson
A

D. Abraham Lincoln


152
Q

Which of the following is true about public opinion polling? 

A. Polls are the most relied-upon method of measuring public opinion.

B. Polls can be erroneous at times.

C. Most large news organizations have their own in-house polls.

D. The Gallup pollsters have correctly predicted the winner of presidential elections most of the time since 1936.

E. All these answers are correct.

A

E. All these answers are correct.

153
Q
What term do pollsters use for a purported opinion offered by a respondent who, in truth, has no view on a specific issue? 

A. uninformed response

B. faulty opinion

C. invalid answer

D. confused response

E. non-opinion
A

E. non-opinion

154
Q
The term generational effect is used to describe the influence of watershed events on the political outlook of 

A. older voters.

B. African American voters.

C. female voters.

D. younger voters.

E. swing voters.
A

D. younger voters.


155
Q
A properly drawn sample of one thousand individuals has a sampling error of roughly plus or minus \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ percent. 

A. 5

B. 3

C. 2

D. 8

E. 10
A

B. 3


156
Q
Americans who attend religious services at least once a week are most likely to vote for which political party? 

A. Libertarian

B. Democrat

C. Republican

D. Populist

E. Green
A

C. Republican


157
Q

Which of the following is NOT a primary socializing agent?

A. peers

B. school

C. church

D. family

E. None of these are primary socializing agents.

A


A. peers


158
Q

Libertarians are opposed to governmental intervention

A. in both the economic and social spheres.

B. in the economic but not the social sphere.

C. in the social sphere, but not the economic sphere.

D. in neither the social nor the economic spheres.

E. only with regard to affirmative action.

A


A. in both the economic and social spheres.


159
Q

A conservative is opposed to government intervention 

A. in both the economic and social spheres.

B. in the economic but not the social sphere.

C. in the social sphere, but not the economic sphere.

D. in neither the social nor the economic spheres.

E. only with regard to affirmative action.

A

B. in the economic but not the social sphere.


160
Q
A person who favors government intervention in both social and economic affairs is a(n) 

A. libertarian.

B. liberal.

C. populist.

D. social conservative.

E. economic conservative.
A

C. populist.

161
Q

Party identification refers to 

A. the percentage of polled individuals that claim membership in a particular party.

B. formal membership in a political party.

C. an emotional attachment to a political party.

D. a political party’s platform—the stances on issues that define its beliefs.

E. the ability of individual citizens to identify the major issue positions of the major political parties.

A

C. an emotional attachment to a political party.


162
Q
Selective perception is primarily a result of 

A. economic class.

B. religion.

C. partisanship.

D. race and ethnicity.

E. age and generational beliefs.
A

C. partisanship.


163
Q

Elisabeth Noelle-Neumann’s “spiral of silence” theory contends that 

A. most individuals are reluctant to speak out against dominant opinion.

B. people tend not to express their views until asked.

C. people holding deviant opinions tend to be more vocal, and hence silence the majority.

D. most individuals like to challenge dominant opinions.

E. None of these answers is correct.

A

A. most individuals are reluctant to speak out against dominant opinion.

164
Q
African American men technically gained suffrage with the passage of the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Amendment. 

A. Fifteenth

B. Nineteenth

C. Twenty-first

D. Twenty-third

E. Twenty-sixth
A


A. Fifteenth


165
Q

Women gained the right to vote

A. with passage of the Bill of Rights.

B. shortly after the Civil War.

C. early in the twentieth century.

D. with passage of the Voting Rights Act of 1965.

E. during the era of Jacksonian democracy.

A

C. early in the twentieth century.

166
Q

Literacy tests were used to

A. disenfranchise African Americans in the South.

B. finance election campaigns.

C. ensure that women voted with their husbands, who legally controlled the money in a marriage.

D. ensure that the people who voted would take the vote seriously.

E. help subsidize public education in the North.

A


A. disenfranchise African Americans in the South.


167
Q

The frequency of elections in the United States reduces voter turnout by

A. discouraging local politicians from playing an active role in presidential elections.

B. creating more complex registration requirements.

C. focusing too much attention on state and local elections.

D. increasing the personal effort needed to participate in all elections.

E. increasing the amount of taxes paid at the polls.

A

D. increasing the personal effort needed to participate in all elections.


168
Q
Unlike in many other democracies, elections in the United States are traditionally held on 

A. Mondays.

B. Tuesdays.

C. Fridays.

D. Saturdays.

E. Sundays.
A


B. Tuesdays.


169
Q

One of the reasons voter turnout is lower in the United States than in Western European countries is that 

A. Americans pay less attention to politics.

B. U.S. registration laws place a greater burden on the individual.

C. the U.S. population is not as well educated.

D. Europeans must pay a huge fine if they fail to vote.

E. None of these answers is correct.

A


B. U.S. registration laws place a greater burden on the individual.


170
Q

Voter registration in the United States 

A. was introduced as a means of keeping white males without property from voting.

B. began as a way of preventing voters from casting more than one ballot on election day.

C. is the responsibility of the government, which adds legally qualified individuals automatically to the registration rolls.

D. applies to voting in general elections but not in primary elections.

E. has vastly increased voter turnout.

A

B. began as a way of preventing voters from casting more than one ballot on election day.


171
Q
One's sense of civic duty and apathy are attitudes that are usually acquired from one's 

A. economic status.

B. community.

C. education.

D. parents.

E. experience with voting.
A

D. parents.


172
Q

Regular voters tend to be characterized by a 

A. strong sense of alienation, which motivates them to try to change government.

B. strong sense of civic duty.

C. desire to use government as a vehicle to help other Americans rather than themselves.

D. strong sense of independence, which motivates them to try to defeat incumbents.

E. All these answers are correct.

A

B. strong sense of civic duty.


173
Q

As distinct from alienation, apathy is 

A. associated with a low rate of voter turnout.

B. a feeling of powerlessness.

C. a general lack of interest in politics.

D. a sign that the political system is working properly.

E. widespread among affluent Americans.

A

C. a general lack of interest in politics.


174
Q

Which of the following groups of people is most adversely affected by our country’s voter registration system?

