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EXSC 241B Intro To Kinesiology > Chapter 3- Human Anatomy > Flashcards

Chapter 3- Human Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

How many planes are used in anatomical descriptions for identification?

A

3

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2
Q

What are the planes used in anatomic terminology?

A

Median “midsagittal” plane (vertical⬆️⬇️)
Transverse plane (horizontal ⬅️➡️)
Front “coronal” plane (FWD & AFT)

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3
Q

Superior is _____, on the _____ plane.

A

Nearer to the head

Transverse plane ⬆️⬇️

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4
Q

Inferior is _____, on the _____ plane.

A

Nearer to the feet

Transverse plane - vertical ⬆️⬇️

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5
Q

Anterior (ventral) is _____, on the _____ plane.

A

Nearer to the front
Frontal (coronal) plane
(FWD and Aft)

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6
Q

Posterior (dorsal) is _____, on the _____ plane.

A

Nearer to the back

Frontal (coronal) plane

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7
Q

Superficial is _____, on the _____ plane.

A

Nearer to the surface of the body

Any plane?

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8
Q

Deep is _____, on the _____ plane.

A

Farther from the surface of the body

Any plane?

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9
Q

Medial is _____, on the _____ plane.

A 
Nearer to the....
Medial plane (midsagittal)
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10
Q

Lateral is _____, on the _____ plane.

A 
Farther from the....
Medial plane (midsagittal)
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11
Q

What is flexion?

A

Flexion reduces the angle between two bones at a joint.

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12
Q

What is extension?

A

Extension increases the angle between two bones at a joint.

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13
Q

What is Abduction?

A

Movement away from the midline of the body (medial plane)

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14
Q

What is adduction?

A

Movement toward the midline of the body (medial plane)

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15
Q

What is circumduction?

A

The cone of movement occurs when flexion/extension and abduction/adduction movements are combine, but NO rotation is involved.

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16
Q

In circumduction, there is no _____.

A

Rotation

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17
Q

What is pronation?

A

Facing down

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18
Q

Which way is the palm facing if it is supinated?

A

Facing up

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19
Q

What is supination, and on what plane?

A

Superior, facing up

Transverse plane

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20
Q

Palm facing down is _____.

A

Pronation

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21
Q

What is inversion?

A

When the sole of your foot is turned inward towards the medial plane.

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22
Q

What is eversion?

A

When the sole is turned outward or away from the medial plane

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23
Q

What is Doris flexion?

A

Pulling your ankle up

Moving your ankle so that the dorsal surface of the foot moves superiorly

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24
Q

What is plantar flexion?

A

Extending your foot

Draws the foot inferiorly

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25
Q

What is the musculoskeletal system?

A

Composed of 3 distinct yet interdependent components

Bones
Joints
Muscles

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26
Q

What are the 3 components of the musculoskeletal system?

A

Bones
Joints
Muscles

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27
Q

Bones form the _____.

A

Rigid skeletal framework

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28
Q

How do bones move?

A

Around joints

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29
Q

How do joints move?

A

As a result of the forces produced by attaching muscles

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30
Q

Bones act as what?

A

Levers

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31
Q

How many shapes of bone are there?

A

5

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32
Q

What are the 5 bone types?

A 
Long
Short
Flat
Sesamoid 
Irregular
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33
Q

How are sesamoid bones shaped and where?

A

Shaped like a pea

Found in tendons

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34
Q

Bone that are more porous have a smaller proportion of _____ and _____, and greatest _____.

A

Calcium phosphate
Carbonate
Nonmineralized tissue

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35
Q

Bone that has low porosity is called _____.

A

Cortical bone

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36
Q

Cortical bone is less _____ and has a relatively high _____.

A

Less flexible

Resistance to greater stress

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37
Q

What is another name for cancellous bone?

A

Spongy

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38
Q

Spongy bone has a relatively high _____ with more ______.

A

High porosity

More nonmineralized titssue

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39
Q

What structure does spongy (cancellous) bone have, providing what?

A

Honeycomb structure

More flexibility

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40
Q

What are the main components of bone?

A

Calcium carbonate
Calcium phosphate
Collagen
Water

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41
Q

Collagen does what?

A

Give bone it’s characteristic flexibility

Contributes to the bone’s ability to resist pulling/stretching forces

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42
Q

Where is cortical bone found?

