Chapter 29: Critical Care If Patients With Respiratory Emergencies Flashcards

1
Q

A client who is 3 days postoperative from extensive abdominal surgery for cancer reports having a difficult time “catching her breath” and having a reddish-purple, nonitchy rash on her chest. After assessing the client, what is the nurse’s best action or response to prevent harm?
A. Ask the client about possible drug allergies
B. Apply oxygen and call the rapid response team
C. Determine when she last received an opioid dose
D. Check the oxygen saturation and encourage her to cough

A

Answer: B
Rationale:
This client is at high risk for developing a pulmonary embolism from a venous thromboembolism (has cancer and recently underwent extensive abdominal surgery). She has two major symptoms of PE, sudden onset shortness of breath and petechiae on her chest. These are significant enough to call the rapid response team because and without assessing oxygen saturation or most recent opioid dose (she has no symptoms of respiratory depression) because time is of the essence in starting appropriate therapy to prevent permanent lung damage or death. Applying oxygen can help improve her gas exchange and should be done immediately. Rash caused by a drug allergy are usually red, raised, itchy, and do not look like petechiae.

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2
Q

Which condition, sign, or symptom does the nurse consider most relevant in assessing a client suspected to have ARDS? Select all that apply.
A. Dyspnea
B. Electrocardiograph shows ST elevation
C. Intercostal retractions
D. PaO2 84% on oxygen at 6 L/minute
E. Substernal pain or rubbing
F. Wheezing on exhalation

A

Answers: A, C, D
Rationale:
The defining feature of ARDS is continued hypoxemia despite vigorous oxygen therapy. The hypoxia and hypoxemia triggers dyspnea and an increased breathing effort seen as intercostal retractions. Substernal pain or rubbing are not associated with ARDS. The pathophysiological problems of ARDS are in the lung tissue and not in the airways. Thus, wheezing is not a manifestation of the disorder. Although the hypoxia stimulates a variety of dysrhythmias, there are no specific ECG changes. ST elevation is associated with an evolving myocardial infarction.

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3
Q

The client is a 5 foot 11 inch tall, 176 lb (80 kg) woman who has been mechanically ventilated at a tidal volume of 400 mL and a respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute for the past 24 hours. The most recent arterial blood gas (ABG) results for this client are:
pH= 7.32; PaO2 = 84 mm Hg; PaCO2 = 56 mm Hg. What is the nurse’s interpretation of these results?

A. Ventilation adequate to maintain oxygenation.
B. Ventilation excessive; respiratory alkalosis present.
C. Ventilation inadequate; respiratory acidosis present.
D. Ventilation status cannot be determined from information presented.

A

Answer: C
Rationale:
The average-size adult female has a normal tidal volume of 400-500 mL. However this client is larger than average and would have a greater tidal volume. Usually the tidal volume is set at 6 to 8 mL/kg of body weight, which would range between 480mL to 640 mL. At the current tidal volume setting this woman is being underventilated with inadequate gas exchange. Not enough oxygen is available and not enough carbon dioxide is being lost leading to respiratory acidosis.

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4
Q

Which symptom or change in assessment of a client with 4 broken ribs on the right side indicates to the nurse the possibility of a tension pneumothorax?
A. Distended neck veins
B. Mediastinal shift toward the left side
C. Right-sided pain on deep inhalation
D. Right side of the chest more prominent than the left

A

Answer: A
Rationale:
Any type of pneumothorax can shift the mediastinum to the unaffected side and cause the affected side to be more prominent. Pain on deep inhalation is related to the broken ribs and not a pneumothorax. The distended neck veins are a strong indicator of the life-threatening tension pneumothorax and immediate action is needed.

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5
Q

A client who is 3 days postoperative from extensive abdominal surgery for cancer reports having a difficult time “catching her breath” and having a reddish-purple, nonitchy, rash on her chest. After assessing the client, what is the nurse’s best action or response to prevent harm?
A. Ask the client about possible drug allergies
B. Apply oxygen and call the rapid response team
C. Determine when she last received an opioid dose
D. Check the oxygen saturation and encourage her to cough

A

Answer: B
Rationale:
This client is at high risk for developing a pulmonary embolism from a venous thromboembolism (has cancer and recently underwent extensive abdominal surgery). She has two major symptoms of PE, sudden onset shortness of breath and petechiae on her chest. These are significant enough to call the rapid response team because and without assessing oxygen saturation or most recent opioid dose (she has no symptoms of respiratory depression) because time is of the essence in starting appropriate therapy to prevent permanent lung damage or death. Applying oxygen can help improve her gas exchange and should be done immediately. Rash caused by a drug allergy are usually red, raised, itchy, and do not look like petechiae.