A. senior citizens

B. those with less income and education

C. young adults

D. women

E. people with college degrees

A


B. those with less income and education


175
Q

Education and income affects voter turnout 

A. more in the United States than in Europe.

B. more in Europe than in the United States.

C. only in national elections in the United States.

D. only in national elections in Europe.

E. None of these answers is correct.

A

A. more in the United States than in Europe.


176
Q

In comparison with citizens in Western European democracies, Americans are less likely to 

A. vote in national elections.

B. actively work in an election campaign.

C. participate in community activities.

D. join an interest group.

E. All these answers are correct.

A

A. vote in national elections.


177
Q

The chief obstacle to Americans’ participation in community activities is the 

A. lack of opportunity, because there are few groups active at this level.

B. lack of personal motivation to get involved.

C. low potential for success, since key decisions are made at the national level.

D. low potential for success, since key decisions are made at the state level.

E. All these answers are correct.

A


B. lack of personal motivation to get involved.

178
Q
Voter identification cards find the most support among 

A. Democrats.

B. Republicans.

C. libertarians.

D. liberals.

E. poorer citizens.
A

B. Republicans.

179
Q

All of the following tend to decrease voter turnout EXCEPT 

A. sharp policy differences between major parties.

B. alienation.

C. frequent elections.

D. an individualistic culture.

E. lack of interest in politics.

A

A. sharp policy differences between major parties.


180
Q

Which of the following is true of the Internet organization MoveOn.org?

A. It has demonstrated that online advocacy can dramatically increase voter turnout in local and state elections.

B. It is technically a registered lobbying organization.

C. It has a network of more than five million “online activists”, which makes it a more powerful voting bloc than some entire states.

D. It was highly successful in its effort to shape the 2010 health care reform bill.

E. It was instrumental in helping Barack Obama defeat Hillary Clinton in their race for the 2008 Democratic presidential nomination.

A


E. It was instrumental in helping Barack Obama defeat Hillary Clinton in their race for the 2008 Democratic presidential nomination.

181
Q
A sustained action taken by citizens disenchanted with government in order to express their opposition and work to bring about the change they seek is a 

A. social movement.

B. voter upsurge.

C. citizen lobby.

D. popular resistance.

E. regular election.
A

A. social movement.

182
Q

When it comes to protest activities, a majority of Americans are 

A. actively involved in protests at one time or another in their lives.

B. willing to contribute through financial support but not through active participation.

C. not highly supportive of such activities, despite America’s tradition of free expression.

D. actively involved only later in their lives, when they feel more secure that a protest is justified.

E. supportive of violent activities if the cause warrants such an approach.

A


C. not highly supportive of such activities, despite America’s tradition of free expression.


183
Q
Most candidates for office in the United States aim their appeals at 

A. high-income voters.

B. middle-income voters.

C. labor unions and interest groups.

D. corporate lobbying powers.

E. low-income voters.
A

B. middle-income voters.

184
Q

Voting 

A. is a limited form of political participation.

B. provides citizens with a regular way to express themselves.

C. is the most widespread form of political participation.

D. is both a means by which government controls the people and a means by which the people control government.

E. All these answers are correct.

A

E. All these answers are correct.

185
Q

The adoption of voter identification cards by several states

A. will likely cause a decline in voter turnout.

B. is a policy intended to further the gains of the motor voter law.

C. was declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court.

D. will increase the voting power of poorer citizens.

E. was a response to well-documented accounts of widespread electoral fraud.

A


A. will likely cause a decline in voter turnout.

186
Q

Protest activity is a reversal of the pattern of voting in that it 

A. has broad public support.

B. is supportive of existing policies.

C. is more likely to involve younger citizens rather than older ones.

D. is rooted in prejudice.

E. usually takes place in the evenings.

A

C. is more likely to involve younger citizens rather than older ones.


187
Q
Which of the following countries has the highest estimated voter turnout in major national elections in recent decades? 

A. Denmark

B. Germany

C. the United States

D. Belgium

E. France
A

D. Belgium

188
Q
Historically speaking, which region has the lowest turnout rate in the nation? 

A. South

B. Midwest

C. Northeast

D. Pacific Coast

E. Great Plains
A

A. South


189
Q

In the twenty-first century, voting rates in the United States have

A. shown little difference from those of the late twentieth century.

B. increased in presidential elections, while continuing to remain lowest in local ones.

C. demonstrated that the apathy of young citizens has worsened considerably since the early 1990s.

D. increased in all elections.

E. declined in all elections.

A


C. demonstrated that the apathy of young citizens has worsened considerably since the early 1990s.


190
Q

Citizens in which of the following countries are most likely to volunteer time and money to promote community causes? 

A. Germany

B. France

C. Great Britain

D. the United States

E. There is no difference among the four nations.

A

D. the United States

191
Q
Which of the following states has a voter identification card law? 

A. Maine

B. New Hampshire

C. Minnesota

D. Indiana

E. Wisconsin
A


D. Indiana


192
Q

If Americans vote less than Europeans, why are they more likely to work in a political campaign than are citizens in Europe? 

A. America’s federal structure provides more campaign opportunities.

B. European candidates seldom need campaign workers.

C. Americans have more leisure time than Europeans.

D. U.S. candidates pay campaign workers, whereas European candidates do not.

E. Laws in some U.S. communities require citizens to participate in campaigns.

A

A. America’s federal structure provides more campaign opportunities.


193
Q
Many white, working-class citizens failed to vote in the 1968 and 1972 elections because they felt alienated by the centrality of which political issue? 

