Chapter 29-The Eye Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common cause of irreversible visual loss

A

Age related macular degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Diseases of the orbit tend to push the eye in which direction

A

Forward, known as proptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which direction is the eye pushed in the cause of inflammation of the or neoplasm of the lacrimal gland

A

Proptosis in the inferior and medial direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What direction is the eye pushed in the case of masses in the horizontal rectus muscles

A

Straight forward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the two most common primary tumors of the optic nerve

A

Glioma

Meningioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What direction is the eye pushed in the cause of primary tumors of the optic nerve

A

Axial proptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Graves’ disease proptosis is due to changes in which eye structure

A

Orbit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is proptosis due to Graves’ disease caused by

A

Accumulation of EC matrix proteins and fibrosis in the rectus muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In immunosuppressed, diabetic ketoacidosis patients what can occur in the eye following a sinus infection

A

Infection of the ethmoid sinus can spread to the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is idiopathic orbital inflammation

A

Aka orbital inflammatory pseudo tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Necrosis and degenerating collagen accompanied by vasculitis of the orbit should lead to which diagnosis

A

Wagner granulomatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the general nature of neoplasms of the orbit

A

Vascular in origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the common tumors of the orbit

A
  • capillary hemangioma
  • lymphangioma
  • cavernous hemangioma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Primary orbital malignancies may arise from which orbital layer

A

Any of the them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the most common malignancy fo the eyelid

A

Basal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How common are malignancies of the eyelid

A

Very rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the common locations of basal cell carcinomas of the eyelid

A

Lower eyelid and medial canthus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which condition can sebaceous carcinomas mimic

A

Chalazion

Paget disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Sebaceous carcinomas typically spread to which LN first

A

Submandibular and parotid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Karposi sarcoma may occur in the eyelid in which individuals

A

AIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What color is the Kaposi sarcoma lesion in the eyelid

A

Purple because lesion is in the debris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What color is the Karposi sarcoma lesion in mucous membrane of the conjunctiva

A

Bright red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Primary lymphoma of the conjunctive is most likely to occur in which portion

A

Fornix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Infection with which organism is able to produce significant scarring

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where does pterygium typically originate

A

Conjunctive astride the limbus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Pterygium is formed by what

A

Submucosal growth of Fibrous secular connective tissue that migrates onto the cornea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What threat does a pterygium have on vision loss

A

Not a threat as it does not cross the pupillary axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Why should pyerygium be removed if they are benign

A

Can occasionally included squamous cell carcinoma and melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What can develop as a result of a pinguecula

A

A delle (saucer shaped depression due to focal dehydration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Neoplasms of the conjunctiva tend to develop in which location

A

Limbus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Squamous papillomas and conjunctival intraepithelial neoplasia are associated with which pathogen

A

HPV 16 and 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the carcinoma of the conjunctivitis that follows an aggressive course

A

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Pigmentations in which areas are usually melanomas or their precursors

A

Cornea, fornix, or palpebral fissure

34
Q

A condition with immune complex deposition such as rheumatoid arthritis may cause what condition to the sclera

A

Necrotizing scleritis

35
Q

When well the urea appear a blue color

A

Aka typical Tyndall effect seen following episodes of scleritis

36
Q

What may occur in individuals with high intraocular pressure with regards to the uvea

A

May thin the sclera, resulting in a lesion known as staphyloma, which appears blue.

37
Q

What is responsible for the majority of refraction of the eye

A

Cornea

38
Q

What is the association with Bowmans layer and malignancy

A

Bowmans layer is able to serve as a barrier against penetration of malignancies

39
Q

Under which conditions can corneal vascularization occur

A

Chronic corneal, edema, inflammation and scarring

40
Q

What is the location that Kayser Fleisher rings form

A

Descemet membrane

41
Q

What are the pathogens that can cause corneal ulceration

A

Acanthomebia, herpes simples, herpes zoster, bacteria and fungi

42
Q

What are the general characteristics of corneal degenerations

A

Unilateral or bilateral and are nonfamilial

43
Q

What are the general characteristics of dystrophies

A

Bilateral and familial

44
Q

What are the two common corneal degenerations

A

Calcification band keratopathy

Actinic band keratopathy

45
Q

Which keratopathy is associated with calcium in Bowmans layer

A

Calcific band keratopathy

46
Q

Which condition may increase the risk of calcific band keratopathy

A

RA

47
Q

Which corneal condition develops due to high amounts of UV light

A

Actinic band keratinopathy

48
Q

Which condition is characterized by solar elastosis, yellow hue to the point is looks like oil drops