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6
Q

Which condition, sign, or symptom does the nurse consider most relevant in assessing a client suspected to have ARDS? Select all that apply.
A. Dyspnea
B. Electrocardiograph shows ST elevation
C. Intercostal retractions
D. PaO2 84% on oxygen at 6 L/minute
E. Substernal pain or rubbing
F. Wheezing on exhalation

A

Answers: A, C, D
Rationale:
The defining feature of ARDS is continued hypoxemia despite vigorous oxygen therapy. The hypoxia and hypoxemia triggers dyspnea and an increased breathing effort seen as intercostal retractions. Substernal pain or rubbing are not associated with ARDS. The pathophysiological problems of ARDS are in the lung tissue and not in the airways. Thus wheezing is not a manifestation of the disorder. Although the hypoxia stimulates a variety of dysrhythmias, there are no specific ECG changes. ST elevation is associated with an evolving myocardial infarction.

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7
Q

The client is a 5 foot 11 inch tall, 176 lb (80 kg) woman who has been mechanically ventilated at a tidal volume of 400 mL and a respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute for the past 24 hours. The most recent arterial blood gas (ABG) results for this client are:
pH= 7.32; PaO2 = 84 mm Hg; PaCO2 = 56 mm Hg. What is the nurse’s interpretation of these results?
A. Ventilation adequate to maintain oxygenation.
B. Ventilation excessive; respiratory alkalosis present.
C. Ventilation inadequate; respiratory acidosis present.
D. Ventilation status cannot be determined from information presented.

A

Answer: C
Rationale:
The average-size adult female has a normal tidal volume of 400-500 mL. However, this client is larger than average and would have a greater tidal volume. Usually the tidal volume is set at 6 to 8 mL/kg of body weight, which would range between 480mL to 640 mL. At the current tidal volume setting this woman is being underventilated with inadequate gas exchange. Not enough oxygen is available and not enough carbon dioxide is being lost leading to respiratory acidosis.

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8
Q

Which symptom or change in assessment of a client with four broken ribs on the right side indicates to the nurse the possibility of a tension pneumothorax?
A. Distended neck veins
B. Mediastinal shift toward the left side
C. Right-sided pain on deep inhalation
D. Right side of the chest more prominent than the left

A

Answer: A
Rationale:
Any type of pneumothorax can shift the mediastinum to the unaffected side and cause the affected side to be more prominent. Pain on deep inhalation is related to the broken ribs and not a pneumothorax. The distended neck veins are a strong indicator of the life-threatening tension pneumothorax and immediate action is needed.

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9
Q

An attempt by a primary health care provider to intubate a client for mechanical ventilation is unsuccessful after 45 seconds. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Placing a naso-tracheal tube
B. Assessing for bilateral breath sounds
C. Assessing oxygen saturation by pulse oxymetry
D. Applying oxygen with a bag-valve-mask device

A

Answer: D
Rationale:
During the intubation procedure the client is not breathing. The intubation attempt should last not longer than 15 to 30 seconds. After 45 seconds the client is very hypoxic and assessing oxygen saturation is not necessary. The client needs oxygen as quickly as possible. Assessment for bilateral breath sounds is performed after intubation to determine ensure that the tube is not in one bronchus. Placing a naso-tracheal tube is not a bedside nursing function.

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10
Q

Which actions does the nurse ensure are performed for a client being mechanically ventilated to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)? Select all that apply.
A. Assessing temperature every 4 hours
B. Checking ventilator settings every 4 hours
C. Getting the patient out of bed as soon as prescribed
D. Keeping the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees or above
E. Maintaining the client in the prone position
F. Providing adequate humidification
G. Providing meticulous mouth care every 12 hours
H. Suggesting that the pneumonia vaccine be prescribed

A

Answers: C, D, G
Rationale:
Getting the client out of bed as quickly as possible helps prevent VAP by reducing the risk for fluid stasis in the lungs and for aspiration, a common cause of VAP. Keeping the head of the bed elevated when the client is in bed also reduces the risk for aspiration. Meticulous oral care prevents colonization of bacteria that can move into the respiratory tract. Assessing temperature can help identify VAP early but does not prevent its occurrence. Checking the ventilator settings is crucial to ensure adequate gas exchange and prevent injury but does not prevent pneumonia. The prone position during mechanical ventilation is recommended only for clients with ARDS and does not prevent VAP. Humidifying the oxygen and air received by the client helps prevent drying of the respiratory tract but not VAP. VAP is not caused by the same organisms that cause infectious pneumonia and vaccination against these organisms does not prevent VAP.