A. civil rights

B. the Vietnam War

C. the economy

D. immigration

E. youth protest
A

A. civil rights


194
Q

Compared with U.S. citizens of higher income, those of lower income are 

A. much less likely to vote in elections.

B. about equally likely to vote in elections.

C. much more likely to vote in elections.

D. much less likely to vote in elections—a pattern that is also true in European democracies.

E. None of these answers is correct.

A

A. much less likely to vote in elections.


195
Q
Eighteen-, nineteen-, and twenty-year-old Americans were granted the right to vote by the passage of the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Amendment. 

A. Fifteenth

B. Nineteenth

C. Twenty-first

D. Twenty-third

E. Twenty-sixth
A

E. Twenty-sixth

196
Q
In the United States, the primary responsibility for registration of the individual voter rests with the 

A. state and local governments.

B. local courts.

C. employer.

D. individual.

E. federal government.
A

D. individual.

197
Q
Since the 1960s, the level of turnout in presidential elections has averaged \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ percent. 

A. 75

B. 65

C. 60

D. 45

E. 35
A


C. 60


198
Q

The “motor voter” law 

A. was passed in 1993.

B. made it easier for citizens to register to vote.

C. linked voter registration to the vehicle registration process.

D. was passed in 1993 and linked voter registration to the vehicle registration process.

E. All these answers are correct.

A

E. All these answers are correct.

199
Q
Scholars estimate that turnout would be roughly \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ percentage points higher in the United States if the U.S. had European-style registration 

A. 2

B. 5

C. 7

D. 10

E. 15
A


D. 10

200
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ elections tend to draw the largest percentage of voters in the U.S. 

A. Primary

B. Mayoral

C. Congressional

D. Gubernatorial

E. Presidential
A


E. Presidential

201
Q

Harvard’s Robert Putnam argues in his book Bowling Alone that 

A. the increase in frequency of elections in the United States has increased the level of general voter apathy.

B. community participation among young adults has risen in the past two decades because of new media technologies like Internet activism.

C. voter apathy is only going to increase as long as we maintain a two-party system.

D. a proportional representation system in the legislature would increase voter turnout.

E. America has been undergoing a long-term decline in its social capital.

A

E. America has been undergoing a long-term decline in its social capital.

202
Q

When democratic governments came into existence, tax and food riots and other forms of protest greatly diminished. Why? 

A. Citizens had less-disruptive ways to express themselves.

B. A government safety net ensured basic needs were met.

C. Social scientists have been studying this phenomenon but do not have a conclusive answer.

D. The wealth of citizens increased dramatically with democratic freedoms and liberty.

E. None of these answers is correct.

A

A. Citizens had less-disruptive ways to express themselves.


203
Q
The citizens of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are most likely to participate as campaign volunteers during an election. 

A. the Netherlands

B. Great Britain

C. the United States

D. Germany

E. France
A

C. the United States


204
Q

When the nation was founded, who was eligible to vote?

A. everyone—there was universal suffrage

B. all males and females who were at least 21 years of age

C. only males who owned property

D. only citizens who had lived in the nation for at least ten years

E. All native-born citizens could vote.

A

C. only males who owned property

205
Q

What did political scientist Larry Bartels demonstrate in his book Unequal Democracy?

A. Elected officials are substantially more responsive to the concerns of their more affluent constituents than to those of their poorer constituents.

B. Elected officials are substantially more responsive to the efforts of lobbyists than to the concerns of their constituents.

C. Elected officials do not tend to respond to the efforts of social movements or protests when casting votes or forming policy.

D. Elected officials tend to ignore the interests of their constituents when they make policy or cast votes, until just before they are up for reelection.

E. Incumbents hold so much power in the United States and are so difficult to unseat that they have disenfranchised much of the voting population of the U.S.

A


A. Elected officials are substantially more responsive to the concerns of their more affluent constituents than to those of their poorer constituents.


206
Q

In the United States, 

A. the federal government prevents states from restricting registration based on the amount of time a person has resided in that state.

B. voter registration requirements have usually been set by the states.

C. voter registration periods and locations tend to be highly publicized, but registration requirements prevent many from taking advantage of them.

D. most states automatically register a person to vote when he or she acquires a driver’s license.

E. states with easier registration laws have shown no higher turnout rates than states with restrictive registration requirements.

A


B. voter registration requirements have usually been set by the states.

207
Q

Which of the following is true of the Georgia law that required citizens without a government-issued photo ID, such as a driver’s license or passport, to obtain a voter identification card, which would cost them twenty dollars and expire after five years?

A. A federal judge invalidated Georgia’s twenty-dollar fee requirement, but the photo ID requirement stood.

B. The law currently stands as it was initially created.

C. A federal judge struck down the entire law; a person may vote in Georgia without a government-issued photo ID.

D. A federal court struck down the law, but Georgia appealed it and the Supreme Court upheld the law as created.

E. The photo ID requirement has resulted in a substantial reduction in voter turnout in Georgia.

A


A. A federal judge invalidated Georgia’s twenty-dollar fee requirement, but the photo ID requirement stood

208
Q

Political protests

A. have recently seen success primarily with liberal or leftist protest groups.

B. are today usually planned events.

C. are more common in the United States today than in most European democracies.

D. have become more spontaneous and unlawful in recent years.

E. are today mostly aimed at local laws and local political targets.

A

B. are today usually planned events.


209
Q

Political parties serve to 

A. link the public with its elected leaders.

B. enable people with different backgrounds and opinions to act together.

C. offer the public a choice between policies and leaders.

D. provide potential leaders an opportunity to attain public office.

E. All these answers are correct.

A

E. All these answers are correct.

210
Q

The first American political parties emerged from the conflict between

A. slave states and free states.

B. the older eastern states and the newer western states.

C. small farmers and states’ rights advocates, and those favoring commercial and wealthy interests.

D. business and labor.

E. Protestants and Catholics.

A


C. small farmers and states’ rights advocates, and those favoring commercial and wealthy interests.


211
Q

Andrew Jackson’s contribution to the development of political parties was the 

A. forging of a coalition of Democrats and Whigs.

B. introduction of primary elections.

C. formation of a new type of grassroots party organization.

D. formation of the Federalist Party.

E. formation of the Republican Party.

A

C. formation of a new type of grassroots party organization.


212
Q

Proportional representation systems encourage the formation of smaller parties by enabling parties to 

