Chapter 32 Thoracolumbar Vertebral Column Flashcards

1
Q

Label the diagram

A

A, T11 vertebra, cranial aspect (top) and lateral aspect (bottom), showing vertebral body, lamina, pedicle, spinous process, vertebral foramen, rib, and articular process. B, L5 vertebra cranial aspect (top) and lateral aspect (bottom), showing vertebral body, lamina, pedicle, spinous process, accessory process, and cranial articular process.

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2
Q

What are A B and C

A

A - Spinal branch

B - Intercostal artery

C - Azygous vein

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3
Q

Label the diagram

A
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4
Q

What structures contribute passive stability to the vertebral column?

A
  • Intervertebral discs (greatest contributor)
  • Zygapophyseal joints
  • Muscle tendon/Ligamentous
    • Three long ligaments = supraspinous ligament, dorsal and ventral longitudinal ligaments
    • Three short ligaments = yellow ligament, interspinous, intertransverse ligaments.
    • Intercapital ligaments also present T2-T11 (lies ventral to dorsal longitudinal ligament. Thought to be one reason why IVDH less common cranial to T11)
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5
Q

Which is usually the anticlinal vertebra?

List 3 specific features of the antclinal vertebra

A

T11

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6
Q

What attached to the accessory process?

A

Tendon of longissimus lumborum

(tendon runs caudalaterally from accessory process to muscle)

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7
Q

How can L1 transverse process be distinguished from the other lumbar ones

A

Shorter

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8
Q

List the 3 anatomic parts to intervertebral disc

A
  • Annulous fibrosis (concentric lamellae of collagen)
  • Nucleus pulposus (GAGs and collagen IV matrix)
  • Cartilaginous end plate (attaches to bony end plate of vertebral body)
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9
Q

List 3 approached to TL vertebral column

A

Dorsal

Lateral

Dorsolateral

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10
Q

List the three compartments that provide stability to vertebral column (e.g. during approach)

Which forces does each structure resist?

When should stabilization be considered?

A
  • Vertebral body – resists bending and axial load.
  • Zygapophyseal joints – resist all forces
  • Intervertebral disc – stabilizing factor against rotation and lateral bending.

Stabilize if:

  • >1 compartments compromised (particularly if bilaterally)
  • traumatically injured (rather than surgically)
  • large dog
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11
Q

What are the landmarks for hemilaminectoy borders?

A

Ventral border = ventral aspect of accessory process.

Dorsal border = base of spinous process.

Cranial and caudal border = base of articular process.

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12
Q

Describe a Funkqvist A, Funqvist B, modified dorsal laminectomy and deep dorsal laminectomy

A
  • Funkquist A = removal of spinous process, laminae, articular processes and half pedicles.
  • Funkquist B = removal of spinous process and laminae.
  • Modified dorsal laminectomy = removal of spinous process, laminae and caudal articular process (medial aspect of pedicles is undercut to enhance exposure but cranial articular process intact. i.e. midway between A and B.
  • Deep dorsal laminectomy = removal of spinous process, dorsal laminae, articular processes and pedicles to level of ventral spinal cord.
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13
Q

Define sensitivity

and specificity

A
  • Sensitivity* = number of positive animals identified by a test divided by the total number of animals with the disease (true-positives/true-positives + false-negatives). Essentially, higher sensitivity leads to a lesser chance of false-negative results.
  • Specificity* = number of animals without disease that test negative divided by the total number of animals without disease (true-negatives/true-negatives + false-positives). In other words, it is the ability of a test to correctly identify those individuals that do not have disease. Or, thought of another way, high specificity implies few false-positives.
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14
Q

List 5 radiographic features of IVDH

A

Features of IVDH include:

  1. Narrowed disc space (highest sensitivity)
  2. Wedging of disc space
  3. Increased articular process overlap
  4. Mineralized material superimposed over intervertebral formaen/vertebral canal
  5. Reduced intervertebral foramen diameter

Vacuum phenomenon = gas radiolucency within intervertebral disc space due to degeneration (uncommonly seen with IVDH, but v specific for this on one report).

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15
Q

What is accuracy of radiography for determining presence of IVD lesion?

A

50-60%

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16
Q

List the three myelographic patterns?

A

extradural, intradural-extramedullary or intramedullary.

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17
Q

List possible adverse effects of myelography

A

seizures (occurs in 10-21.4% of studies, increased risk if large body size or cisternal delivery in one study, although incidence 3%), myelopathy, apnoea, arrhythmia, meningitis, subarachnoid haemorrhage, death.

