Chapter 38 Practice Questions - Assessment of the Nervous System

Question 1

The nurse teaches an 80-year-old client with diminished peripheral sensation. Which
statement would the nurse include in this client’s teaching?

a. “Place soft rugs in your bathroom to decrease pain in your feet.”
b. “Bathe in warm water to increase your circulation.”
c. “Look at the placement of your feet when walking.”
d. “Walk barefoot to decrease pressure injuries from your shoes.”

Answer 1

c. “Look at the placement of your feet when walking.”

Older clients with decreased sensation are at risk of injury from the inability to sense changes in terrain when walking. To compensate for this loss, the client is instructed to look at the placement of his or her feet when walking. Throw rugs can slip and increase fall risk. Bath water that is too warm places the client at risk for thermal injury.

Question 2

The nurse assesses a client’s recent memory. Which statement by the client confirms that recent memory is intact?

a. “A young girl wrapped in a shroud fell asleep on a bed of clouds.”
b. “I was born on April 3, 1967, in Johnstown Community Hospital.”
c. “Apple, chair, and pencil are the words you just stated.”
d. “I ate oatmeal with wheat toast and orange juice for breakfast.”

Answer 2

d. “I ate oatmeal with wheat toast and orange juice for breakfast.”

Asking clients about recent events that can be verified, such as what the client ate for
breakfast, assesses recent memory. Asking clients about certain facts from the past that can be verified assesses remote or long-term memory. Asking the client to repeat words assesses immediate memory

Question 3

A client is admitted to the emergency department with a probable traumatic brain injury. Which assessment finding would be the priority for the nurse to report to the primary health care provider?

a. Mild temporal headache
b. Pupils equal and react to light
c. Alert and oriented x 3
d. Decreasing level of consciousness

Answer 3

d. Decreasing level of consciousness

A decreasing level of consciousness is the first sign of increasing intracranial pressure, a
potentially severe and possibly fatal complication of a traumatic brain injury (TBI). A mild
headache would be expected for a client having a TBI. Equal reactive pupils and being alert and oriented are normal assessment findings.

Question 4

A nurse asks a client to take deep breaths during an electroencephalography. The client asks, “Why are you asking me to do this?” How would the nurse respond?

a. “Hyperventilation causes vascular dilation of cerebral arteries, which decreases
electoral activity in the brain.”
b. “Deep breathing helps you to relax and allows the electroencephalograph to obtain
a better waveform.”
c. “Hyperventilation causes cerebral vasoconstriction and increases the likelihood of
seizure activity.”
d. “Deep breathing will help you to blow off carbon dioxide and decreases
intracranial pressures.”

Answer 4

c. “Hyperventilation causes cerebral vasoconstriction and increases the likelihood of
seizure activity.”

Hyperventilation produces cerebral vasoconstriction and alkalosis, which increase the
likelihood of seizure activity. The client is asked to breathe deeply 20 times for 3 minutes. The other responses are not accurate.

Question 5

A nurse assesses a client recovering from a cerebral angiography via the right femoral artery. Which assessment would the nurse complete?

a. Palpate bilateral lower extremity pulses.
b. Obtain orthostatic blood pressure readings.
c. Perform a funduscopic examination.
d. Assess the gag reflex prior to eating.

Answer 5

a. Palpate bilateral lower extremity pulses.

Cerebral angiography is performed by threading a catheter through the femoral or brachial artery. The extremity is kept immobilized after the procedure. The nurse checks the extremity for adequate circulation by noting skin color and temperature, presence and quality of pulses distal to the injection site, and capillary refill. Clients usually are on bedrest; therefore, orthostatic blood pressure readings cannot be performed. The funduscopic (eye) examination would not be affected by cerebral angiography. The client is not given general anesthesia; therefore, the client’s gag reflex would not be compromised.

Question 6

When assessing a client who had a traumatic brain injury, the nurse notes that the client is drowsy but easily aroused. What level of consciousness will the nurse document to describe this client’s current level of consciousness?

a. Alert
b. Lethargic
c. Stuporous
d. Comatose

Answer 6

b. Lethargic

The client is categorized as being lethargic because he or she can be easily aroused even
though drowsy. The nurse would carefully monitor the client to determine any decrease in the level of consciousness (LOC).