A

In long bones required to be stronger and resist greater stress

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43
Q

Where is spongy bone found?

A

Found where shock absorption and a better ability to change shape are important (vertebrae)

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44
Q

In adults and children, long bones contain what type of marrow?

A

Adults- yellow marrow

Children- red marrow

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45
Q

The calcium compounds (calcium carbonate-phosphate) make up what percentage of a bone’s composition?

What do these compounds provide for the bone?

A

60-70%

Increased stiffness, and resistance to pressing or squeezing forces

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46
Q

Children’s bones are less/more pliable than adults?

A

Significantly more

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47
Q

With aging, _____ decreases, increasing _____ of the bone.

A

Collagen

Brittleness

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48
Q

How much water do bones contain?

A

20%

Account for 20-25% of bone mass

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49
Q

Subjected to regular physical activity and habitual loads, bones become _____.

A

More dense

More mineralized

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50
Q

Inactivity can lead to what in bones?

A

Less dense
Less mineralized
Decreased in weight and strength

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51
Q

Reduced mechanical stress upon bones causes _____.

A

Loss of bone mass

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52
Q

How many bones makeup the human skeleton?

A

206

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53
Q

What are the two sections the human skeleton is divided into?

A

Axial skeleton

Appendicular skeleton

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54
Q

The axial skeleton is composed of ____, a total of ______ bones.

A

Skull, vertebrae, and sternum (head, spine, trunk)

80 bones

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55
Q

The appendicular skeleton consists of ______, with a total of _____ bones.

A

Pectoral, pelvic girdle, upper and lower limbs (shoulder, hip, arms, legs)
126 bones

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56
Q

In what type of bones can marrow be found?

A

Typically in long bones

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57
Q

Bones are very ______ for their ______.

A

Strong

Light weight

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58
Q

Why are bones strong given their light weight?

A

As a result of its chemical composition and the roles those compounds play in the bone.

Calcium carbonate & Calcium phosphate
-gives bone stiffness and resistance to pressing or squealing forces

Collagen- flexibility, resistance to stretching/pulling forces

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59
Q

Bones are _____ and _____ than other structures, such as _____.

A

Stronger
More durable
Skin

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60
Q

The presence or absence of different forces can affect the bone how?

A

Size
Shape
Density

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61
Q

Bones become more dense and mineralized when what occurs?

A

Regular physical activity and habitual load

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62
Q

Bones becomes less dense and mineralized when what occurs?

A

Inactivity

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63
Q

The skull is divided into how many parts?

A

2

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64
Q

What are the two major parts of the skull?

A

Calvaria

Facial bones

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65
Q

What is the calvaria?

A

The vault created to protect the brain and brain stem, formed by the curved flat bones.

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66
Q

What bones form the Calvaria?

A 
Frontal
Parietal
Temporal
Occipital
Sphenoid
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67
Q

Which is the most fragile bone that forms the calvaria?

A

Temporal bone

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68
Q

What occurs if the temporal bones is fractured and displaced internally?

A

It can cut the middle meningeal artery resulting in an epidural hemorrhage

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69
Q

What is an epidural hemorrhage?

A

Bleeding between the skull and the meninges (protective covering of the brain)

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70
Q

What is the meninges?

A

Protective covering of the brain

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71
Q

In an epidural hemorrhage, ________ to prevent ________.

A

Bleeding must be stopped quickly

Blood from collecting within the calvaria and compressing the brain, a soft and easily damaged organ.

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72
Q

How many bones compose the Facial Bones?

A

5

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73
Q

What are the bones comprising the Facial Bones?

A 
Nasal (nose)
Lacrimal (drainage of tears)
Zygomatic (cheeks)
Maxilla (upper jaw)
Mandible (lower jaw)
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74
Q

Some fractures across the maxilla can cause what?

A

For the mandible to become separated from the maxilla

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75
Q

How many bones compose the Vertebral Column?

A

Up to 35 bones

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76
Q

How many groups of bone compose the Vertebral column?

A

5

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78
Q

How many bones are cervical vertebrae?

A

7

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79
Q

What are the first two cervical vertebrae named?

A

Atlas (C1)

Axis (C2)

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80
Q

How many thoracic vertebrae are there?

A

12

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81
Q

The thoracic vertebrae begin, top to bottom, beginning and ending with what named identifiers?