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18
Q

What is the prognosis for successful outcome in

  • Dogs treated surgically with normal nociception?
  • Dogs treated surgically with absent nociception?
A
  • Dogs treated surgically with normal nociception = 72 - 100%
  • Dogs treated surgically with absent nociception? 50%
    • In this population, length of the intramedullary pattern/length of L2 vertebra ratio on a lateral view of ≥5 was a negative prognostic indicator

Dogs with intact nociception: 72-100% success (voluntary ambulation + urinary continence).

Dogs with intact nociception more likely to return to ambulation (86% success) than those without. Another study found 96% return to ambulation after 3 months (mean 12.9 days), dogs with voluntary motor function returned to ambulation sooner (7.9d) than those without (16.4d, but not statistically significant.) No difference in time to ambulation with age, time of onset à decompression, GA duration, surgery duration, steroids.

Paraplegia and absent nociception: 43-62% return to ambulation.

Variable results re time of onset à time of surgery. One study found that progression to non-ambulatory within 1 hour had poorer outcomes. Dogs that recover nociception within 2 weeks more likely to recover and those without nociception within 2 weeks less likely to. Subdural haemorrhage, increased age and BW may be related to prolonged recovery. One study found 58% regained ambulation, mean time 7.5 weeks (some had urinary/faecal incontinence).

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19
Q

List 2 CT findings of IVDh in additionto the usual radiographic findings

A
  1. Loss of epidural fat opacity surrounding compressed SC
  2. Material within epidural space with density consistent with haemorrhage (compressive material is hyperattenuating relative to Sc, likely due to haemorrhage ad mineral dense intervertebral disc material in majority of dogs).
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20
Q

What is typical appearance of intervertebral disc material on MRI?

A
  • Hypointense on T1W and T2W images (unless non-degenerate nucleus pulposus (common in cervical SC) which is T1W isointense and T2W hyperintense).
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21
Q

HOw can haemorrhage be recognized on MRI?

A

T2* signal void

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22
Q

What are typical CSFfindings indogs with IVDH?

A
  • Rarely pleocytosis, if present then mild, usually neutrophilic (if from cisterna), lymphocytic (if lumbar)
  • Elevated protein
23
Q

List 3 steps in medical management of Tl IVDD

What is the reported success rate in ambulatory animals?

And non-ambulatory?

A
  1. Rest
  2. Analgesia/anti-inflammatories
  3. Physio
  4. (Autologous stem cell (olfactory glial cells) therapy, and use of anti-oxidants being investigated)
  • Ambulatory animals 82-88% success
  • Non-ambulatory animals 43-51% success
24
Q

List 6 potential surgeries for IVDD

A
  1. Hemilaminectomy
  2. Dorsal laminectomy
  3. Pediculectomy
  4. Partial pediculectomy (“mini-hemi)
  5. Lateral SC decompression
  6. Partial lateral corpectomy.
25
Q

When might a partial lateral corpectomy be performed?

A

For chronic IVDE or IVDP

Partial lateral corpectomy (1/4 length of each vertebra):

A) Chronic intervertebral disc herniations can produce a “wrapping” effect: The spinal cord spreads out on either side of the ventral aspect of the vertebral canal around the margins of the protruded material. The dotted line represents the portion of the intervertebral disc and body of the vertebral that will be removed. B) Craniolateral view of lumbar vertebra following partial corpectomy: A lateral slot has been drilled under the herniated intervertebral disc material through the intervertebral disc and the vertebral epiphysis of two adjacent vertebral bodies. Following excision of the protruded intervertebral disc, the spinal cord returns to its normal position. May provide better exposure to ventral canal but possible instability à increased risk of fracture/luxation. Study assessing outcome found immed. post-op improvement in 18.7%, at discharge 52.8%, 4 weeks post op 64.2% and 6 mo post op 91.4% of dogs were ambulatory. Worse pre-op neuro grade more likely to improve post-op.

26
Q

What is the reported recurrence rate afetr surgically managed IVDD?

And medically managed?

A

Recurrence in 15-20% of surgically managed dogs, 40% in medically managed dogs.

(Increased number of calcified discs = increased risk of recurrence (x1.4 in Dachshunds)).

27
Q

What is proposed advantage of fenestration?

Risks?

A

Fenestration advantages inc suspected to reduce recurrent herniation.

However may destabilize canal (i.e. increased riskof herniation elsewhere) and risk of infection, pneumothorax, iatrogenic SC/nerve damage.

28
Q

Aside from fenestration, list 2 other prophylactic techniques currently being investigated

A

Laser ablation

Chemonucleosis

29
Q

Describe the innervation to the bladder:

What type of innervation is provided by each of the following nerves.

What spinal cord segment does each originate from?

Pelvic nerve

Pudendal nerve

Hypogastric nerve

A

Pelvic nerve:

Parasympathetic innervation (motor and sensory) to the detrusor muscle. The preganglionic neurons are located in the sacral spinal cord segments. Preganglionic axons synapse with ganglionic neurons at the pelvic ganglia and within the wall of the bladder.

