Chapter 25: Renal Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two most common causes of CKD?

A
  1. DM

2. HTN

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2
Q

T/F:

Most drugs can pass through the glomerular capillaries into the filtrate?

A

True

If the glomerulus is healthy, larger substances, like proteins and protein-bound drugs, are not filtered and stay in the blood

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3
Q

Explain the pathophysiology of renal filtration with regards to what is being reabsorbed where.

A

After blood arrives at the glomerulus and ions, drugs, etc are filtered, the filtrate moves into the proximal tubule where large amounts of water are reabsorbed along with Na, Cl, and Ca. pH is also regulated in this area by H+ and bicarb exchange.

The filtrate then moves onto the descending limb of the loop of Henle. This portion of the tubule is freely permeable to water (meaning water is reabsorbed), but not to Na and Cl causing these ions to concentrate in the filtrate.

The filtrate then moves up the ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This portion of the tubule is freely permeable to Na and Cl, but NOT to water. However, if ADH is present, water WILL be reabsorbed in a dose dependent manner

Second to last, the filtrate moves into the distal convoluted tubule. This portion of the nephron regulates K, Na, Ca, and pH

And finally, the filtrate passes into the collecting duct which is heavily involved with water and electrolyte balance. This is where ADH and aldosterone work. Aldosterone increases Na and water retention and eliminates K. That’s why a aldosterone ANTAGONIST like Aldactone® blocks the action of aldosterone and increases serum K, thus potassium sparing diuretic.

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4
Q

Why are loop diuretics more potent than thiazide diuretics?

A

It has to do with their site of action on the nephron. Loop diuretics inhibit the Na-K pump in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle. Roughly 25% of Na is reabsorbed here and by inhibiting this pump, a significant amount of water is eliminated (b/c so much Na is staying in the filtrate and being eliminated via urine). Thiazide diuretics inhibit the Na-Cl pump at the distal convoluted tubule where only about 5% of Na is reabsorbed which means less fluid is eliminated.

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5
Q

Name some common medications associated with drug induced kidney disease (DIKD)

A
  1. Vanco
  2. AGs
  3. RCM
  4. cisplatin (Platinol®)
  5. tacrolimus (Prograf®)
  6. loop diuretics
  7. NSAIDs
  8. amphotericin B
  9. colistimethate (Colistin®)
  10. cyclosporine (Neoral®, Sandimmune®)
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6
Q

What is BUN? What is SCr?

Besides kidney impairment, what is the primary factor causing an increase in BUN?

A

BUN is blood urea nitrogen. It is a measure of nitrogen that comes from the waste product, urea

SCr is a measure of the creatinine in the blood. Muscles produce creatine, a waste product of muscle metabolism. Creatine is converted to creatinine by the liver which is then pumped back to the kidneys for elimination. Creatinine is freely filtered by the kidneys. With decreasing renal function, SCr increases.

Dehydration

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7
Q

What is CrCl?

A

Creatinine clearance is used as a surrogate to measure GFR (since measuring GFR is cumbersome and difficult) and can be useful in estimating kidney function in certain populations.

Creatinine is actively secreted into the filtrate, which tends to overestimate (by ~10%) the ability of the body to clear creatinine from the body.

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8
Q

Which populations would the Cockcroft-Gault equation not be suitable for?

A
  1. Patients with rapidly changing renal function
  2. ESRD
  3. Very young children
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9
Q

What impact on CrCl would you expect in a patient with liver dysfunction?

A

Since creatine (produced by muscles) is converted to creatinine in the liver, hepatic dysfunction would limit the amount of serum creatinine which may make the CrCl look better than it actually is thereby overestimating renal function.

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10
Q

Review the stages of CKD (based on KDOQI 2002)

A
GFR
Stage 1:   >90 ml/min + kidney damage
Stage 2:  60-89 ml/min
Stage 3:  30-59 ml/min
Stage 4:  15-29 ml/min
Stage 5:  less than 15 ml/min
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11
Q

According to KDIGO, what is the goal BP for patients with kidney disease?