A

T1

T12

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82
Q

How many vertebrae compose the lumbar vertebrae?

A

5

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83
Q

The sacrum is composed of what?

A

5 fused vertebrae

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84
Q

The coccyx is composed of what?

A

4-5 fused vertebrae

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85
Q

How are vertebrae arranged?

A

In a cylindrical column interspersed with fibrocartilaginous (intervertebral) discs

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86
Q

The vertebrae form a _______ for the _____.

A

Strong and flexible support

Neck and trunk

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87
Q

The vertebrae is the point of attachment for ______.

A

Back muscles

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88
Q

The Vertebral column protects the ______ and provides _____.

A

Spinal cord and nerves

Essential support for the body and the ability to keep the body erect

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89
Q

Fibrocartilaginous discs are also known as?

A

Intervertebral discs

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90
Q

What do intervertebral discs do?

A

Absorbs shock effectively when the load on the column increases.

Allows the vertebrae to move without causing damage to other vertebrae or the spinal cord.

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91
Q

How many ribs are there?

A

12 pairs

24 ribs

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92
Q

Ribs are composed of ______.

A

Bone and cartilage.

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93
Q

Ribs do what?

A

Give strength to the chest cage

Permit the chest cage to expand

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94
Q

Ribs are what type of bones, shaped how?

A

Flat bones

Curved and slightly twisted

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95
Q

The shape of the ribs effectively does what?

A

Protect the chest area and deflect blows attacking it

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96
Q

What are the five groups of bones in the Vertebral Column?

A 
Cervical (neck) vertebrae
Thoracic (chest) vertebrae
Lumbar (lower Back) vertebrae
Sacrum (midline region of butt)
Coccyx (tail bone)
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97
Q

Which ribs compose the “true ribs”?

A

The upper 7 pairs

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98
Q

Where do true ribs attach?

A

True ribs attach to both the vertebrae and the sternum.

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99
Q

Which ribs compose the “false ribs”?

A

Pairs 8-10

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100
Q

Where do false ribs attach?

A

False ribs attach to the sternum indirectly

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101
Q

Which ribs are the “floating ribs”?

A

Pairs 11 and 12

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102
Q

Where do the floating ribs attach?

A

To the vertebral column only

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103
Q

All 12 rib pairs “articulate” with which vertebrae?

A

The 12 Thoracic vertebrae (T1-T12)

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104
Q

The midline breastbone is called the _____.

A

Sternum

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105
Q

The sternum consists of how many parts?

A

3 parts

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106
Q

What are the 3 parts of the Sternum?

A

Manubrium
Sternal body
Xiphoid process

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107
Q

Which bones articulate with the sternum?

A

The clavicles

Ribs 1-7

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108
Q

The manubrium is where?

A

The top part of the sternum

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109
Q

The sternal body is located where?

A

The mid-section of the sternum

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110
Q

The xyphoid process is located where?

A

The lower part of the sternum

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111
Q

Which bones compose the pectoral girdle?

A

The clavicle and scapula bones

Collar bones and shoulder blades

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112
Q

Which joint is the only bony joint between the axial skeleton and the pectoral girdle?

A

The sternoclavicular joint

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113
Q

What is the sternoclavicular joint?

A

The joint between the sternum and clavicle

The only bony joints connecting the axial skeleton to the pectoral girdle

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114
Q

Clavicle fractures occur often in ______.

A

Falls or collisions during sports or everyday activities

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115
Q

The pectoral girdle is ______ by many ______ that allows for ______.

A

Held to the chest wall
Muscles
Greater upper limb mobility

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116
Q

The humerus is which bone?

A

Shoulder to elbow

117
Q

The bones that is shoulder to elbow, is called what?

A

Humerus

118
Q

From elbow to wrist, there are how many bones? What are their names?

A

2

Radius and Ulna

119
Q

Where is the radius bone located?

A

Wrist to elbow, 1/2 bones, closest to the thumb

120
Q

Where is the ulna bone located?

A

Wrist to elbow, 1/2 bones, closest to the pinky finger

121
Q

When you probate your forearm, what occurs to your radius and ulna?

A

The radius crosses over the ulna

122
Q

What is the “carpus”

A

The wrist

123
Q

The carpus (wrist) is composed of how many bones?

A

8 bones

124
Q

How are the bones of the carpus arranged?