A. win legislative seats even though they do not receive a majority of votes in elections.

B. receive campaign funds from government in proportion to their support in opinion polls.

C. win legislative seats by lottery for parties that have no chance of winning majority support.

D. share in patronage appointments, which serve as an incentive to lure campaign workers.

E. advertise on television.

A

A. win legislative seats even though they do not receive a majority of votes in elections.

213
Q

Democrats and Republicans have endured as the two major U.S. parties primarily due to 

A. the stability of their ideologies.

B. the lack of good third-party candidates.

C. a high degree of party discipline.

D. their ability to adapt to changing circumstances.

E. None of these answers is correct.

A

D. their ability to adapt to changing circumstances.


214
Q
In 1912, a candidate for which minor party managed to earn more votes than one of his major party opponents? 

A. Socialist

B. Prohibition

C. Bull Moose

D. Reform

E. Populist
A

C. Bull Moose


215
Q

If a minor party gains a large following, it is almost certain that 

A. the major parties will join together to attack the minor party.

B. Congress will enact legislation to make it difficult for the minor party to get on the ballot.

C. party in-fighting will tear it apart.

D. one or both major parties will absorb its issue, and the minor party will lose support.

E. the media will attack the minor party.

A

D. one or both major parties will absorb its issue, and the minor party will lose support.


216
Q

The major reason for the persistence of the American two-party system is

A. that there are naturally only two sides to political disputes.

B. regional conflict.

C. the existence of single-member election districts.

D. the existence of state laws prohibiting the placement of a third major party on the ballot.

E. proportional representation.

A

C. the existence of single-member election districts.


217
Q
The history of democratic government is virtually synonymous with the history of 

A. high voter turnout.

B. the separation of powers.

C. economic recessions.

D. protest movements.

E. political parties.
A

E. political parties.

218
Q

All of the following are characteristic of a party realignment EXCEPT 

A. sharp divisions between the parties.

B. enduring changes in party coalitions.

C. major policy initiatives by the winning party.

D. a very close electoral result.

E. the disruption of the existing political order.

A

D. a very close electoral result.


219
Q

Which of the following encourages the two major parties to build broad coalitions?

A. the need to raise campaign funds

B. the need to have policy “wiggle-room” once elected into power

C. the desire to avoid their policy preferences becoming hijacked by extreme elements

D. fear of demonization by the press

E. the two-party system and the need to gain a plurality

A


E. the two-party system and the need to gain a plurality

220
Q
The issue of slavery gave birth to the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ party as a major political party. 

A. Federalist

B. Democratic

C. Republican

D. Whig

E. Populist
A

C. Republican

221
Q
Political parties in the United States originated partly as a political feud between 

A. Marshall and Adams.

B. Adams and Jackson.

C. Lincoln and Douglas.

D. Cleveland and Bryan.

E. Hamilton and Jefferson.
A

E. Hamilton and Jefferson.

222
Q
The Democratic Party's long-time regional stronghold, "the Solid South", stemmed from a realignment during which historical period? 

A. Civil War era

B. 1890s

C. Great Depression

D. 1980s

E. None of these answers is correct.
A


A. Civil War era


223
Q

Which of the following is an indication of strong party loyalty? 

A. split-ticket voting

B. an increase in independent voters

C. straight-ticket voting

D. the influence of short-term issues and candidates

E. a focus on candidate charisma and personal style

A

C. straight-ticket voting


224
Q

Party dealignment is

A. essentially the same as party realignment.

B. a process that has discouraged the formation of third parties.

C. a process that has strengthened the major parties.

D. a process that refers to American political parties in the early 1800s.

E. None of these answers is correct.

A

E. None of these answers is correct.

225
Q

Prospective voting is characterized by 

A. a sudden shift in the vote from one party to another.

B. choices based on party loyalty.

C. choices based on a candidate’s past performance.

D. choices based on what candidates promise to do if elected.

E. the symbolism of a candidate’s personality.

A


D. choices based on what candidates promise to do if elected.

226
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is based on judgment about the past performance of an elected official or political party. 

A. Prospective voting

B. Retrospective voting

C. Split-ticket voting

D. Straight-ticket voting

E. None of these answers is correct.
A

B. Retrospective voting


227
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ lost the 1964 presidential election in a landslide because his views were seen as too extreme. 

A. James Weaver

B. Jimmy Carter

C. George McGovern

D. Richard Nixon

E. Barry Goldwater
A


E. Barry Goldwater

228
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ does not have a competitive multiparty system. 

A. Germany

B. Italy

C. The Netherlands

D. The United States

E. Sweden
A


D. The United States


229
Q

What was especially unique about the “Era of Good Feeling”?

A. Political parties were banned.

B. President Monroe ran unopposed in 1820.

C. Jefferson’s faction adopted the label “Republican”.

D. The president and vice president were from competing parties.

E. Federalists won the election of 1820.

A


B. President Monroe ran unopposed in 1820.


230
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ warned Americans of the "baneful effects" of factions (political parties) in his 1797 farewell address.
 
A. James Madison

B. Thomas Jefferson

C. George Washington

D. Andrew Jackson

E. Abraham Lincoln
A


C. George Washington


231
Q
What party has made big gains in recent decades among white fundamentalist Christians, based on its positions on topics like abortion and school prayer?
 
A. Democratic

B. Republican

C. Green

D. Socialist

E. Reform
A

B. Republican

232
Q

Candidates’ first priority in a close election is to 

A. secure their “base voters”.

B. rally the faithful and “get out the vote”.

C. increase TV spending.

D. paint their opponents in a bad light.

E. win over the “swing voters”.

A

E. win over the “swing voters”.

233
Q
Which of the following groups is most closely aligned with the Democratic Party, voting more than 80 percent Democratic in presidential elections? 