A

Actinic band keratopathy

49
Q

What is occuring in Keratoconus

A

Thinking of the extasia of the cornea without inflammation or vascularization, resulting in a conical shape rather than spherical

50
Q

What is a conditions seen commonly in keratoconus

A

Corneal hydrops

51
Q

Which conditions are assoacited with Keratoconus

A

Down syndrome, Marfans, atopic disorders

52
Q

What is occurring in Fuchs endothelial dystrophy

A

Loss of endothelial cells resulting in edema and thickening of the stroma

53
Q

Which condition is characterized by guttata (abnormal droplike deposits, and the stoma tacking a ground glass appearance with blurred vision

A

Fuchs endothelial dystrophy

54
Q

When does pseudophakic bolls keratopathy occur

A

Endothelial cell reduction following cataract surgery

55
Q

What are the common causes for a corneal transplant

A
  • Fuchs endothelial (principal indicator)

- pseudophakic bullous keratopathy

56
Q

What do stromal dystrophies usually result in

A

Opacities in the cornea leading to vision compromise (usually painful as well)

57
Q

What is a gene seen commonly in stromal dystrophies

A

TGFB1

58
Q

Which diseases are associated with increased risk for cataracts

A

Systemic diseases(galactosemia, DM, Wilsons, atopic dermatitis), corticosteroids, radiation, trauma

59
Q

What are cataracts

A

Lenticular opacities of the lens

60
Q

What condition distorts the perception of blue hues

A

Accumulation of urochrome pigmentation

61
Q

What is the most common form of glaucoma

A

Primary open angle glaucoma which is resistance to aqueous outflow

62
Q

Which gene mutations are comonly associated with open angle glaucoma

A

MYOC and OPTN

63
Q

Which gene mutation is associated with secondary open angle glaucoma

A

LOX1 gene

64
Q

Granulomatous uveitis is commonly a complication of which condition

A

Sarcoidosis

65
Q

The opthalmic sign of candle wax dripping is characteristic of which condition

A

Granulomatous inflammation and subsequent sarcoidosis

66
Q

What is the most common intraocular malignancy in adults

A

Metastasis to the uvea, or choroid

67
Q

What is the prognosis of metastasis of the eye

A

Short survival, any treatment is palliative

68
Q

What are the common gene mutations in uvea melanomas

A

GNAQ and GNA11

69
Q

What is the common location that a uveal melanomas will spread

A

Liver

70
Q

What is the prognosis of choroidal and ciliary body melanomas related to

A

Lateralization
Cell type
Proliferative index

71
Q

How does the retina respond to injury

A

Gliosis

72
Q

What is the cause of findings in the eye exam such as each night spots (focal choroidal spots), and macular star

A

Malignant hypertension

73
Q

What is the cause of a eye exam finding of “cotton wool spots”

A

Nerve fiber infarct

74
Q

Premature birth is associated with the increased risk of which event in the eye

A

Retinal detachment

75
Q

During a cessation of blood supply to the retina, what color is the fundus

A

White, because the retinal opacity blocks the view

76
Q

A cherry red spot is indicative of which condition regarding vasculature

A

Central retinal artery occlusion

77
Q

What is the difference between the wet and dry forms of age related macula degeneration

A

Wet- presence of angiogenesis

Dry- no angiogenesis

78
Q

What is dry AMD characterized by

A

Diffuse or discrete deposits of Bruch membrane and atrophy of RPE

79
Q

What is wet AMD characterized by

A

Choroidal neovascularization

80
Q

Which gene is mutated in AMD

A

CFH and other complement proteins increased

81
Q

What can predispose an individual to AMD

A

Smoking cigarettes and intense light exposure