A

According to KDIGO, BP goals for CKD patients depend on presence or absence of proteinuria. Goal BP in CKD is less than 140/90 if no proteinuria is present and less than 130/80 if proteinuria is present.

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12
Q

One of the monitoring parameters of ACEi/ARBs is renal function (Scr/BUN). Why?

A

ACEi/ARBs can increase SCr by 30% during initiation of treatment. This level of increase is acceptable, but any greater than 30% should warrant discontinuing therapy and evaluating the patient

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13
Q

How soon after starting an ACEi/ARB should SCr and K+ be monitored in a patient with CKD?

A

1-2 weeks after initiating

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14
Q

Adjusting doses in renal impairment is essential to providing safe and effective doses of medications. How would you renally adjust an antibiotic that exhibits time-dependent killing? How would you adjust it with concentration-dependent killing

A

Adjust THE DOSE in antibiotics that exhibit time-dependent killing such as beta-lactams. This will decrease the peak (toxicity), but maintain the trough concentrations.

Adjust THE INTERVAL in antibiotics that exhibit concentration-dependent killing, such as AGs or quinolone. This will maintain the peak (efficacy), but decrease the trough

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15
Q

Where is erythropoietin produced?

A

Kidneys

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16
Q

What does erythropoietin do?

A

stimulates production of reticulocytes (immature red blood cells) in the bone marrow

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17
Q

Generally, what two agents are used in combination to treat anemia of CKD?

A
  1. Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESAs)

2. Iron

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18
Q

When is IV iron preferred over oral iron supplementation in CKD?

A

Patients on HD

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19
Q

Hemoglobin levels of CKD patients receiving ESAs should not be corrected to “normal” levels. Why?

A

Increases the risk of CV events, stroke, and death

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20
Q

CKD mineral and bone disorder (CKD-MBD) is common in patients with CKD. What lab abnormalities should be screened for in patients with advanced CKD?

A

PTH, Ca, VitD, phos

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21
Q

Explain in your own words pathogenesis of secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Secondary hyperparathyroidism:
Phos is eliminated by the kidneys. In renal impairment, phos can accumulate which cause bone abnormalities. To compensate for the increased phos, the body releases PTH which acts at bone to increase the serum Ca concentration for Ca to bind phos and eliminate it. Chronically this leads to elevated PTH levels, thus secondary hyperparathyroidism

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22
Q

What is the initial non-pharmacologic treatment of secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Restricting phosphorous in the diet (limit cola, dairy products, chocolate, and nuts)

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23
Q

What is the risk with using aluminum-based phosphate binders in CKD? What treatment duration limitations are there?

A

accumulation of aluminum which is toxic to the nervous system and bone

Treatment is limited to 4 weeks due to risk of accumulation

24
Q

What is the dose limiting effect of calcium-based phosphate binders in CKD?

A

hypercalcemia (particularly in patients taking Vit D b/c of increased Ca absorption)

25
Q

Why may an agent like Auryxia®, an aluminum-free, calcium-free, iron agent not be a first line choice for secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

too expensive

26
Q

Calcium-based agents are first line therapy for hyperphosphatemia of CKD. What type of calcium is PhosLo® and what type of Tums®. Which binds more phosphorous?

A

Calcium acetate (PhosLo®) binds more dietary phosphorous on an elemental calcium basis than calcium carbonate

Calcium carbonate (Tums®)

27
Q

Aluminum-free, calcium-free phosphorous agents utilize iron to bind and eliminate phosphorous. There are two products available: Sucroferric oxyhydroxide (Velphoro®) and Ferric Citrate (Auryxia®). If a CKD patient is receiving IV iron supplementation, should the IV iron dose be adjusted?

A

Only with ferric citrate (Auryxia®) since the body absorbs iron from this product. Iron is NOT absorbed from the sucroferric oxyhydroxide (Velphoro®) product.