Pudendal nerves:

Somatic innervation (motor and sensory) to the external urethral sphincter, perineal musculature, and anal sphincter and skin of the perineum (sensory). The neurons that give rise to the pudendal nerve are derived from the sacral spinal cord segments.

Hypogastric nerve:

Sympathetic innervation to the internal urethral sphincter, the pelvic (parasympathetic) ganglia, and the detrusor muscle. The preganglionic neurons are located in L1 through L4 spinal cord segments. Preganglionic axons course through splanchnic nerves to synapse with their ganglionic neurons in the pelvic plexus. Postganglionic sympathetic axons course in the hypogastric nerve. Sympathetic input to the pelvic ganglia inhibits the ganglionic parasympathetic neurons during urine storage. The hypogastric nerve also contains sensory fibers from the bladder wall and is involved in bladder nociception. Descending motor information includes inhibitory and excitatory upper motor neuron input to the detrusor muscle and urethral sphincters.

Normal urine storage and voiding are accomplished by both reflexive and conscious input.61 Urine storage is accomplished by beta-mediated detrusor muscle relaxation, alpha-mediated internal urethral sphincter tone, and cholinergic (nicotinic)-mediated external urethral tone. To empty the urinary bladder, adrenergic input to the bladder is decreased, allowing increased detrusor muscle activation and decreased internal urethral sphincter tone. Cholinergic stimulation via the pelvic (parasympathetic) and pudendal nerves (skeletal innervation) results in detrusor muscle contraction and external urethral sphincter relaxation, respectively.

30
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of UMN bladder

What meds to treat?

A

With damage to the upper motor neurons affecting the urinary bladder, the sacral spinal cord segments supplying the pelvic and pudendal nerves remain intact. The transmission of ascending and descending information to and from the brain is decreased or lost. The result is an upper motor neuron bladder in which there is urinary incontinence with increased detrusor muscle and external urethral sphincter tone, presenting as a large, firm bladder that is difficult to express and may overflow as intraluminal pressure overwhelms the urethral sphincters.

Tx:

  • phenoxybenzamine (0.25 to 0.5 mg/kg q12h to q24h, PO)
  • prazosin (1 mg/15 kg q8h to q24h, PO)

Pharmacologic intervention targets relaxation of the internal urethral sphincter and may include alpha-adrenergic antagonists. Prazosin is advantageous in that it has a more rapid onset and is more specific for alpha-1 receptors. Both may cause hypotension.

31
Q

How is bladder atony treated?

i.e. secondary to UMN bladder

A

Parasympathomimetic such as bethanechol (2.5 to 25 mg total dose q8h, PO) may be used in addition to an alpha-1-adrenergic antagonist after therapeutic levels of the alpha-1-adrenergic antagonist have been reached. Bethanechol may cause vomiting, diarrhea, excessive salivation, and anorexia. Phenoxybenzamine has a slow therapeutic onset and may take several days to demonstrate clinical efficacy.

32
Q

Describe pathophysiology of LMN bladder

A

Injury to the preganglionic parasympathetic neurons in the sacral spinal cord segments, their nerve roots, spinal nerves, or pelvic and pudendal nerves results in decreased detrusor muscle and external urethral sphincter tone, presenting as a large, soft bladder that is easy to express and overflows with minimal intraluminal pressure. This is referred to as a lower motor neuron bladder. Intervertebral disc herniations as cranial as the L2-L3 articulation may result in a lower motor neuron bladder. The first through fourth lumbar spinal cord segments and the hypogastric nerve may remain intact. This results in loss of the sacral spinal cord segmental reflexes that maintain detrusor muscle and external urethral sphincter tone during urine storage. Some bladder nociceptive information (via the hypogastric nerve) may remain intact; therefore, animals may experience pain associated with overdistention, even in the event of a sacral spinal cord transection injury.

33
Q

Define hemi, block and butterfly vertebra

A
  • Hemivertebra =* incompletely formed vertebra, tend to have wedge shape. Results from failure of ³1 sclerotomes to form during embryogenesis.
  • Block vertebra =* failure of development of intervertebral disc space. Results from failure of vertebral segmentation during early embryonic development.
  • Butterfly vertebra =* sagittal cleft within affected vertebral body
34
Q

What is spina bifida?

A

Failure of laminae to fuse dorsally, often associated with concomitant neural tube malformation, esp meningocoele (meninges herniated through bony defect) or meningioyelocoele (meninges + SC herniated).

Associated with inadeguate dietary folate during development in humans, not found in animals.

