Chapter 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following factors most likely would cause a CPA to decide not to accept a new audit engagement?
A) The CPA’s lack of understanding of the prospective client’s internal audit function’s audit plan.
B) Management’s disregard of its responsibility to maintain an adequate internal control environment.
C) The CPA’s inability to determine whether related party transactions were consummated on terms equivalent to arm’s-length transactions.
D) Management’s refusal to permit the CPA to perform substantive tests before the year-end.

A

B) Management’s disregard of its responsibility to maintain an adequate internal control environment.

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2
Q

Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the predecessor-successor communications?
A) The successor auditor has no responsibility to contact the predecessor auditor.
B) The successor auditor should obtain permission from the entity before contacting the predecessor auditor.
C) The successor auditor should contact the predecessor regardless of whether the prospective client authorizes contact.
D) The successor auditor need not contact the predecessor if the successor is aware of all available relevant facts.

A

B) The successor auditor should obtain permission from the entity before contacting the predecessor auditor.

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3
Q

Which of the following statements best represents the reason why auditors prepare engagement letters to be signed by their auditees?
A) They provide documentation of management’s responsibility for the financial statements.
B) They document the audit fees and deadlines that have been agreed upon.
C) They communicate and clarify the expectations and responsibilities of both the auditee and the auditor.
D) They help to limit auditor liability in the event of misunderstandings.

A

C) They communicate and clarify the expectations and responsibilities of both the auditee and the auditor.

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4
Q

Which of the following factors would be of least importance to an auditor in determining how much reliance can be placed on the work of internal auditors?
A) The competence and objectivity of the internal audit function.
B) The materiality or significance of the accounts examined by the internal audit function.
C) The audit risk associated with the accounts examined by the internal auditors.
D) The nature of the audit software documentation used by the internal auditors.

A

D) The nature of the audit software documentation used by the internal auditors.

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5
Q

The audit committee of a company which is responsible for the appointment of the independent audit firm should consist of
A) Members of the board of directors who are not officers or employees.
B) Representatives of major equity interests (i.e., common and preferred shareholders).
C) Representatives from management, suppliers, and shareholders.
D) Members of the board of directors who have a financial interest in the company.

A

A) Members of the board of directors who are not officers or employees.

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6
Q

Which of the following would most likely indicate the existence of related parties?
A) Failing to write down inventory to market value just before year-end.
B) Depending on one or a few products for nearly all of a firm’s operating revenues.
C) Borrowing money at an interest rate substantially below the prevailing market rate of interest.
D) Selling goods to a major customer of your main competitor.

A

C) Borrowing money at an interest rate substantially below the prevailing market rate of interest.

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7
Q
Tests of controls include all of the following except:
	A)	Inspection of documents, files, etc.
	B)	Analytical procedures.
	C)	Walkthroughs.
	D)	Observation.
A

B) Analytical procedures.

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8
Q

Which of the following would NOT be a typical supervisory activity for an audit?
A) Perform detailed testing of the accounts payable account.
B) Inform engagement team of the nature, timing, and extent of audit procedures.
C) Review the work of other engagement team members.
D) Evaluate the results of the work and whether it supports the conclusions reached.

A

A) Perform detailed testing of the accounts payable account.

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9
Q

The concept of materiality as it applies to a financial statement audit
A) Relates primarily to the audit fees involved.
B) Generally involves less professional judgment for public companies.
C) Is determined, in part, based on how financial statement users may be influenced in making decisions.
D) Relates primarily to the quantity of audit procedures performed.

A

C) Is determined, in part, based on how financial statement users may be influenced in making decisions.

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10
Q

According to the text, the first step in applying materiality to an audit is
A) To determine tolerable misstatement for each account balance.
B) To determine a materiality level for the overall financial statements.
C) To aggregate the misstatements found in each account and determine their overall affect on the financial statements.
D) To ask management what constitutes a material amount in their business.

A

B) To determine a materiality level for the overall financial statements.

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11
Q

For which laws and regulations does the auditor have the same responsibility as that for errors and fraud?
A) Laws and regulations that have an indirect effect on the determination of financial statement amounts.
B) Laws and regulations that have a material but indirect effect on the determination of financial statement amounts.
C) Laws and regulations that have a direct and material effect on the financial statements.
D) Laws and regulations that have a direct and material effect on the financial statements as well as laws and regulations that have material but indirect effect on the determination of financial statement amounts.

A

C) Laws and regulations that have a direct and material effect on the financial statements.

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12
Q

When establishing an understanding with the entity regarding the terms of the engagement, all of the following should be discussed, except:
A) The engagement letter.
B) The internal audit function.
C) The audit committee.
D) The agreed upon limits on auditor liability for an improper audit.

A

D) The agreed upon limits on auditor liability for an improper audit.

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13
Q

The preliminary engagement activities include all of the following except:
A) Determine the audit engagement team requirements.
B) Ensure that the audit team is independent.
C) Ensure that there is an independent audit committee.
D) Ensure that the audit firm is independent.

A

C) Ensure that there is an independent audit committee.