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11
Q

A client being mechanically ventilated has all of the following changes. Which changes are most relevant in helping the nurse determine whether suctioning is needed at this time? Select all that apply.
A. Decreased SpO2
B. Elevated temperature
C. Crackles auscultated over the trachea
D. Crackles auscultated in the lung periphery
E. High pressure ventilator alarm sounds
F. Presence of fluid within the endotracheal tube
G. Presence of fluid within the ventilator tubing

A

Answers: A, C, E, F
Rationale:
Decreased SpO2 is often caused by excessive airway secretions and is a major indicator of the nees for suctioning. Crackles over the trachea are caused by fluid in the trachea and suctioning is needed to remove this fluid. Pressure is increased when resistance is present in the airway such as that caused by secretions. Fluid in the endotracheal tube indicates a need for immediate suctioning regardless of how recently it was last performed. Elevated temperature is not related to the need for suction. Crackles in the lung periphery would not be reduced by endotracheal suctioning. Fluid in the ventilator tubing is caused by condensation, not increased secretions in the airway.

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12
Q

Which client will the nurse consider to be at the greatest risk for developing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
A. A 22 year old with a fractured clavicle
B. A 39 year old with uncontrolled diabetes
C. A 56 year old with chronic kidney disease
D. A 74 year old who aspirates a tube feeding

A

CORRECT: D

A 74 year old who aspirates a tube feeding
ARDS is a type of acute respiratory failure with hypoxemia that persists even when 100% oxygen is given, decreased pulmonary compliance, dyspnea, bilateral pulmonary edema, and dense pulmonary infiltrates on x-ray (ground-glass appearance). It often occurs after an acute lung injury such as could result from aspiration of acidic gastric contents. Clients who are receiving tube feedings are at particular risk for lung damage by aspiration.

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13
Q

What is the primary emphasis for the nurse who is providing care to a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) currently in the exudative management stage of the disorder?
A. Assessing the client at least hourly for tachypnea and dyspnea
B. Performing meticulous mouth during mechanical ventilation
C. Assessing for abnormal lung sounds
D. Monitoring urine output to identify multiple organ dysfunction syndrome early

A

CORRECT: A

Assessing the client at least hourly for tachypnea and dyspnea
The exudative phase includes early changes of dyspnea and tachypnea resulting from the alveoli becoming fluid filled and from pulmonary shunting and atelectasis. Early interventions focus on frequent assessment of respiratory status, supporting the client, and providing oxygen.

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14
Q

What is the best first action when the nurse assesses that the respirations of a sedated client with a new tracheostomy have become noisy, and the ventilator alarms indicate high peak pressures but the ventilator tubing is clear?
A. Suctioning the tracheostomy tube
B. Remove the inner cannula of the tracheostomy
C. Humidifying the oxygen source
D. Increasing the percentage of oxygen

A

CORRECT: A

Suctioning the tracheostomy tube
The best first action by the nurse is to suction the tracheostomy tube. This will likely result in clear lung sounds and lower peak pressure. Humidifying the oxygen source may help mobilize secretions but is not an immediate helpful action. Increasing oxygenation does nothing to clear the airway of whatever is making it noisy and is elevating peak pressures. Removing the inner cannula of a ventilated client is contraindicated.

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15
Q

Which action will the nurse take first for a client being mechanically ventilated who begins to pick at the bedcovers?
A. Administering the prescribed sedating drug
B. Explaining to the client that the tube helps with breathing
C. Requesting that the family leave to decrease the client’s agitation
D. Assessing for adequate oxygenation

A

CORRECT: D

Assessing for adequate oxygenation
The best first action by the nurse would be to assess for adequate oxygenation. Restlessness, agitation, anxiety, and tachycardia are early symptoms of hypoxemia. Increasing sedation is not indicated for this client and may mask symptoms such as hypoxemia or worsening respiratory failure. Although the nurse may explain to the client that he or she is intubated, it does not take priority over assessing for hypoxemia. The presence of family members may decrease, not increase, the client’s anxiety.