A. Latino Americans

B. white Protestants

C. Christian fundamentalists

D. African Americans

E. Roman Catholics
A

D. African Americans


234
Q
Which of the following groups is NOT typically a part of the Democratic coalition? 

A. city dwellers

B. Hispanics

C. union members

D. Jews

E. fundamentalist Christians
A


E. fundamentalist Christians

235
Q
In twentieth-century American history, the most important minor parties were \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ parties. 

A. ideological

B. single-issue

C. factional

D. reform

E. non-aligned
A

C. factional


236
Q
Ticket splitting was most prominent during which decade? 

A. 1970s

B. 1990s

C. 1980s

D. 1960s

E. 1950s
A

A. 1970s

237
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ was the only Republican elected president from 1932 to 1964. 

A. Richard Nixon

B. Barry Goldwater

C. Dwight Eisenhower

D. Herbert Hoover

E. Calvin Coolidge
A


C. Dwight Eisenhower


238
Q
All of the following use top-two primaries EXCEPT 

A. Oregon.

B. Washington.

C. California.

D. Nebraska.

E. Louisiana.
A

A. Oregon.


239
Q

American party organizations 

A. are about to die out.

B. are more powerful today than at any time in history.

C. have more power than their Western European counterparts.

D. are still important, but their role in campaigns is secondary to that of candidates.

E. are unimportant in the political system today.

A

D. are still important, but their role in campaigns is secondary to that of candidates.

240
Q

National party organizations can dictate the day-to-day decisions of

A. local party organizations only.

B. state party organizations only.

C. local and state party organizations.

D. neither local nor state party organizations.

E. party leaders in Congress.

A

D. neither local nor state party organizations.


241
Q
A(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ party is a minor party that bases its appeal on the claim that the major parties are having a corrupting influence on government and policy. 

A. third

B. reform

C. single-issue

D. ideological

E. factional
A


B. reform

242
Q
Which of the following is an example of a single-issue party? 

A. Populists

B. Green Party

C. Socialist Workers Party

D. Libertarian Party

E. Greenback Party
A


E. Greenback Party

243
Q
Which of the following are key players in the modern campaign? 

A. pollsters

B. media producers

C. fundraising specialists

D. campaign consultants

E. All these answers are correct.
A


E. All these answers are correct.

244
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ prohibits the purchase of televised advertising time by candidates. 

A. Scotland

B. Great Britain

C. The United States

D. Germany

E. Canada
A


B. Great Britain

245
Q

James Carville and Roger Ailes are both examples of 

A. minor party candidates who earned more than five percent of the vote.

B. campaign strategists who have earned legendary reputations.

C. congressional incumbents whose reelection bids were derailed by smear campaigns.

D. national chairpersons of one of the two major parties.

E. lobbyists jailed for their illegal soft money contributions.

A

B. campaign strategists who have earned legendary reputations.

246
Q

James Carville and Roger Ailes are both examples of 

A. minor party candidates who earned more than five percent of the vote.

B. campaign strategists who have earned legendary reputations.

C. congressional incumbents whose reelection bids were derailed by smear campaigns.

D. national chairpersons of one of the two major parties.

E. lobbyists jailed for their illegal soft money contributions

A


B. campaign strategists who have earned legendary reputations.


247
Q
Organizationally, the U.S. major parties are 

A. decentralized and fragmented.

B. centralized and weak.

C. decentralized and strong.

D. centralized and strong.

E. no longer in operation.
A

A. decentralized and fragmented.


248
Q
During the twentieth century, American parties lost their complete control over 

A. nominations.

B. financing.

C. platforms.

D. the staffing of government jobs.

E. All these answers are correct.
A

E. All these answers are correct.

249
Q
Which of the following represents the greatest blow to the organizational strength of U.S. parties? 

A. the national convention

B. the direct primary

C. Jacksonian democracy

D. the emergence of PACs

E. voter registration
A


B. the direct primary

250
Q

Which of the following is an accurate representation of the public’s opinion about leaders and their accountability? 

A. Most citizens have a high opinion of Congress as a whole, but say they have little confidence in their local representative in Congress.

B. Most citizens have a high opinion of both Congress as a whole and their local representative in Congress.

C. Most citizens have a low opinion of Congress as a whole, but say they have confidence in their local representative in Congress.

D. Most citizens have a low opinion of Congress as a whole and also of their local representative in Congress.

E. Most citizens do not feel that their local representatives in Congress should be held accountable for the votes they have to make in order to stay in line with their party’s platform.

A


C. Most citizens have a low opinion of Congress as a whole, but say they have confidence in their local representative in Congress.


251
Q
The winner-take-all system is also known as the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ system. 

A. plurality

B. majority

C. minority

D. democratic

E. proportional
A


A. plurality

252
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ representation systems are those in which seats in the legislature are allocated according to each political party's share of the popular vote. 

A. Plurality

B. Populist

C. Minority

D. Democratic

E. Proportional
A


E. Proportional

253
Q
On average, how much money must a U.S. senator raise every week of his or her six-year term in order to acquire enough money to launch a competitive bid for reelection? 

A. $200

B. $2,000

C. $20,000

D. $200,000

E. $2,000,000
A


C. $20,000

254
Q

Which of the following statements about the patronage system is true? 

A. It was a means of rewarding party workers for their loyalty.

B. It was first established in the early twentieth century.

C. It has fallen increasingly into the hands of party organizations.

D. It weakens the bond that most federal staff members might otherwise feel for the congressperson under which they work.