A

2x4

125
Q

The bones that makeup the carpus are called what?

A

Carpals

126
Q

From lateral to medial, the proximal row of carpals consists of which carpals?

A

Scaphoid
Lunate
Triquetral
Pisiform

127
Q

From lateral to medial, the distal row of carpals contains which carpals?

A

Trapezium
Trapezoid
Capitate
Hamate

128
Q

What is the acronym for the bones of the carpus (wrist)?

A

She Likes To Play,

Try To Catch Her

129
Q

What are the bones of the acronym

She Likes To Play,
Try To Catch Her.

A 
Scaphoid
Lunate
Triquetral
Pisiform
Trapezium
Trapezoid
Capitate
Hamate
130
Q

What distal row of carpals connects with what?

A

The 5 metacarpal bones of the hands

131
Q

The5 metacarpal bones of the hand articulate with what?

A

The fingers

132
Q

All digits are made of how many parts?

A

3

133
Q

The parts that make up each finger are called what?

A

Phalanges

134
Q

Each digit of the hand consists of how many phalanges?

A

Fingers - 3

Thumbs - 2

135
Q

What are the three phalanges of the fingers called?

A

Proximal
Middle
Distal

136
Q

The phalanges of the thumbs are called what?

A

Proximal

Distal

137
Q

Porous bones are also called ____?

A

Cortical bone

138
Q

What are two examples of long bones?

A

Femur

Phalanges

139
Q

What are two examples of short bones?

A

Carpals

Tarsals

140
Q

What are two examples of flat bones?

A

Scapula, ribs

141
Q

What is an example of a sesamoid bone?

A

Patella

142
Q

What are two examples of irregular bones?

A

Pelvis

Facial bones

143
Q

Bones are composed of what? What % do they compose?

A

Calcium carbonate/phosphate -60-70%
Collagen - 10-20%
Water - 20%

144
Q

Collagen loss leads to _____.

A

Brittleness of bones

145
Q

What are joints?

A

Point of connection between two or more bones

146
Q

What are ligaments?

A

Strands of connective tissue that hold bones together

147
Q

What do tendons do?

A

Attach muscle to bone

148
Q

What are the three types of joints?

A

Fibrous
Cartilaginous
Synovial

149
Q

Fibrous joints are not _____, but they _____.

A

Mobile

Absorb shock

150
Q

Cartilaginous joints are ______ and _____.

A

Slightly moveable

Absorb shock

151
Q

Synovial joints are identified _____. The ends are covered in _____ with the entire capsule filled with _____.

A

Based upon their shape
Cartilage
Synovial fluid

152
Q

The “origin” of a muscle is _____.

A

The part of the muscle attached closer to the center of the body.

153
Q

The part of the muscle further from the center of the body is called the _____.

A

Insertion

154
Q

What are the 6 types of synovial joints?

A 
Hinge
Pivot
Condyloid
Saddle
Ball & socket
Plane
155
Q

Give an example of a hinge joint.

A

Elbow

156
Q

Give an example of a pivot joint.

A

Vertebra

157
Q

Give an example of a condyloid joint.

A

Metacarpals/phalanges

158
Q

Give an example of a saddle joint.

A

Thumb

159
Q

Give an example of a ball and socket joint.

A

Hip/shoulder

160
Q

Give an example of a plane joint.

A

Wrist

161
Q

The human body is made of how many types of tissue?

A

4

162
Q

What are the 4 types of tissue in the body?

A

Epithelial (skin)
Muscle
Connective- tendons, bones, ligaments
Nervous

163
Q

What mechanical characteristic do bones possess?

A

Stiffness

164
Q

What mechanical characteristic do tendons possess?

A

They are flexible

165
Q

What mechanical character tic do joints possess?

A

Mobility

166
Q

What 5 forces act upon tissue?

A 
Tension (pulling)
Compression (squeezing)
Bending (tension and compression)
Shear (rotation)
Torsion (twisting)
167
Q

What is deformation?

A

Change in shape

168
Q

What is the “elastic region” of tissue structure deformation?

A

The tissues ability to return to original shape after load is removed?

169
Q

What is the plastic region of deformation?

A

Beyond yield point. Increased loads cause permanent deformation.

170
Q

Tissue responds to training load by becoming ____ and _____ within the _____ level.

