Chapter 25: OB Flashcards

1
Q

What should you order (diagnostic test) for a female patient who comes in on birth control pills presenting with amenorrhea?

A

Pregnancy test

No form of pregnancy, even tubal ligation is 100% effective

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2
Q

What is the Hegar sign?

A

A sign of pregnancy:
- Softening & compressibility of the lower uterine segment

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3
Q

What is the Chadwick sign?

A

A sign of pregnancy:
- Color change of the vulva, cervix, and vaginal walls
- Often darkening or becoming bluish

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4
Q

{{BLANK}} is termed the “mask of pregnancy” which occurs due to estrogen secretion.

A

Melasma/Chloasma

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5
Q

{{BLANK}} is the linear stripe of hyperpigmented skin across the abdomen.

A

Linea nigra

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6
Q

Why is gestational age typically used to date pregnancy?

A
  • Measures (in weeks) the first day of the patient’s last menstrual period (FDLMP)
  • More reliable calculation (versus embryonic age) as the FDLMP is a rather clear assessment
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7
Q

What are the (4) ways pregnancy is diagnosed?

A
  1. Detection of beta-hCG in blood or serum
  2. Detection of beta-hCG in urine
  3. Detection of gestational sac, yolk sac, or fetal pole by TVUS
  4. Detection of fetal cardiac activity on doppler U/S
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8
Q

Visualization of a gestational sac via TVUS typically correlates with a serum beta-hCG of {{BLANK}}.

A

1,000 to 2,000 mIU/mL

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9
Q

Visualization of a gestational sac via TAUS typically correlates with a serum beta-hCG level of {{BLANK}}.

A

5,000 to 6,000 mIU/mL

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10
Q

What is Naegele’s rule?

A

EDD = LMP - 3 months + 7 days

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11
Q

Provide vitamin & dose in your answer

{{BLANK}} is a vitamin that should be recommended to all women of reproductive age.

A

Folic Acid (Vitamin B9) 400 micrograms/day

For the prevention of neural tube defects

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12
Q

What is the most critical window for the initiation of Folic Acid (vitamin B9) regarding neural tube defects?

A

First trimester

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13
Q

What are the (11) lab tests that are recommended by ACOG to be performed in every pregnant patient on their first prenatal visit?

A
  1. Hgb, Hct, Plt count
  2. Blood type, Rhesus (Rh) factor, Rhesus (Rh) antibody screen
  3. VDRL/RPR test for syphilis
  4. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) screen
  5. HIV
  6. Rubella antibody titer
  7. UA & Urine Culture
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14
Q

How often should a pregnant patient attend antenatal visits?

A
  • q 4 weeks until 28 weeks
  • q 2 weeks until 36 weeks
  • q weekly until 40 weeks
  • bi-weekly until 42 weeks

Note the increase in frequency as the patient nears due date

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15
Q

Fetal heart sounds can be first noted around {{BLANK}} weeks pregnant via doppler U/S.

A

10 to 12 weeks

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16
Q

Fetal heart sounds can be first noted around {{BLANK}} weeks pregnant via auscultation with a normal stethescope.

A

16 to 20 weeks

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17
Q

Around week {{BLANK}} the uterine fundus becomes palpable above the pubic symphysis.

A

Week 12

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18
Q

Fundal height is at the level of the umbilicus at week {{BLANK}}.

A

Week 20

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19
Q

What is the significance of fundal height in regards to pregnancy dating?

A
  • Distance in cm from pubic symphysis to the top of the uterine fundus
  • 1 cm = 1 week
  • Level of umbilicus = 20 weeks gestation
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20
Q

What is a size/date discrepancy?

A

Difference of 2-3 cm between measured fundal height and gestational age

Most common cause –> incorrect EDD

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21
Q

If a size/date discrepancy is noted, you should perform {{BLANK}} to further investigate.

A

U/S

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22
Q

Dating by U/S is more accurate when performe during the {{BLANK}} trimester.

A

First trimester

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23
Q

The most accurate first-trimester estimation of gestational age is achieved by measuring the {{BLANK}}.

A

Crown-rump length (CRL)

Can be performed ~5.5 weeks gestation

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24
Q

Starting at week {{BLANK}}, gestational age is measured via four fetal biometric characteristics: fetal head circumference, biparietal diameter, abdominal circumference, and femur length.

The biparietal diameter is considered the most reliable.