28
Q

Lanthanum carbonate is another phosphate binder used in the treatment of hyperphosphatemia of CKD. What counseling advice would you give a patient regarding this product?

A

Take tablets TID with meals and tablets MUST be chewed thoroughly

29
Q

Which phosphate binder causes discolored (black) feces

A

The iron phosphate binders sucroferric oxyhydroxide (Velphoro®) and Ferric Citrate (Auryxia®)

30
Q

Which non-calcium non-aluminum based phosphate binder can lower total cholesterol and LDL in addition to lowering phosphorous?

A

Sevelamer

Sevelamer carbonate (Renvela®)
Sevelamer hydrochloride (Renagel®)

These phosphate binders are not systemically absorbed and can lower TC and LDL by 15-30%

31
Q

What are the three most common side effects of sevelamer?

A

N/V/D (all >20%)

Sevelamer carbonate (Renvela®)
Sevelamer hydrochloride (Renagel®)
32
Q

Secondary hyperparathyroidism from CKD is primarily treated with what?

A

vitamin D

In CKD, the kidney is unable to hydroxylate 25-OH vitamin D to its final active form 1,25-dihydroxy vitamin D. Vitamin D supplementation increases Ca absorption from the gut, and inhibits PTH secretion

33
Q

What are the two primary forms of vitamin D?

A

Vitamin D3 - cholecalciferol = sun exposure

Vitamin D2 - ergocalciferol = dietary source

34
Q

What is the dosing frequency for vitamin D analogs in CKD?

A

Either 3x weekly up to once daily

35
Q

Match the correct brand name to generic:

A. Calcitriol
B. Doxercalciferol
C. Paricalcitol

  1. Hectorol®
  2. Zemplar®
  3. Rocaltrol®
A

A. Calcitriol (Rocaltrol®)
B. Doxercalciferol (Hectorol®)
C. Paricalcitol (Zemplar®)

*Doxercalciferol and paricalcitol are newer vitamin D analogs and cause less hypercalcemia than calcitriol

36
Q

What AEs occur with vitamin D analogs in > 10% of patients

A

N/V/D

37
Q

What is the brand name of Cinacalcet?

A

Cinacalcet (Sensipar®)

This is a calcimimetic which increases sensitivity of calcium-sensing receptor on the parathyroid gland, thereby decreasing PTH, Ca, phosphorus and prevents progressive bone disease

38
Q

What is one major SE of Cinacalcet?

A

Hypocalcemia

39
Q

What is the most common cause of hyperkalemia

A

Decreased renal excretion due to kidney failure

40
Q

Several drugs raise K+ levels. Name some.

A
ACEi
ARB
Bactrim
cyclosporine
tacrolimus
everolimus
mycophenolate
potassium supplements glycopyrrolate
drospirenone-containing OC
aldosterone receptor antagonists
NSAIDs
aliskiren
chronic heparin use
canagliflozin
pentamidine
41
Q

Why are DM patients at higher risk for hyperkalemia

A

Besides the fact that DM patients are often on ACEi or ARBs, these patients have an insulin deficiency which hinders the body’s ability to shift K+ inside the cell

42
Q

What (3) effects can be seen with hyperkalemia?

A
  1. muscle weakness
  2. bradycardia
  3. fatal arrhythmias
43
Q

There are (3) steps to treating hyperkalemia:

  1. Stabilize heart
  2. Move it intracellularly
  3. Remove it from the body

How is each step accomplished?

A
  1. stabilize the heart with IV calcium gluconate
  2. Move K+ intracellularly with insulin + dextrose or glucose. Consider albuterol nebs.
  3. Removing it is a much longer process (hours to days), but can use loop diuretics, sodium polystyrene sulfate (Kayexalate®) or patroller (Veltassa®)
44
Q

Can Kayexelate be administered rectally?

A

Yes, in acute (emergency) treatment of hyperkalemia in addition to the previous steps of stabilizing the heart and moving K+ intracellularly

45
Q

Why should oral Kayexalate® not be mixed with sorbitol?