A

Larger
Stronger
Elastic

171
Q

Stiffness is the resistance to _____.

A

Deformation

172
Q

What is “positive training effect”?

A

Tissue responding to training loads by becoming larger and stronger with the elastic level

173
Q

During treatment, _____.

A

A patient receives care by a health care professional

174
Q

What are two types of preventive care?

A

Strengthening and flexibility

175
Q

Rehabilitation involves _____.

A

A therapist works to restore injured tissue with active participation by the patient in a prescribed rehab program

176
Q

The healing process consists of how many phases?

A

3

177
Q

What are the 3 phases of the healing process?

A

Inflammatory response phase
Fibroblastic repair phase
Maturation-modeling phase

178
Q

The inflammatory phase begins _____ and can last for _____.

A

At the time of injury

Up to 4 days

179
Q

What will help facilitate healing of an injury in the Inflammatory response phase?

A

The injury must be rested and protected.
Ice
Compression
Elevated

180
Q

What does PRICE stand for?

A 
Protect
Rest
Ice
Compress
Elevate
181
Q

The fibroblastic repair phase leads to _____.

A

Scar formation and repair of the injured tissue

182
Q

The Fibrolastic repair phases begins ____ and lasts _____.

A

Within a few hours of injury

Last as long as 4-6 weeks

183
Q

What occurs during the fibroblastic repair phase?

A

Granulation tissue (delicate connective tissue) forms to fill the gaps in the injured area. Fibroblasts produce collagen fibers that are deposited through the forming scar.

184
Q

What subsides in the fibroblastic repair phase?

A

Signs and symptoms seen from the inflammatory response phase

185
Q

During fibroblastic repair phase, what is important to introduce?

A

Controlled rehab-specific exercises designed to increase ROM and strength

This helps break down scar tissue

186
Q

What methods exist to breakdown scar tissue?

A

Exercise
Massage
Ultrasound

187
Q

What is the maturation-remodeling phase?

A

A long term process of realigning scar tissue to function normally.

188
Q

The Maturation-modeling phase begins ____ and may last _____. What is included in this phase of the healing process?

A

May begin after 3 weeks
Years
Sport specific skills

189
Q

What are the 4 types of soft tissue injuries?

A

Contusions
Strains
Sprain
Dislocations

190
Q

What is a contusion?

A

Bruises

191
Q

What is a strain?

A

Strains occur to muscles and tendons and can range in severity from a stretch to a tear

192
Q

What is a sprain?

A

A sprain occurs to ligaments

193
Q

What is a common type of sprain in athletes? What is the most common subcategory?

A

Ankle sprains

Lateral ankle sprain

194
Q

What is a lateral ankle sprain?

A

Inversion sprains occur when stress is applied

195
Q

Strains occur to _____, ranging from a _____ to a _____.

A

Muscle and tendons
Stretch
Tear

196
Q

Sprains occur to _____.

A

Ligaments

197
Q

What are dislocations?

A

The joint is pushed beyond it normal limits causing the just int surfaces to come apart

198
Q

What is subluxation?

A

Partial dislocation

199
Q

How many types of fractures are there?

A

4

200
Q

What are the 4 types of fractures?

A

Simple fracture
Compound fracture
Stress fracture
Avulsion fracture

201
Q

What is a simple fracture?

A

Fracture stays within the surrounding soft tissue, skin.

202
Q

What is a compound fracture?

A

A fracture protruding from the skin

203
Q

What is a stress fracture?

A

The bones are fractured but not separated.

204
Q

How do stress fractures occur?

A

Repeated low magnitude training loads

Results from low magnitude forces beginning with a small disruption of the outer layers of the cortical bone. If stress continues, a complete fracture may occur.

205
Q

What are avulsion fractures?

A

Tendon or ligament pull a small piece of bone away at it’sattachments

206
Q

What is a concussion?

A

Injury to the brain due to violent shaking or jarring action of the head (impact injuries)

207
Q

What are concussion protocols?

A

Guidelines that must be met before an athlete is allowed to return to play

208
Q

What are 4 injuries caused by overuse?

A

Tendinitis
Bursitis
Stress fractures
Shin splints

209
Q

Stress fractures: if stress continues, what may occur?

A

A complete fracture

210
Q

What are shin splints?

What causes it?