Question 7

The nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with trigeminal neuralgia affecting cranial nerve V. What assessment findings will the nurse expect for this client?

a. Expressive aphasia
b. Ptosis (eyelid drooping)
c. Slurred speech
d. Severe facial pain

Answer 7

d. Severe facial pain

Cranial nerve (CN) V is the Trigeminal Nerve which has both a motor and sensory function in the face. When affected by a health problem, the client experiences severely facial pain. Expressive aphasia results from damage to the Broca speech area in the frontal lobe of the brain. Ptosis can result from damage to CN III and slurred speech often occurs from eitherdamage to several cranial nerves or from damage to the motor strip in the frontal lobe of the brain.

Question 8

The nurse is performing an assessment of cranial nerve III. Which testing is appropriate?

a. Pupil constriction
b. Deep tendon reflexes
c. Upper muscle strength
d. Speech and language

Answer 8

a. Pupil constriction

CN III is the oculomotor nerve which controls eye movement, pupil constriction, and eyelid movement.

Question 9

A nurse cares for a client who is experiencing deteriorating neurologic functions. The client states, “I am worried I will not be able to care for my young children.” How would the nurse respond?

a. “Caring for your children is a priority. You may not want to ask for help, but you
really have to.”
b. “Our community has resources that may help you with some household tasks so
you have energy to care for your children.”
c. “You seem distressed. Would you like to talk to a psychologist about adjusting to
your changing status?”
d. “Can you tell me more about what worries you, so we can see if we can do
something to make adjustments?”

Answer 9

d. “Can you tell me more about what worries you, so we can see if we can do
something to make adjustments?”

Investigate specific concerns about situational or role changes before providing additional information. The nurse would not tell the client what is or is not a priority for him or her. Although community resources may be available, they may not be appropriate for the patient. Consulting a psychologist would not be appropriate without obtaining further information from the client related to current concerns.

Question 10

A nurse plans care for a 77-year-old client who is experiencing age-related
peripheral sensory perception changes. Which intervention would the nurse include in this client’s plan of care?

a. Provide a call button that requires only minimal pressure to activate.
b. Write the date on the client’s white board to promote orientation.
c. Ensure that the path to the bathroom is free from clutter.
d. Encourage the client to season food to stimulate nutritional intake.

Answer 10

c. Ensure that the path to the bathroom is free from clutter.

Dementia and confusion are not common phenomena in older adults. However, physical impairment related to illness can be expected. Providing opportunities for hazard-free ambulation will maintain strength and mobility (and ensure safety). Providing a call button, providing the date, and seasoning food do not address the client’s impaired sensory perception

Question 11

After teaching a patient who is scheduled for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement indicates client understanding of the teaching?

a. “I must increase my fluids because of the dye used for the MRI.”
b. “My urine will be radioactive so I should not share a bathroom.”
c. “My gag reflex will be tested before I can eat or drink anything.”
d. “I can return to my usual activities immediately after the MRI.”

Answer 11

d. “I can return to my usual activities immediately after the MRI.”

No postprocedure restrictions are imposed after MRI. The client can return to normal
activities after the test is complete. There are no dyes or radioactive materials used for the MRI; therefore, increased fluids are not needed and the client’s urine would not be
radioactive. The procedure does not impact the client’s gag reflex.

Question 12

A nurse performs an assessment of pain discrimination on an older adult. The client correctly identifies, with eyes closed, a sharp sensation on the right hand when touched with a pin. Which action would the nurse take next?

a. Touch the pin on the same area of the left hand.
b. Contact the primary health care provider with the assessment results.
c. Ask the client about current and past medications.
d. Continue the assessment on the client’s feet and legs.

Answer 12

a. Touch the pin on the same area of the left hand.

If testing is begun on the right hand and the client correctly identifies the pain stimulus, thenurse would continue the assessment on the left hand. This is a normal finding and does not need to be reported to the provider, but instead documented in the client’s medical record. Medications do not need to be assessed in response to this finding. The nurse would assess the left hand prior to assessing the feet.

Question 13

A nurse is teaching a client with cerebellar function impairment. Which statement would the nurse include in this client’s discharge teaching?

a. “Connect a light to flash when your door bell rings.”
b. “Label your faucet knobs with hot and cold signs.”
c. “Ask a friend to drive you to your follow-up appointments.”
d. “Use a natural gas detector with an audible alarm.”