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16
Q

Which action has the highest priority for the nurse to take to prevent harm for a client being mechanically ventilated with 100% oxygen for the past 24 hours who now has new-onset crackles, decreased breath sounds, and a PaO2 level of 95 mm Hg?
A. Collaborating with the pulmonary health care provider to lower the FiO2 level
B. Assessing cognition
C. Placing the client in the prone position
D. Preparing to suction the client

A

CORRECT: A

Collaborating with the pulmonary health care provider to lower the FiO2 level
Prompt identification and correction of the underlying disease process and potential oxygen toxicity may require delivery of a lower FiO2. The pulmonary health care provider needs to be notified when PaO2 levels are greater than 90 mm Hg. Preventing harm from oxygen toxicity and absorptive atelectasis (new onset of crackles and decreased breath sounds) are essential. Oxygen toxicity is related to the concentration of oxygen delivered, duration of oxygen therapy, and degree of lung tissue present. The need for 100% oxygen delivery indicates that the client continues to require intubation and mechanical ventilation. Suction is performed when rhonchi or noisy breath sounds on the anterior chest below the sternal notch (upper airway) are present. Crackles and diminished breath sounds reflect fluid or poor exchange in the lower airway, not the need for suctioning. Although prone-positioning has been used for clients with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), is not the priority action and this client has not been diagnosed with ARDS.

17
Q

Which action will the nurse take first while caring for a client being mechanically ventilation when the high-pressure alarm sounds?
A. Comparing the ventilator settings with the prescribed settings
B. Turning off the alarm then assess the need for suctioning
C. Notifying the respiratory therapist
D. Auscultating the client’s breath sounds

A

CORRECT: D

Auscultating the client’s breath sounds
The nurse will first listen to the client’s breath sounds. Assessment always begins with the client. A typical reason for the high-pressure alarm to sound is obstruction of airflow through the ventilator circuit, usually indicating the need for suctioning. Other reasons for the high-pressure alarm to be triggered included biting the endotracheal tube or tension pneumothorax. The nurse is concerned with the assessment of the client first, not with the ventilator or ventilator settings and does not turn off the alarms before assessing the client. Although an excessively high tidal volume could contribute to the high-pressure alarm sounding, this is not the nurse’s first concern. The professional nurse possesses the skill to assess ventilator alarms; waiting for the respiratory therapist delays intervention.

18
Q

What is the nurse’s best first action when assessing a client who was intubated a few minutes ago and finds the end-tidal carbon dioxide level is 0 and the SpO2 is 38%?
A. Documenting the finding in the electronic health record as the only action
B. Initiating the Rapid Response Team
C. Removing the endotracheal tube and ventilating the client with a bag-valve-mask
D. Obtaining a different monitor and rechecking the end-tidal carbon dioxide level

A

CORRECT: C

Removing the endotracheal tube and ventilating the client with a bag-valve-mask
A reading of 0 for the end-tidal carbon dioxide and the very low SpO2 level indicate that the endotracheal tube is not in the airway. Immediate action is needed. While it is present in the client’s throat, its presence is preventing air from reaching the airways. Removing the tube and ventilating the client with a bag-valve-mask device is critical to saving the client’s life. The nurse will perform these actions while having another health care worker call the Rapid Response Team.

19
Q

What type of acid–base problem will the nurse expect in a client who is being insufficiently mechanically ventilated for the past 4 hours and whose most recent arterial blood gas results include a pH of 7.29?
A. Respiratory acidosis with an acid excess
B. Metabolic acidosis with an acid excess
C. Respiratory acidosis with a base deficit
D. Metabolic acidosis with a base deficit

A

CORRECT: A

Respiratory acidosis with an acid excess
When a person being mechanically ventilated is insufficiently ventilated respiratory acidosis occurs with retention of carbon dioxide. The retained carbon dioxide is converted to hydrogen ions resulting in an acid excess. Bases have neither been lost nor retained in an acute respiratory acidosis. Insufficient ventilation does not cause any form of metabolic acidosis.