35
Q

NAme the three types of spina bifida

A
  • S.B. occulta =* no external evidence.
  • S.B. cystica =* with concurrent meningio-, -myelocoele or myeloschisis (nerve tissue bare with no dermal or meningeal covering).
  • S.B. aperta* = open/dysraphic/myelodyspastic disorders.
36
Q

What is a pilonidal sinus?

A

Pilonidal Sinus (Dermoid sinus) = congenital condition wherein skin fails to completely separate from neural tube –> sinus.

Sinus penetrates deeper tissues to varying degree, some to dura mater. Ridgebacks most commonly reported.

Dx imaging inc fistulogram.

Tx = excision.

37
Q

What is an epidermoid cyst?

A

Epidermoid Cyst = incomplete separation of neuroectoderm from ectodermal tissue –> entrapped ectodermal cells in CNS –> epidermoid cyst/cholesteatoma. L

ined by keratinizing stratified squamous epithelium.

Reported intracranially, or less commonly within SC.

38
Q

What is a SAD?

A

Subarachnoid Diverticula = focal accumulation of CSF within arachnoid membrane or subarachnoid space.

39
Q

What is most common breeds and locations for SAD?

A

Commonly cranial cervical (young, large breed (Rottweiler)) and caudal thoracic (old, small breed (Pug)) spinal cord regions.

40
Q

What is signalment and hx for myelodysplasia (aka spinal dyraphism)?

Tx and prognosis?

A

incomplete/abnormal fusion of neural tube along sagittal plane –> neuro dysfunction. Common in Weimaraner.

C/s = early onset (1-2mo old) non-painful T3-L3 myelopathy. Consistent feature = ‘bunny hopping’.

Lesion microscopic so CT/myelography usually unrewarding. MRI not evaluated.

No treatment, but non painful and not progressive.

41
Q

Which vertebrae have an intercapital ligament?

A

T2 - T11

42
Q

Describe the approach to the dorsal cranial thoracic vertebral colums (T1 - T5)

A
  • Skin
  • SC
  • Dorsal tendinous raphe (if possible, keep supraspinous/nuchal ligament intact)
  • Retract rhomboideus and trapezius
  • Longissimus cervicis, thoracic et lumborum exposed - elevate and retract them
  • If need to exise T1 will compromise nuchal ligament. 3 options
    • cut nuchal ligamnet - clinically fine
    • divide nuchal ligament along midline and preseve continuation to supraspinous ligament
    • ostectomise most dorsal part of spinous process and leave in situ
43
Q

Where does nuchal ligament attach?

A

Originates spine of Axis

Inserts tip of spinous process of T1

(continuous with supraspinous ligament)

44
Q

Which muscle attached to the articualt processes in T6-L6?

A

Multifidus muscle

45
Q

What procedures can be performed via lateral approach? (T10 - L5)

A

Fenestration

Lateral corpectomy

46
Q

What % of FCe cases have recognizable MRI lesions?

A

78%

47
Q

How many consecutive space hemis can be performed without changing vertebral column stability?

A

3 unilateral, 2 bilateral

48
Q

prognostic indicators for ANNPE?

And compared to ischaemic myelopathy?

A
49
Q

Describe dorsal approach to TL vertebral column

A
  • Skin
  • Sc
  • Dorsal TL fascia
  • Elevate multifidus muscle from DSP inc attachments at base of DSP and at articular processes - elevate to level of accessory process
  • Detach tendon of longissimus lumborum from accessory process (T11 - L7)
50
Q

Describe the lateral approach to the vertebral column

Which vertebrae can it be used for?

A

Can be used for T9 - L5 (then ilium in the way)

  • Lateral recumbency
  • Oblique skin inscision from base pf DSP cranially to ventral ilium
  • Sc
  • Superficial and deep thoracolumbar fascia
  • Epaxial musculature identified (serratus dorsalis caudalis, longissimus lumborum, iliocostalis).
  • Count landmarks and feels transverseprocesses - bluntly divide muscles at appropriate level and retract (disc located just cranial to base of transverse process or rib head).
51
Q

Which vertebrae can be accessed via a dorsolateral approach to the TL vertebral column??

What procedures can be performed via this approach?

A

Can access T9-L7

Can perform:

  • Hemi
  • Fenestration
  • Lateral corpectomy
  • Pediculotomy
  • Mini-hemi
52
Q

Describe the dorsolateral approach to TL vertebral column

A
  • Sternal recumbency
  • Para-medial skin inscision
  • Sc tissues
  • Inscise TL fascia
  • Identify intermuscular septum of multifidus and longissimus musculature + dissect
53
Q

What is a pediculectomy?

And a mini-hemi?

A

Pediculectomy is if only pedicle (not articular processes removed) i.e. good if issue centered over vertebral bidy (c.f. disc) only

Mini-hemi is actually a combined pediculectomy over contiguous vertebrae i.e. hemi but with preservation of articular process.