E. Today there are almost no patronage jobs left.

A

A. It was a means of rewarding party workers for their loyalty.


255
Q

About 95 percent of all political activists in the United States work at 

A. the national level.

B. the state level.

C. the local level.

D. the national and state levels.

E. Republican and Democratic party headquarters.

A

C. the local level.


256
Q

In Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission (2010), the Supreme Court

A. found private citizens should not have limits on the amount of money they can spend on campaigns.

B. found corporations and unions could not be banned from spending money on campaigns.

C. found private citizens had the same free speech rights as corporations.

D. found corporate and union donations to campaigns was not covered as a form of free speech.

E. invalidated the government’s use of an elections commission to regulate campaign donations.

A


B. found corporations and unions could not be banned from spending money on campaigns.

257
Q

The function that the national party organizations perform in relation to congressional candidates can best be described as a 

A. service relationship—helping candidates conduct their personal campaigns.

B. power relationship—making party assistance conditional upon the candidates’ endorsement of the party platform.

C. central relationship—organizing and conducting the campaigns for the candidates.

D. non-participant relationship—staying out of congressional campaigns and assisting only in the presidential campaign.

E. None of these answers is correct.

A

A. service relationship—helping candidates conduct their personal campaigns.

258
Q
What demographic is key to the future of both parties? 

A. Hispanic voters

B. African American voters

C. middle-class voters

D. Jewish voters

E. the senior vote
A

A. Hispanic voters

259
Q
In the recent elections, which voting demographic has become a more cohesive voting bloc and has sided heavily with the Democratic Party, seeing it as more closely aligned with their interests? 

A. Hispanics

B. African Americans

C. the middle class

D. the affluent

E. seniors
A

A. Hispanics

260
Q
The election of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ was a realigning election. 

A. 1840

B. 1872

C. 1932

D. 1960

E. 1976
A

C. 1932


261
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is associated with the Era of Good Feeling. 

A. Abraham Lincoln

B. Franklin D. Roosevelt

C. James Monroe

D. Andrew Jackson

E. George Washington
A

C. James Monroe

262
Q
Abraham Lincoln was first elected in 1860 with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ percent of the popular vote. 

A. 20

B. 40

C. 50

D. 60

E. 80
A

B. 40

263
Q

State central committees 

A. endorse candidates in their state-wide primaries but do not have formal control over who is chosen.

B. have the final say in who will be chosen as the candidates for national office from their party in their home state.

C. provide only general policy guidance for the state organizations.

D. are prevented from participating in fund-raising and voter registration because they receive government funding.

E. concentrate most strongly on national elections.

A


B. have the final say in who will be chosen as the candidates for national office from their party in their home state.


264
Q
In 1992, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ won 19 percent of the popular vote in the presidential election. 

A. Bill Clinton

B. George H. W. Bush

C. Ross Perot

D. Pat Buchanan

E. Ralph Nader
A

C. Ross Perot


265
Q
Populist \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ won electoral votes in six states in the presidential election of 1892. 

A. William Jennings Bryan

B. Theodore Roosevelt

C. Chester Arthur

D. James B. Weaver

E. Benjamin Harrison
A

D. James B. Weaver

266
Q

The news provides a refracted version of reality because it 

A. emphasizes dramatic and compelling news stories.

B. is biased in favor of a Republican viewpoint.

C. is biased in favor of a Democratic viewpoint.

D. is biased in favor of a liberal perspective.

E. is biased in favor of a conservative perspective.

A

A. emphasizes dramatic and compelling news stories.


267
Q

In comparison with today’s newspapers, early American newspapers 

A. were written by hand.

B. were so inexpensive that nearly everyone read a daily paper.

C. could not have survived without political party support.

D. were more widely read.

E. All these answers are correct.

A

C. could not have survived without political party support.


268
Q
What technology led editors to substitute news reports for opinion commentary? 

A. radio

B. telegraph

C. broadcast TV

D. cable TV

E. power-driven printing press
A

B. telegraph


269
Q

The yellow journalism of the late nineteenth century was characterized by 

A. the use of the telegraph.

B. the emphasis on sensationalism as a way of selling newspapers.

C. prejudice against Asian people and countries.

D. an unwillingness to take editorial positions because of a fear of losing circulation.

E. the desire to present the news in an objective manner.

A


B. the emphasis on sensationalism as a way of selling newspapers.

270
Q

Objective journalism is based on the idea that the reporter’s job is to 

A. report the facts and cover alternative sides of a partisan debate.

B. report what political leaders want them to report.

C. discover what other reporters are saying and provide a uniform interpretation of events.

D. scrutinize the partisan debate, and inform the news audience about which party has the better argument.

E. All these answers are correct.

A

A. report the facts and cover alternative sides of a partisan debate.

271
Q
The FCC restriction requiring broadcasters to "afford reasonable opportunity for the discussion of conflicting views of public importance" was known as the 

A. "Equal Time" rule.

B. objective-reporting model.

C. signaling function.

D. common-carrier function.

E. Fairness Doctrine.
A

E. Fairness Doctrine.

272
Q

Which of the following is true of age differences in news consumption?

A. Younger adults are more than twice as likely as older adults to use the web for news consumption.

B. The disparity in age for news consumption is greater with television than with newspapers.

C. Older adults are more likely than younger adults to access the web.

D. Age differences in news consumption shrink for Internet-based news but do not disappear.

E. About 60 percent of young adults pay little or no attention on a regular basis to any news source.

A


D. Age differences in news consumption shrink for Internet-based news but do not disappear.

273
Q

The federal government’s licensing of broadcasting is based primarily on

A. the fact that broadcasting is a national medium.

B. the scarcity of broadcasting frequencies.

C. the fact that broadcasting was invented after the First Amendment was adopted.

D. the desire of national officials to control the content of broadcast news and entertainment.

E. a desire to censor reporters so that they will stop criticizing governmental officials.

A

B. the scarcity of broadcasting frequencies.

274
Q

Most successful Internet blogs 

A. have a conservative bias.

B. have bolstered the strength of traditional newspapers by drawing on their stories as sources for material they post online.