A

Pain along the anterior ridge of the tibia

Due to inflammation of the interosseous membrane

211
Q

How do you determine between a shin splints and stress fractures?

A

X-ray or bone scan

212
Q

What are 5 things necessary for injury protection?

A 
Protective equipment
Warming up and cooling down
Keeping flexible
Eating right/staying hydrated
Getting enough rest
213
Q

What is tendinitis?

A

Inflammation of a tendon. It will become weak and may exhibit degeneration.

214
Q

What are common examples of tendinitis?

A

Tennis elbow (lateral epicondyle of the humerus)

Golfers Elbow (medial epicondyle of humerus)

Jumper’s Knee (patellar tendon)(patellar tendinitis)

215
Q

What is bursitis?

A

Inflammation of the bursae

216
Q

How many bursae are in the body?

A

Over 150

217
Q

What are bursae?

A

Tiny fluid-filled sacs

218
Q

What is the function of bursae?

A

To lubricate and cushion pressure points between bones and tendons

219
Q

What is shoulder impingement?

A

Inflamed bursae or rotator cuff between the acromion (lateral point of clavicle) and the head of the humerus

220
Q

Bursitis is most common where?

A

Shoulder joints
Elbow joints
Hip joints

221
Q

What occurs when the bursae become inflamed?

A

Movements and direct pressure may cause pain

222
Q

What is another name for tennis elbow?

A

Lateral epicondylitis

223
Q

Tennis elbow affects what?

A

Tendons of the forearm extensor/supinate muscles.
These attach to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus.
Responsible for wrist/finger extension

224
Q

Golfers elbow is also called what?

A

Medial Epicondylitis

225
Q

Golfers elbow is similar to _____, except _____.

A

It occurs on the inside

226
Q

Golfers elbow affects what?

A

The tendons of the forearm flexor/pronators
These attach to the medial epicondyle of the humerus
Responsible for flexing wrist/fingers and pronating forearm

227
Q

Shoulder impingement is most common in whom?

A

Athletes, industrial workers…anyone who uses their shoulders repeatedly

228
Q

What occurs in shoulder impingement?

A

Excess movement of the humeral head combined with lack of space between the humeral head and the acromion causes inflammation in the bursae or rotator cuff tendons in the shoulder

229
Q

What is the cause of shoulder impingement?

A

Muscle imbalances in the shoulder

Weak shoulder depressors
-lower fibers of the trapezius and serratus
anterior compared with the shoulder
elevators (upper fibers of the trapezius)

Tight Pectoralis Major muscles may cause humeral head to rotate anteriorly, increasing potential for shoulder impingement

230
Q

What is an example of a lower trapezius exercise?

A

Incline, reverse back flyes (palms supinated)

231
Q

Grade Three sprains and strains result in what? Often requiring what?

A

Complete rupture of the tissue and often requires surgery

232
Q

First degree strains/sprains are _____.

A

Minor injuries

233
Q

What causes contusions (bruising)?

A

When a compression force crushes tissue

234
Q

What is an anterior cruciate tear?

A

A tear of the ACL ligament (Anterior Cruciate Ligament)

235
Q

What muscles are vulnerable to strains?

A 
Adductors (pulled groin)
Quadriceps
Hamstrings
Hip flexors
Rotator cuff muscles
236
Q

What are the most frequently strained muscles in the body?

A

The hamstrings

237
Q

The pectoral girdle has how many joints?

A

2

238
Q

What are the two joints of the pectoral girdle?

A 
Sternoclavicular joint (sternum and clavicle)
Acromioclavicular joint (acromion process of the scapula and lateral end of clavicle)
239
Q

Where to shoulder separations often occur?

A

At the acromioclavicular joint

240
Q

What is the glenohumeral joint?

A

Joint connecting the humerus with the scapula

241
Q

The glenohumeral joint has a _____, but lacks _____.

A

Wide range of movement

Stability

242
Q

What is the Acronym for the muscles that attach the head of the humerus to the glenoid fossa of the scapula?

A

S- Subscapularis
S- supraspinatus
I- Infraspinatus
T- Teres minor

243
Q

The humerus connects to the _____ of the scapula.

A

Glenoid fossa

244
Q

The integrity of the glenohumeral joint depends on what?

A

Depends on the rotator cuff muscles that SSIT on the greater and lesser tubercles of the humerus and cross the joint to attach to the scapula

245
Q

The elbow has how many joints?