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14
Q

A dual-purpose test is
A) A procedure that provides evidence about two different account balances at the same time.
B) A procedure that serves as both a test of control and a substantive test of transactions.
C) A procedure that provides evidence about two different accounting periods at the same time.
D) A procedure that serves as both a substantive test of transactions and a substantive test of balances.

A

B) A procedure that serves as both a test of control and a substantive test of transactions.

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15
Q

When likely misstatements are greater than overall materiality, the auditor should
A) Request that the auditee adjust the financial statements.
B) Issue an unqualified opinion.
C) Modify the opinion if the auditee will not adjust the financial statements.
D) Both a and c.

A

D) Both a and c.

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16
Q

What types of inquires about a prospective client should an auditor make to third parties?

A

The auditor should inquire of the prospective client’s bankers and attorneys, credit agencies, and other members of the business community who may have knowledge about the integrity of the prospective client and its management.

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17
Q

Who is responsible for initiating the communication between the predecessor and successor auditors? What type of information should be requested from the predecessor?

A

The successor.
However, the successor auditor should request permission of the prospective client before contacting the predecessor auditor.
questions related to the integrity of management, disagreements with management over accounting and auditing issues, communications to those charged with governance regarding fraud and noncompliance with laws or regulations by the entity, communications to management and those charged with governance regarding significant deficiencies and material weaknesses in internal control, and the predecessor auditor’s understanding of the change in auditors.

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18
Q

What is the purpose of an engagement letter?

A

to formalize the arrangement reached between the auditor and client. It serves as a contract that outlines the responsibilities of both parties and is intended to prevent misunderstandings between the two parties

19
Q

List the important information that the engagement letter should contain

A
  • the responsibilities of the auditor and management,
  • that the audit will be conducted in accordance with auditing standards,
  • that certain types of audit procedures will be conducted and
  • written representations will be obtained from management,
  • and that the audit may not detect all material errors and fraud.
20
Q

What factors should an external auditor use to assess the objectivity and competence of internal auditors?

A

Objectivity:
-Whether the IAF is free of any conflicting responsibilities (e.g., having managerial or operational duties or responsibilities that are outside of the IAF).
• Whether audit committee oversees employment decisions related to the IAF
Competence:
-Whether the IAF is adequately and appropriately resourced relative to the size of the entity and the nature of its operations.
• Whether established policies for hiring, training, and assigning internal auditors to internal audit engagements exist.

21
Q

What is an audit committee and what are its responsibilities?

A

An audit committee is a subcommittee of the board of directors composed of independent members. The audit committee is responsible for the financial reporting and disclosure process.

22
Q

List the matters an auditor should consider when developing an audit plan

A
The   auditor   should   be   guided   by   the   results   of   the   client acceptance/continuance  process,  procedures  performed  to  gain  the understanding  of  the  entity,  and  preliminary  engagement  activities. Additional steps that should be performed include the following:
•   Assess business risks. 
•   Establish materiality.
•   Consider multilocations.
•   Assess the need for specialists.
23
Q

Distinguish between illegal acts that are “direct and material” and those “material but indirect”

A

The first type of illegal acts includes violations of laws and regulations, such as tax laws, that are generally recognized as having a direct and material effect on the determination of financial statement amounts. Other illegal acts are violations of laws or regulations such as the Securities Acts that may have a material but indirect effect on the financial statements.

24
Q

What are some sources to identify transactions with related parties?

A

Inquires of management.
• Minutes of the board of directors meetings.
• Conflict-of-interest statements from management and others.
• Financial and reporting information provided to creditors, investors, and regulators.
• Contracts or other agreement

25
Q

What actions should engagement team members be informed of by partners?

A

Inform engagement team members of their responsibilities, including:
-the objectives of the procedures that they are to perform;
-the nature, timing, and extent of procedures they are to perform; and
-matters that could affect the procedures to be performed or the evaluation of the results of those procedures.
• Direct engagement team members to bring any significant accounting and auditing issues they identify to the attention of the engagement partner

26
Q

3 types of audit test

A

risk assessment procedures, tests of controls, and substantive tests.

27
Q

Risk assessment procedures

A

are used to obtain an understanding of the entity and its environment, including internal control. Examples include inquiries of management and others, analytical procedures, and observation and inspection.

28
Q

Tests of controls

A

are audit procedures performed to test the operating effectiveness of controls in preventing, or detecting and correcting, material misstatements at the relevant assertion level. Examples of tests of controls include inquiries of appropriate management, supervisory, and staff personnel; inspection of documents, reports, and electronic files; walkthroughs; and reperformance of the application of the controls

29
Q

Substantive procedures

A

are performed to detect material misstatements (i.e., monetary errors) in a transaction class, an account balance, and disclosure component of the financial statements. Examples of substantive procedures are (1) tests of details (i.e., substantive tests of transactions and test of details of account balances) and (2) substantive analytical procedures.