Answer 13

c. “Ask a friend to drive you to your follow-up appointments.”

Cerebellar function enables the client to predict distance or gauge the speed with which one is approaching an object, control voluntary movement, maintain equilibrium, and shift from one skilled movement to another in an orderly sequence. A client who has cerebellar function impairment should not be driving. The client would not have difficulty hearing, distinguishing between hot and cold, or smelling.

Question 14

Which statement would the nurse include when teaching the assistive personnel (AP) about how to care for a client with cranial nerve II impairment?

a. “Tell the client where food items are on the breakfast tray.”
b. “Place the client in a high-Fowler position for all meals.”
c. “Make sure the client’s food is visually appetizing
d. “Assist the client by placing the fork in the left hand.”

Answer 14

a. “Tell the client where food items are on the breakfast tray.”

Cranial nerve II, the optic nerve, provides central and peripheral vision. A patient who has cranial nerve II impairment will have decreased visual acuity, so the AP would tell the client where different food items are on the meal tray. The other options are not appropriate for client with cranial nerve II impairment.

Question 15

A nurse prepares a client for lumbar puncture (LP). Which assessment finding would alert the nurse to contact the primary health care provider?

a. Shingles infection on the client’s back
b. Client is claustrophobic
c. Absence of intravenous access
d. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

Answer 15

a. Shingles infection on the client’s back

An LP would not be performed if the client has a skin infection at or near the puncture site because of the risk of cerebrospinal fluid infection. A nurse would want to notify the primary health care provider if shingles were identified on the client’s back. If a client has shortness of breath when lying flat, the LP can be adapted to meet the client’s needs. Claustrophobia, absence of IV access, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea have no impact on whether an LP can be performed.

Question 16

A nurse assesses a patient who is recovering from a lumbar puncture (LP). Which
complication of this procedure would alert the nurse to urgently contact the primary health care provider?

a. Weak pedal pulses
b. Nausea and vomiting
c. Increased thirst
d. Hives on the chest

Answer 16

b. Nausea and vomiting

The nurse would immediately contact the provider if the client experiences a severe headache, nausea, vomiting, photophobia, or a change in level of consciousness after an LP, which are all signs of increased intracranial pressure. Weak pedal pulses, increased thirst, and hives are not complications of an LP.

Question 17

A nurse assesses a client and notes the client’s position as indicated in the illustration below:

How would the nurse document this finding?
a. Decorticate posturing
b. Decerebrate posturing
c. Atypical hyperreflexia
d. Spinal cord degeneration

Answer 17

a. Decorticate posturing

The client is demonstrating decorticate posturing, which is seen with interruption in the
corticospinal pathway. This finding is abnormal and is a sign that the client’s condition has deteriorated. The primary health care provider, the charge nurse/team leader, and other health care team members would be notified immediately of this change in status. Decerebrate posturing consists of external rotation and extension of the extremities. Hyperreflexes present as increased reflex responses. Spinal cord degeneration presents frequently with pain and discomfort.

Question 18

A nurse assesses a client with a brain tumor. The client opens his eyes when the nurse calls his name, mumbles in response to questions, and follows simple commands. How would the nurse document this client’s assessment using the Glasgow Coma Scale shown below?

a. 8
b. 10
c. 12
d. 14

Answer 18

c. 12

The client opens his eyes to speech (Eye Opening: To sound = 3), mumbles in response to questions (Verbal Response: Inappropriate words = 3), and follows simple commands (Motor Response: Obeys commands = 6). Therefore, the client’s Glasgow Coma Scale score is 3 + 3 + 6 = 12.

Question 19

A nurse assesses a client with an injury to the medulla. Which clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to find? (Select all that apply.)

a. Decreased respiratory rate
b. Impaired swallowing
c. Visual changes
d. Inability to shrug shoulders
e. Loss of gag reflex

Answer 19

a. Decreased respiratory rate
b. Impaired swallowing
d. Inability to shrug shoulders
e. Loss of gag reflex

Cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal), X (vagus), XI (accessory), and XII (hypoglossal)
emerge from the medulla, as do portions of cranial nerves VII (facial) and VIII (acoustic).
Damage to these nerves causes decreased respirations, impaired swallowing, inability to shrug shoulders, and loss of the gag reflex. The other manifestations are not associated with damage to the medulla.