A

3

246
Q

What are the 3 joints of the elbow?

A

Humeroradial joint
Humeroulnar joint
Radioulnar joint

247
Q

The humeroradial joint connects _____.

A

The humerus and head of the radius

248
Q

The humeroulnar joint connects _____.

A

The trochlea of the humerus and the olecranon process of the ulna

249
Q

The radioulnar joint connects _____.

A

Radius and ulna

250
Q

In the elbow, flexion/extension occurs at which joint(s)?

A

Humeroradial

Humeroulnar

251
Q

In the elbow, what joint(s) is used for probation/supination?

A

Radioulnar joint

252
Q

The distal radius articulates with which bones, at which joint?

A

The proximal row of carpals

Radiocarpal joint

253
Q

The radio carpal joint attaches _____.

A

The distal radius to the proximal row of carpals

254
Q

The knuckles are what joints?

A

Metacarpophalangeal joints

255
Q

What movements occur at the metacarpophalangeal joints?

A

Flexion/extension

Abduction/adduction

256
Q

What joints exist between the phalanges of the hand?

A

Interphalangeal joints

257
Q

The pelvic girdle has how many joints?

A

2

258
Q

What are the bones that comprise the hips?

A

Ilium
Pubis
Ischium

259
Q

What is the name of the joints connecting carpals to metacarpals called?

A

Carpometacarpal joint

260
Q

The hips bones (3) together with the _____ form the _____.

A

Sacrum

Pelvic girdle

261
Q

The hips bones (os oxae) consist of how many bones?

A

3

262
Q

What are the three joints of the pelvic girdle?

A 
Symphysis Pubis joint
Sacroiliac joint
Iliofemoral joint (hip joint)
263
Q

The symphysis pubis joint joins what?

A

The two pubic bones, completing the pelvic girdle anteriorly

264
Q

What occurs to allow women to give birth?

A

The symphysis Pubis softens

265
Q

The sacroiliac joint connects what?

A

The sacrum and the paired ilia

266
Q

What is the singular of ilia?

A

Ilium

267
Q

The symphysis pubis joint is ______.

A

Fibrocartilaginous

268
Q

The sacroiliac joint has a _____ and ______ component.

A

Fibrous

Synovial

269
Q

In the sacroiliac joint, minor _____ of the _____ component can result in _____.

A

Displacement
Fibrous
Excruciating pain

270
Q

What is the body’s most stable synovial joint?

A

The hip joint (iliofemoral joint)

271
Q

The type of joints with least mobility are _____.

A

Fibrous and cartilaginous joints

272
Q

What are the three types of joints?

A

Fibrous
Cartilaginous
Synovial

273
Q

The hip, or iliofemoral joint, is located where? What type of joint is it?

A

Between the head of the femur and the cup of the hipbone.

Ball and socket

274
Q

Ball and socket joints allow for what type of movements?

A

Flexion-extension
Abduction-adduction
Circumduction

275
Q

Ball and socket joints have the greatest _____ and ______.

A

Range of motion

Mobility

276
Q

An example of a hip dislocation would involve what type of circumstances and impact?

A

Car accident, passenger, knees driven into dashboard

277
Q

The knee is also know as the ____.

A

Tibiofemoral joint

278
Q

The knee joint is relatively _____.

A

Stable

279
Q

The knee joint has additional support from what 5 things?

A

Menisci (shock-absorbing fibrocartilaginous discs)

Anterior and Posterior ligaments

Later and Medial Collateral ligaments

280
Q

What is the primary action of the knee joint?

A

Flexion-extionsion

281
Q

When flexed, what movements can occur at the knee?

A

Medial and lateral rotation

282
Q

How man rows of tarsal are there in the ______ joint?

A

2

Transverse Tarsal joint

283
Q

Movement between the proximal and distal rows of the transversal tarsal joint causes what?

A

Reversion-inversion of the sole of the foot

284
Q

Inversion/eversion of the foot helps us do what?

A

Walk over uneven ground

285
Q

What aids the tarsals in maintaining the arch of the foot?

A

Plantar ligaments

286
Q

Flat feet is caused by ____, unless you were born with it and it causes no _____.

A

Weak plantar ligaments

Discomfort

EXSC 241B Intro To Kinesiology (4 decks)

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