C. have achieved the same kind of reporting access to government leadership that the major news outlets have traditionally had.

D. are beginning to mimic the impartiality and objective journalistic standards of the major media outlets.

E. have a liberal bias.

A

E. have a liberal bias.

275
Q

The term “framing” is used to describe the 

A. media’s ability to influence what is on people’s minds.

B. process of selecting certain aspects of reality and making them the most salient part of the communication, thereby conveying a particular interpretation of a situation.

C. media’s obligation to convey a uniform and standard interpretation of a situation.

D. nature of media reporting when objectivity has weakened and the system has tilted in favor of yellow journalism.

E. primary right of the media that is protected by the First Amendment.

A


B. process of selecting certain aspects of reality and making them the most salient part of the communication, thereby conveying a particular interpretation of a situation.


276
Q

Which of the following broadcast news sources has seen its audience grow? 

A. ABC

B. CBS

C. NBC

D. NPR
E. None of these answers is correct.

A

D. NPR
E. None of these answers is correct.

277
Q

The FCC’s equal time requirement

A. includes the print media.

B. prohibits broadcasters from selling or giving time to political candidates and denying it to their opponents.

C. requires broadcasters to give equal time to the two major political parties.

D. requires broadcasters to give equal time to news programming and to commercial advertising.

E. requires broadcasters to give equal time to third parties as well as the Democrats and Republicans.

A

B. prohibits broadcasters from selling or giving time to political candidates and denying it to their opponents.


278
Q

What development brought about a dramatic reduction in television’s capacity to generate an interest in news?

A. an increase in newspaper circulation

B. the loss of objective journalistic standards

C. the rapid spread of cable

D. the rise of Internet news consumption

E. a drop in education levels in the United States

A

C. the rapid spread of cable


279
Q

One of the reasons the reporting of national news is relatively uniform among news sources is that

A. the government dictates much of what is reported.

B. there are only a few important events each day that merit news coverage.

C. the network newscasts are brief and the day’s top stories tend to dominate.

D. reporters are not given much freedom by their editors.

E. modern journalists have become fairly lazy and use mostly wire reports to create news copy for the network newscasts.

A


C. the network newscasts are brief and the day’s top stories tend to dominate.


280
Q

At which of the following times did the American media step back from their watchdog role? 

A. after the Korean War

B. during the Vietnam War

C. after the September 11th terrorist attacks

D. at the height of the Iraq War

E. during Obama’s proposed elevation of the Afghanistan War

A

B. during the Vietnam War


281
Q

How has the Internet affected the watchdog role of the media?

A. It has diluted the watchdog capacity with an overflow of opinions.

B. It has expanded the watchdog capacity of the media.

C. It has tainted the watchdog role with a partisan bent.

D. It has almost completely usurped the watchdog role from the traditional media outlets.

E. It has had little to no effect because it lacks the objective standards of traditional media outlets

A


B. It has expanded the watchdog capacity of the media.

282
Q

In contrast with European news media, American news media are more likely to 

A. guide readers by providing ideological interpretations of current events.

B. play a partisan role by taking sides in political debate.

C. act primarily as neutral transmitters of information.

D. use yellow journalism.

E. None of these answers is correct.

A


C. act primarily as neutral transmitters of information.

283
Q

The media perform the signaling role by

A. informing the public of breaking events and new developments.

B. serving as an open channel for leaders to express their opinions.

C. exposing officials who violate accepted performance and moral standards.

D. acting as the public’s representative.

E. All these answers are correct.

A


A. informing the public of breaking events and new developments.


284
Q

In terms of news consumption, since the 1980s young adults 

A. have been more informed than older ones.

B. have been less informed than older ones.

C. have experienced a rise in news consumption because of the Internet.

D. have experienced a rise in news consumption because of cable news channels.

E. have remained on par with older adults in terms of news consumption.

A

B. have been less informed than older ones.


285
Q

The news media’s common-carrier role is based on the idea that

A. the news will be available to all citizens.

B. various news organizations should interpret the news in nearly the same way.

C. the press should not charge for public service announcements.

D. the press should provide a channel through which political leaders can communicate their views to the public.

E. the press should be patriotic in the reporting of the news.

A

D. the press should provide a channel through which political leaders can communicate their views to the public.


286
Q
Which institution receives the most news coverage from the national press? 

A. the presidency

B. U.S. House of Representatives

C. U.S. Senate

D. U.S. Supreme Court

E. the federal bureaucracy
A

A. the presidency

287
Q

The Watergate scandal illustrates the 

A. futility of media attempts to forecast political events.

B. inadequacy of the media as a common-carrier to the public.

C. power of the media to serve as watchdog to safeguard against abuses of power.

D. ability of the press to serve as the public’s representative in political disputes.

E. abuse of power by journalists in the United States.

A


C. power of the media to serve as watchdog to safeguard against abuses of power.


288
Q
Agenda-setting is an action that falls under which of the major roles played by the press? 

A. common-carrier

B. signaling

C. watchdog

D. partisan advocate

E. news interpreter
A


B. signaling

289
Q

Which of the following is one of the two major advantages of journalists in covering the political game and strategic aspects of news instead of the policy frame? 