Question 20

An 84-year-old client who is usually alert and oriented experiences an acute cognitive decline. Which of the following factors would the nurse anticipate as contributing to this neurologic change? (Select all that apply.)

a. Chronic hearing loss
b. Infection
c. Drug toxicity
d. Dementia
e. Hypoxia
f. Aging

Answer 20

a. Chronic hearing loss
c. Drug toxicity
e. Hypoxia

Acute client conditions that occur in older adults often cause acute confusion and associated emotional behaviors. Infection, drug toxicity, and hypoxia are all acute health problems that can contribute to the client’s cognitive decline. Aging does not cause changes in cognition. If the client had dementia, he or she would not be alert and oriented. Having a chronic hearing loss is not a change in the client’s condition

Question 21

. A nurse assesses a client with a brain tumor. Which newly identified assessment findings would alert the nurse to urgently communicate with the primary health care provider? (Select all that apply.)

a. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 8
b. Decerebrate posturing
c. Reactive pupils
d. Uninhibited speech
e. Decreasing level of consciousness

Answer 21

a. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 8
b. Decerebrate posturing
e. Decreasing level of consciousness

The nurse would urgently communicate changes in a patient’s neurologic status, including a decrease in the Glasgow Coma Scale score; abnormal flexion or extension; changes in cognition or level of consciousness; and pinpointed, dilated, and nonreactive pupils.

Question 22

A nurse assesses an older client. Which assessment findings would the nurse identify as
normal changes in the nervous system related to aging? (Select all that apply.)

a. Long-term memory loss
b. Slower processing time
c. Increased sensory perception
d. Decreased risk for infection
e. Change in sleep patterns

Answer 22

b. Slower processing time
e. Change in sleep patterns

Normal changes in the nervous system related to aging include recent memory loss, slower processing time, decreased sensory perception, an increased risk for infection, changes in sleep patterns, changes in perception of pain, and altered balance and/or decreased coordination.

Question 23

When admitting an acutely confused 20-year-old patient with a head injury, which action should the nurse take?

a. Ask family members about the patient’s health history.
b. Ask leading questions to assist in obtaining health data.
c. Wait until the patient is better oriented to ask questions.
d. Obtain only the physiologic neurologic assessment data.

Answer 23

a. Ask family members about the patient’s health history.

When admitting a patient who is likely to be a poor historian, the nurse should obtain health history information from others who have knowledge about the patient’s health. Waiting until the patient is oriented or obtaining only physiologic data will result in incomplete assessment data, which could adversely affect decision making about treatment. Asking leading questions may result in inaccurate or incomplete information.

Question 24

Which finding would the nurse expect when assessing the legs of a patient who has a lower motor neuron lesion?

a. Spasticity
b. Flaccidity
c. No sensation
d. Hyperactive reflexes

Answer 24

b. Flaccidity

Because the cell bodies of lower motor neurons are located in the spinal cord, damage to the neuron will decrease motor activity of the affected muscles. Spasticity and hyperactive reflexes are caused by upper motor neuron damage. Sensation is not impacted by motor neuron lesions.

Question 25

The nurse performing a focused assessment of left posterior temporal lobe functions will assess the patient for

a. sensation on the left side of the body.
b. voluntary movements on the right side.
c. reasoning and problem-solving abilities.
d. understanding written and oral language.

Answer 25

d. understanding written and oral language.

The posterior temporal lobe integrates the visual and auditory input for language comprehension. Reasoning and problem solving are functions of the anterior frontal lobe. Sensation on the left side of the body is located in the right postcentral gyrus. Voluntary movement on the right side is controlled in the left precentral gyrus.

Question 26

Propranolol (Inderal), a β-adrenergic blocker that inhibits sympathetic nervous system activity, is prescribed for a patient who has extreme anxiety about public speaking. The nurse monitors the patient for

a. dry mouth.
b. bradycardia.
c. constipation.
d. urinary retention

Answer 26

b. bradycardia.

The trigeminal and facial nerves are responsible for the corneal reflex. The optic nerve is tested by having the patient read a Snellen chart or a newspaper. Assessment of pupil response to light and ptosis are used to check function of the oculomotor nerve.