30
Q

Why is it important for CPA firms to establish procedures for establishing materiality

A

Professional standards provide very little specific guidance on how to assess what is material to a reasonable user

31
Q

3 Step of determining materiality

A

Step 1: Determine overall materiality
Step 2: Determine tolerable misstatement
Step 3: Evaluate audit findings

32
Q

When would total assets or net revenue be better for calculating overall materiality?

A

Total assets or total revenues may be better bases for entities in certain industries. For example, in a not-for-profit entity, total revenues or total expenses might be more appropriate benchmarks, while for asset-based entities (e.g., mutual funds) net assets might be a better benchmark.

33
Q

Qualitative factors that may affect the materiality %

A
  • Material misstatements in prior years;
  • High risk of fraud;
  • The entity is close to violating a covenant in a loan agreement;
  • Small amounts may cause the entity to miss forecasted revenues or earnings, or affect the trend in earnings;
  • The entity operates in a volatile business environment, has complex operations (multi-locations), or operates in a highly regulated industry
34
Q

4 factors that would cause the auditor to use a lower percentage for tolerable misstatement

A
  • High risk of misstatement within the account balance, class of transaction, or disclosure;
  • Increased number of accounting issues that require significant judgment and/or more estimates with high estimation uncertainty; • A history of material weaknesses, significant deficiencies, and/or a high number of deficiencies in internal control;
  • High turnover of senior management or key financial reporting personnel.
35
Q

Before accepting an audit engagement, a successor auditor should make specific inquiries of the predecessor auditor regarding the predecessor’s:

a. awareness of the consistency in the application of generally accepted accounting principles between periods.
b. Evaluation of all matters of continuing accounting significance.
c. Opinion of any subsequent events occurring since the predecessor’s audit report was issued.
d. Understanding as to the reasons for the change of auditors

A

d.Understanding as to the reasons for the change of auditors

36
Q

A written understanding between the auditor and the entity concerning the auditor’s responsibility for fraud is usually set forth in a(n)

a. Internal control letter.
b. Letter of audit inquiry.
c. Management letter.
d. Engagement letter.

A

d.Engagement letter.

37
Q

If the independent auditors decide that it is efficient to consider how the work performed by the internal auditors may affect the nature, timing, and extent of audit procedures, they should assess the internal auditors’

a. Competence and objectivity.
b. Efficiency and experience.
c. Independence and review skills.
d. Training and supervisory skills

A

a.Competence and objectivity.

38
Q

During the initial planning phase of an audit, a CPA most likely would

a. Identify specific internal control activities that are likely to prevent fraud.
b. Evaluate the reasonableness of the entity’s accounting estimates.
c. Discuss the timing of the audit procedures with the entity’s management.
d. Inquire of the entity’s attorney if it is probable that any unrecorded claims will be asserted

A

c.Discuss the timing of the audit procedures with the entity’s management.

39
Q

As generally conceived, the audit committee of a publicly held company should be made up of

a. Representatives of the major equity interests (preferred stock, common stock).
b. The audit partner, the chief financial officer, the legal counsel, and at least one outsider.
c. Representatives from the entity’s management, investors, suppliers, and customers.
d. Members of the board of directors who are not officers or employees.

A

d.Members of the board of directors who are not officers or employees.

40
Q

When planning an audit, an auditor should

a. Consider whether the extent of substantive procedures may be reduced based on the results of tests of controls.
b. Determine overall materiality for audit purposes.
c. Conclude whether changes in compliance with prescribed internal controls justify relonsider whether the extent of substantive procedures may be reduced based on the results of tests of controls.
b. Determine overall materiality for audit purposes.
c. Conclude whether changes in compliance with prescribed internal controls justify reliance on them.
d. Evaluate detected misstatements.

A

b.Determine overall materiality for audit purposes.

41
Q

Which of these statements concerning illegal acts by clients is correct?

a. An auditor’s responsibility to detect illegal acts that have a direct and material effect on the financial statements is the same as that for errors and fraud.
b. An audit in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards normally includes audit procedures specifically designed to detect illegal acts that have an indirect but material effect on the financial statements.
c. An auditor considers illegal acts from the perspective of the reliability of management’s representations rather than their relation to audit objectives derived from financial statement assertions.
d. An auditor has no responsibility to detect illegal acts by clients that have an indirect effect on the financial statements.

A

a.An auditor’s responsibility to detect illegal acts that have a direct and material effect on the financial statements is the same as that for errors and fraud.

42
Q

Tolerable misstatement is

a. The amount of misstatement that management is willing to tolerate in the financial statements.
b. Materiality for the balance sheet as a whole.
c. Materiality for the income statement as a whole.
d. Materiality used to establish a scope for the audit procedures for the individual account balance or disclosures

A

d.Materiality used to establish a scope for the audit procedures for the individual account balance or disclosures

43
Q

Which of the following would an auditor most likely use in determining overall materiality when planning the audit?

a. The anticipated sample size of the planned substantive tests.
b. The entity’s income before taxes for the period-to-date (e.g., 6 months).
c. The results of tests of controls.
d. The contents of the engagement letter

A

b.The entity’s income before taxes for the period-to-date (e.g., 6 months).