A. Government leaders are more interested in portraying their political views than their policy accomplishments.

B. Government leaders give journalists less access to the policy sphere.

C. The reporting of policy positions is too simplified.

D. The political game is a constant source of fresh material.

E. The reporting of policy is less readily adaptable to editorial pages.

A


C. The reporting of policy positions is too simplified.


290
Q

The reason the news product is designed to fascinate as well as to inform is because 

A. news organizations are fundamentally businesses and must obtain revenue to survive.

B. of the high level of illiteracy.

C. the print media wish to emulate the broadcast media.

D. of the need to compete with Hollywood productions.

E. All these answers are correct.

A

A. news organizations are fundamentally businesses and must obtain revenue to survive.


291
Q

On both radio and television, most successful partisan talk shows 

A. have been hosted by liberals.

B. have been hosted by nonpartisan journalists.

C. have been hosted by conservatives.

D. have been hosted by teams of journalists holding multiple partisan viewpoints.

E. have had no discernible political bias.

A

C. have been hosted by conservatives.


292
Q

CNN and MSNBC have responded to Fox’s ratings success by 

A. reducing the number of talk shows in their line-up.

B. increasing the number of talk shows hosted by liberals.

C. attempting to lure audiences by focusing on their unbiased news reporting.

D. installing talk-show hosts with nonpartisan appeal.

E. installing talk-show hosts with partisan or hard-edged appeals.

A

E. installing talk-show hosts with partisan or hard-edged appeals.

293
Q

Which of the following statements is true? 

A. Objective journalism is based on communication of facts and fairness.

B. Yellow journalism attempts to describe what is taking place or has occurred.

C. The New York Post is the bulletin board of major newspapers.

D. Objective journalism is based on communication of facts and fairness, while yellow journalism attempts to describe what is taking place or has occurred.

E. None of these answers is correct.

A

A. Objective journalism is based on communication of facts and fairness.


294
Q
The Gazette of the United States was founded to promote the policies of President 

A. Warren Harding.

B. Grover Cleveland.

C. William Henry Harrison.

D. James Madison.

E. George Washington.
A

E. George Washington.

295
Q

One special contribution of Internet-based news is that it 

A. provides the ordinary citizen with an opportunity to be part of the news system.

B. provides much faster reporting.

C. offers more unbiased reporting.

D. prevents rampant editorializing.

E. is more accessible by a larger audience than television or radio news reporting.

A

A. provides the ordinary citizen with an opportunity to be part of the news system.


296
Q

The circulation battle of which two newspapers may have contributed to the outbreak of the Spanish-American War? 

A. Chicago Tribune and Boston Herald

B. Los Angeles Times and New York Times

C. New York Journal and New York World

D. Gazette of the United States and National Gazette

E. San Francisco Examiner and New York Journal

A


C. New York Journal and New York World

297
Q
Yellow journalism contributed to public support for the 

A. Spanish-American War.

B. Civil War.

C. War of 1812.

D. Mexican War of 1848.

E. American Revolution.
A

A. Spanish-American War.


298
Q
33. (p. 320) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ once said, "You furnish the pictures and I'll furnish the war". 

A. Joseph Pulitzer

B. Theodore Roosevelt

C. William Randolph Hearst

D. Woodrow Wilson

E. William McKinley
A


C. William Randolph Hearst

299
Q

The traditional media have “softened” their news by

A. infusing it with more partisan talk shows.

B. infusing it with more stories about celebrities, crime, and the like.

C. infusing it with more coverage of international affairs.

D. focusing on editorials instead of nonpartisan facts.

E. None of these answers is correct.

A

B. infusing it with more stories about celebrities, crime, and the like.


300
Q
The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) has regulatory oversight over which of the following? 

A. radio

B. cable TV

C. Internet content

D. newspapers

E. All these answers are correct.
A


A. radio

301
Q

In the 1960s, presidential candidates

A. received more negative coverage than they do today.

B. were largely ignored by the media.

C. were hounded by the media incessantly.

D. had longer sound bites, on average, in broadcast television newscasts.

E. None of these answers is correct.

A

D. had longer sound bites, on average, in broadcast television newscasts.


302
Q

Which of the following characteristics does the Internet have that traditional media lack? 

A. the ability to take partisan viewpoints

B. the ability to allow readers to interact with news reporting

C. the ability to exercise rights of the First Amendment

D. the ability to report instantaneously on news items

E. All these answers are correct.

A

B. the ability to allow readers to interact with news reporting


303
Q

Which of the following statements has been shown by scholarly research to be true? 

A. Network journalists have a very substantial liberal bias.

B. Network journalists have a very substantial conservative bias.

C. Network journalists have a clear Republican bias.

D. Network journalists have a clear Democratic bias.

E. Network journalists tend to be negative

A


E. Network journalists tend to be negative

304
Q
On-the-scene coverage of a natural disaster is an example of the press's role of 

A. watchdog.

B. signaler.

C. partisan advocate.

D. common-carrier.

E. interpreter.
A

B. signaler.

305
Q

During what decade did the American network news audience change from a growing to a shrinking one?

A. the 1960s

B. the 1980s

C. the 1990s

D. the 1970s

E. The audience has not yet begun to shrink.

A

B. the 1980s


306
Q
Among the following, the news media are usually guided by events that 

A. are timely.

B. affect small numbers of people.

C. occur in other countries.

D. happen to ordinary citizens.

E. are complicated to report.
A


A. are timely.

307
Q

Historically, the American press has shifted from 

A. a political to a journalistic orientation.

B. objectivity to subjectivity.

C. a journalistic to a political orientation.

D. partisan to very partisan.

E. negative to positive.

A

A. a political to a journalistic orientation.


308
Q

During the era of objective journalism, the commitment of newspapers to two-sided news reporting 

A. did not extend to their editorializing.

B. was enshrined in the editorial section.

C. was uniform throughout the sections of a newspaper.

D. deteriorated democracy in the United States.

E. All these answers are correct.

A

A. did not extend to their editorializing.


309
Q

Which of the following does NPR serve as an example of? 

A. the beneficial role of the “equal time” provision of the Communications Act

B. the economic dominance of partisan network media

C. the one true success story of public broadcasting

D. the increasing role that entertainment stories are playing in traditional news reporting

E. the rising power of Internet blogging and independent reporting

A

C. the one true success story of public broadcasting

310
Q

The “long tail” is a phenomenon related to the

A. partisan flavor of talk shows.

B. degree of editorializing by broadcast news.

C. rate of Internet news readership.

D. increase in the age gap of news readership

E. partisan nature of Internet news.

A

C. rate of Internet news readership.