Question 27

Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with impaired functioning of the left glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) and the vagus nerve (CN X)?

a. Withhold oral fluid or foods.
b. Provide highly seasoned foods.
c. Insert an oropharyngeal airway.
d. Apply artificial tears every hour.

Answer 27

a. Withhold oral fluid or foods.

The glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves innervate the pharynx and control the gag reflex. A patient with impaired function of these nerves is at risk for aspiration. An oral airway may be needed when a patient is unconscious and unable to maintain the airway, but it will not decrease aspiration risk. Taste and eye blink are controlled by the facial nerve.

Question 28

An unconscious male patient has just arrived in the emergency department after a head injury caused by a motorcycle crash. Which order should the nurse question?

a. Obtain x-rays of the skull and spine.
b. Prepare the patient for lumbar puncture.
c. Send for computed tomography (CT) scan.
d. Perform neurologic checks every 15 minutes.

Answer 28

b. Prepare the patient for lumbar puncture.

After a head injury, the patient may be experiencing intracranial bleeding and increased intracranial pressure, which could lead to herniation of the brain if a lumbar puncture is performed. The other orders are appropriate.

Question 29

A patient with suspected meningitis is scheduled for a lumbar puncture. Before the procedure, the nurse will plan to

a. enforce NPO status for 4 hours.
b. transfer the patient to radiology.
c. administer a sedative medication.
d. help the patient to a lateral position.

Answer 29

d. help the patient to a lateral position.

For a lumbar puncture, the patient lies in the lateral recumbent position. The procedure does not usually require a sedative, is done in the patient room, and has no risk for aspiration.

Question 30

During the neurologic assessment, the patient is unable to respond verbally to the nurse but cooperates with the nurse’s directions to move his hands and feet. The nurse will suspect

a. cerebellar injury.
b. a brainstem lesion.
c. frontal lobe damage.
d. a temporal lobe lesion.

Answer 30

c. frontal lobe damage.

Expressive speech is controlled by Broca’s area in the frontal lobe. The temporal lobe contains Wernicke’s area, which is responsible for receptive speech. The cerebellum and brainstem do not affect higher cognitive functions such as speech.

Question 31

A 45-year-old patient has a dysfunction of the cerebellum. The nurse will plan interventions to

a. prevent falls.
b. stabilize mood.
c. avoid aspiration.
d. improve memory.

Answer 31

a. prevent falls.

Because functions of the cerebellum include coordination and balance, the patient with dysfunction is at risk for falls. The cerebellum does not affect memory, mood, or swallowing ability.

Question 32

Which nursing diagnosis is expected to be appropriate for a patient who has a positive Romberg test?

a. Acute pain
b. Risk for falls
c. Acute confusion
d. Ineffective thermoregulation

Answer 32

b. Risk for falls

A positive Romberg test indicates that the patient has difficulty maintaining balance with the eyes closed. The Romberg does not test for orientation, thermoregulation, or discomfort.

Question 33

The nurse will anticipate teaching a patient with a possible seizure disorder about which test?

a. Cerebral angiography
b. Evoked potential studies
c. Electromyography (EMG)
d. Electroencephalography (EEG)

Answer 33

d. Electroencephalography (EEG)

Seizure disorders are usually assessed using EEG testing. Evoked potential is used for diagnosing problems with the visual or auditory systems. Cerebral angiography is used to diagnose vascular problems. EMG is used to evaluate electrical innervation to skeletal muscle.

Question 34

Which nursing action will be included in the care for a patient who has had cerebral angiography?

a. Monitor for headache and photophobia.
b. Keep patient NPO until gag reflex returns.
c. Check pulse and blood pressure frequently.
d. Assess orientation to person, place, and time.

Answer 34

c. Check pulse and blood pressure frequently.

Because a catheter is inserted into an artery (such as the femoral artery) during cerebral angiography, the nurse should assess for bleeding after this procedure. The other nursing assessments are not necessary after angiography.

Question 35

Which equipment will the nurse obtain to assess vibration sense in a diabetic patient who has peripheral nerve dysfunction?

a. Sharp pin
b. Tuning fork
c. Reflex hammer
d. Calibrated compass

Answer 35

b. Tuning fork

Vibration sense is testing by touching the patient with a vibrating tuning fork. The other equipment is needed for testing of pain sensation, reflexes, and two-point discrimination.