A

Increases risk of GI necrosis

46
Q

Patiromer (Veltassa®), used for the treatment of hyperkalemia, can bind to many drugs. Patiromer must be separated from other drug administration for how many hours?

A

Give other drugs at least 6 hours before or 6 hours after

47
Q

What are (2) common SE of patiromer (Veltassa®)

A

constipation and hypomagnesemia

48
Q

A patient presents to the ER with severe muscle weakness, bradycardia, and arrhythmia. Patient was found to have a K+ level of 5.9 mEq/L. Your hospital carries Kayexalate® and Veltassa®. Which one should you use in this emergency situation?

A

Kayexelate® is the only choice for acute emergency situations. Valtessa® onset of action is about 7 hours.

49
Q

Why are CKD patients susceptible to metabolic acidosis?

A

The ability of the kidney to generate bicarb decreases as CKD progresses. In the ambulatory setting, treatment of metabolic acidosis is initiated when the serum bicarbonate concentration is less than 22 mEq/L

50
Q

What is Bicitra®?

A

Bicitra® solution or sodium citrate/citric acid is used to replace bicarbonate in metabolic acidosis. It is taken after meals and at bedtime and is metabolized to bicarbonate by the liver

51
Q

Many drugs must be “dose adjusted” with renal impairment. Which of the following must be dose adjusted? (Select all that apply)

A. Nafcillin
B. Most statins
C. Oxacillin
D. Metoclopramide
E. Tigecycline
A

B and D

Doses of most statins and metoclopramide must be renally adjusted. Most beta-lactams require renal dose adjustment, except nafcillin and oxacillin.

52
Q

Which of the following drugs cannot be used in patients with severe renal impairment? (Select all that apply)

A. Alendronate
B. Metformin
C. Tadalafil
D. Ceftriaxone
E. Meperidine
A

A, B, C, E

Ceftriaxone is the only drug listed above that can be used in patients with severe renal impairment

53
Q

Which of the following drugs must have their doses reduced for renal impairment?

A. Aztreonam
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Vancomycin
D. Linezolid
E. Clindamycin
A

A and C

Aztreonam and Vancomycin are the only two drugs listed above that require renal dose adjustment.

Although renal dose adjustment is not necessary for linezolid (Zyvox®) in mild to severe impairment, Lexicomp® states that the two primary metabolites may accumulate in patients with renal impairment with unknown clinical significance. Some warnings for Zyvox® include lactic acidosis, myelosuppression (thrombocytopenia, leukopenia), peripheral and optic neuropathy (with vision loss), and serotonin syndrome. Some common AE of Zyvox® include HA and diarrhea

54
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding treatment of acute DVT and PE in a patient with severe renal impairment? (Select all that apply)

A. Alteplase to lyse the clots
B. Start fondaparinux plus warfarin
C. Start enoxaparin plus warfarin
D. Start heparin plus rivaroxaban
E. Dabigatran
A

C. Start enoxaparin plus warfarin

Alteplase is not a standard treatment for DVT/PE. Fondaparinux, rivaroxaban, and Dabigatran, although all indicated to treat DVT/PE, are all contraindicated in severe renal impairment.

55
Q

Which of the following drugs must be dose-adjusted for renal impairment. (Select all that apply).

A. Allopurinol
B. Rivaroxaban
C. Digoxin
D. Indomethacin
E. Estradiol
A

A, B, C

Allopurinol, rivaroxaban, and digoxin all must be renally dose-adjusted.

Although indomethacin (Indocin®) is an NSAID, there are no renal dose adjustments recommended.

56
Q

Which of the following drugs cannot be used in severe renal impairment? (Select all that apply)

A. Voriconazole IV
B. Glyburide
C. Ibuprofen
D. Rivaroxaban
E. Levothyroxine
A

A, B, C, D

Levothyroxine is the only drug listed above that does NOT require renal dose-adjustment