20
Q

The nurse has just received report on a group of clients. Which client is the nurse’s first priority?
A. A 60 year old who was recently extubated and reports a sore throat.
B. A 50 year old being mechanically ventilated who has tracheal deviation.
C. A 30 year old receiving continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) and has intermittent wheezing.
D. A 40 year old receiving oxygen facemask and whose respiratory rate is 24 breaths/min.

A

CORRECT: B

A 50 year old being mechanically ventilated who has tracheal deviation.
The nurse needs to immediately attend to the mechanically ventilated client with a tracheal deviation. This client is showing signs of a tension pneumothorax that could lead to hypoxemia, decreased cardiac output, and shock. The client receiving CPAP has intermittent wheezing, but is not in immediate danger or distress. The client recently extubated has sore throat which is anticipated after intubation. There is no indication this client is in need of immediate intervention. The client wearing oxygen has mild tachypnea, but is not in immediate distress or danger.

21
Q

For which problems will the nurse specifically assess when the low-pressure alarm of a client’s mechanical ventilator sounds? (Select all that apply.)
A. Mucous plugs are in the endotracheal tube.
B. Leak in the ventilator tubing circuit.
C. Client is not breathing.
D. Cuff leak in the endotracheal or tracheostomy tube.
E. Ventilator tubing is under the client.
F. Client is attempting to breathe against the ventilator.

A

CORRECT: B, C, D

Leak in the ventilator tubing circuit.
Common causes of alarms indicating low-pressure include: cuff leaks in the endotracheal or tracheostomy tube, client stops breathing when a ventilator is in the “support” mode, and when a leak is present in the ventilator tubing circuit.
Presence of increased airway secretions or mucous plugs, client coughing or gaging, client fighting or “bucking” the ventilators, anything that decreases airway size (i.e., bronchospasms), presence of a pneumothorax, displacement of the endotracheal tube further into the tracheal bronchial tree, and external obstruction of the tubing result in high-pressure, not low-pressure.

Client is not breathing.
Common causes of alarms indicating low-pressure include: cuff leaks in the endotracheal or tracheostomy tube, client stops breathing when a ventilator is in the “support” mode, and when a leak is present in the ventilator tubing circuit.
Presence of increased airway secretions or mucous plugs, client coughing or gaging, client fighting or “bucking” the ventilators, anything that decreases airway size (i.e., bronchospasms), presence of a pneumothorax, displacement of the endotracheal tube further into the tracheal bronchial tree, and external obstruction of the tubing result in high-pressure, not low-pressure.

Cuff leak in the endotracheal or tracheostomy tube.
Common causes of alarms indicating low-pressure include: cuff leaks in the endotracheal or tracheostomy tube, client stops breathing when a ventilator is in the “support” mode, and when a leak is present in the ventilator tubing circuit.
Presence of increased airway secretions or mucous plugs, client coughing or gaging, client fighting or “bucking” the ventilators, anything that decreases airway size (i.e., bronchospasms), presence of a pneumothorax, displacement of the endotracheal tube further into the tracheal bronchial tree, and external obstruction of the tubing result in high-pressure, not low-pressure.

22
Q

Which ventilator mode does the nurse expect will be set for a client with a tracheostomy who is beginning to take spontaneous breaths at his own rate and tidal volume between set ventilator breaths?
A. Assist-control (AC) ventilation
B. Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
C. Synchronized intermittent ventilation (SIMV)
D. Bi-level positive airway pressure (BiPAP)

A

CORRECT: C

Synchronized intermittent ventilation (SIMV)
Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) is a ventilation mode in which volume and ventilatory rate are preset. It allows spontaneous breathing at the patient’s own rate and tidal volume between the ventilator breaths to coordinate breathing between the ventilator and the client. BiPAP and CPAP are not used for clients who have an endotracheal tube. With assist-control ventilation, the preset tidal volume continues even when the client’s own respiratory rate increases, which could lead to over-ventilation.

23
Q

Which action will the nurse instruct a client with an endotracheal tube to perform during the time the tube is being removed?
A. Hold his or her breath
B. Inhale
C. Cough
D. Exhale

A

CORRECT: D
Exhale
The nurse instructs the client to inhale deeply right before extubation while the nurse deflates the tube cuff. The tube is removed while the client exhales. The nurse instructs the client to cough immediately after extubation.