Question 36

Which information about a 76-year-old patient is most important for the admitting nurse to report to the patient’s health care provider?

a. Triceps reflex response graded at 1/5
b. Unintended weight loss of 20 pounds
c. 10 mm Hg orthostatic drop in systolic blood pressure
d. Patient complaint of chronic difficulty in falling asleep

Answer 36

b. Unintended weight loss of 20 pounds

Although changes in appetite are normal with aging, a 20-pound weight loss requires further investigation. Orthostatic drops in blood pressure, changes in sleep patterns, and slowing of reflexes are normal changes in aging.

Question 37

The charge nurse is observing a new staff nurse who is assessing a patient with a traumatic spinal cord injury for sensation. Which action indicates a need for further teaching of the new nurse about neurologic assessment?

a. The new nurse tests for light touch before testing for pain.
b. The new nurse has the patient close the eyes during testing.
c. The new nurse asks the patient if the instrument feels sharp.
d. The new nurse uses an irregular pattern to test for intact touch

Answer 37

c. The new nurse asks the patient if the instrument feels sharp.

When performing a sensory assessment, the nurse should not provide verbal clues. The other actions by the new nurse are appropriate.

Question 38

Which cerebrospinal fluid analysis result will be most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider?

a. Specific gravity 1.007
b. Protein 65 mg/dL (0.65 g/L)
c. Glucose 45 mg/dL (1.7 mmol/L)
d. White blood cell (WBC) count 4 cells/μL

Answer 38

b. Protein 65 mg/dL (0.65 g/L)

CFS Glucose: 45-80
CFS Protein: 15-45
The protein level is high. The specific gravity, WBCs, and glucose values are normal.

Question 39

39-year-old patient with a suspected herniated intervertebral disc is scheduled for a myelogram. Which information is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider before the procedure?

a. The patient is anxious about the test.
b. The patient has an allergy to shellfish.
c. The patient has back pain when lying flat.
d. The patient drank apple juice 4 hours earlier.

Answer 39

b. The patient has an allergy to shellfish.

Iodine-containing contrast medium is injected into the subarachnoid space during a myelogram. The health care provider may need to modify the postmyelogram orders to prevent back pain, but this can be done after the procedure. Clear liquids are usually considered safe up to 4 hours before a diagnostic or surgical procedure. The patient’s anxiety should be addressed, but this is not as important as the iodine allergy.

Question 40

The priority nursing assessment for a 72-year-old patient being admitted with a brainstem infarction is

a. reflex reaction time.
b. pupil reaction to light.
c. level of consciousness.
d. respiratory rate and rhythm.

Answer 40

d. respiratory rate and rhythm.

Vital centers that control respiration are located in the medulla, and these are the priority assessments because changes in respiratory function may be life threatening. The other information will also be collected by the nurse, but it is not as urgent.

Question 41

Several patients have been hospitalized for diagnosis of neurologic problems. Which patient will the nurse assess first?

a. Patient with a transient ischemic attack (TIA) returning from carotid duplex studies
b. Patient with a brain tumor who has just arrived on the unit after a cerebral angiogram
c. Patient with a seizure disorder who has just completed an electroencephalogram (EEG)
d. Patient prepared for a lumbar puncture whose health care provider is waiting for assistance

Answer 41

b. Patient with a brain tumor who has just arrived on the unit after a cerebral angiogram

Because cerebral angiograms require insertion of a catheter into the femoral artery, bleeding is a possible complication. The nurse will need to check the pulse, blood pressure, and the catheter insertion site in the groin as soon as the patient arrives. Carotid duplex studies and EEG are noninvasive. The nurse will need to assist with the lumbar puncture as soon as possible, but monitoring for hemorrhage after cerebral angiogram has a higher priority.

Question 42

Which assessments will the nurse make to monitor a patient’s cerebellar function (select all that apply)?

a. Assess for graphesthesia.
b. Observe arm swing with gait.
c. Perform the finger-to-nose test.
d. Check ability to push against resistance.
e. Determine ability to sense heat and cold.

Answer 42

b. Observe arm swing with gait.
c. Perform the finger-to-nose test.

The cerebellum is responsible for coordination and is assessed by looking at the patient’s gait and the finger-to-nose test. The other assessments will be used for other parts of the neurologic assessment.