A

Week 14

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25
What are the (4) biometric characteristics used to measure gestational age at **week 14**? Which is considered the most reliable?
- Fetal head circumference - Biparietal diameter (most reliable) - Abdominal circumference - Femur length
26
How is **fetal biparietal diameter (BPD)** measured?
Distance between the outer edge of the proximal skull to the inner edge of the distal skull
27
Which landmarks must be visible to ensure an accurate **fetal biparietal diameter (BPD)** measurement?
- Third ventricle - Thalami | These structures must be present to ensure accuracy
28
{{BLANK}} and {{BLANK}} are the most common factors leading to **symmetric IUGR**.
- Congenital infections - Teratogen exposure
29
What are (4) factors leading to **asymmetric IUGR**? Which is most common?
- Uteroplacental dysfunction (most common) - Preeclampsia - Placental abruption - Twin-twin transfusion
30
{{BLANK}} is the easiest initial screen for fetal well-being.
Non-stress test (NST)
31
How is a **non-stress test (NST)** performed?
- Fetal HR tracing x 20 minutes - Normal ≥ 2 accelerations - Gestational Age ≥ 32 weeks then each acceleration must be ≥ 15 bpm above baseline & last ≥ 15 seconds - Gestational Age ≤ 32 weeks then each acceleration must be ≥ 10 bpm above baseline & last ≥ 10 seconds
32
What makes up a **biophysical profile (BPP)**?
- Non-stress test - U/S | U/S includes breathing, movement, tone, HR, amniotic fluid index
33
What are the factors evaluated during **U/S** when gathering a patient's **biophysical profile (BPP)**?
1. Breathing 2. Movement 3. Muscle tone 4. Heart rate 5. Amniotic fluid index
34
If a fetus scores poorly on **biophysical profile (BPP)** evaluation, then you should perform the {{BLANK}} test. Why?
**Contraction stress test** - Evaluates for uteroplacental dysfunction
35
How is the **contraction stress test** performed? How do you evaluate the test? What if the test is positive?
- **Oxytocin** is given & fetal HR is monitored - If **late decelerations** are seen with each contraction, the test is **positive** - If positive, a **cesarean section** is performed
36
T/F: A **biophysical profile (BPP)** is often used in high-risk pregnancies despite the absence of obvious problems.
True | May be done up to bi-weekly starting at 3rd trimester
37
What is **quickening**? When is it usually felt?
- When first **fetal movements** are **felt** - Usually occurs from week 16 (but can occur as late as week 20)
38
{{BLANK}} can be given during pregnancy to reduce the frequency of **pre-eclampsia** and related adverse outcomes such as preterm birth and growth restriction when given to a women at moderate to high risk of the disease.
**Low dose aspirin (ASA)**
39
What are (4) diseases that may confer an increased risk of **pre-eclampsia** and may prompt the provider to prescribe **low dose aspirin**?
1. Previous pregnancy w/ pre-eclampsia 2. CHTN 3. T1DM/T2DM 4. CKD | Also consider in obesity, FMH of pre-eclampsia, obesity, Age ≥ 35 yo
40
What is post-term pregnancy? Why should you be concerned? How do you treat it?
- Definition: **Gestation > 42 weeks** - Complications: **Dystocia** is more common along with placental insufficiency or meconium aspiration - Tx: **Induction of labor**
41
When is testing of **maternal alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)** most accurate?
Weeks 15 to 20 | Low: down syndrome, fetal demise, inaccurate dating; high: NTD, VWD
42
What should be done if **alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)** is found elevated?
Repeat the test | ~30% of elevated AFP cases are normal upon repeat testing
43
If a patient's **alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)** is found to be elevated after follow up testing, you should have the patient undergo {{BLANK}}.
U/S | Look for NTD or abdominal anomaly
44
If a patient has elevated **alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)** measurements x 2 and **U/S** is uncertain of findings (e.g., NTD), then you should have the patient undergo {{BLANK}}.
Amniocentesis | Can be performed at 15-20 weeks gestation
45
The **first trimester combined test** is performed at {{BLANK}} weeks of gestation. | Includes U/S for nuchal translucency, PAPP-A, beta-hCG
Between **11 to 13 weeks** gestation
46
What is included in the **first trimester combined test**?
- **U/S for nuchal translucency** - Pregnancy-associated plasma protein-A (**PAPP-A**) - **beta-hCG**
47
If a patient has an abnormal **first trimester combined test** then you should perform {{BLANK}} to confirm the diagnosis.
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
48
What are the **full-integrated screening tests**? When are they performed?
- *Weeks 10-13*: **PAPP-A** and **U/S for nuchal translucency** - *Weeks 15-18*: **AFP**, **uE3**, **hCG**, and **inhibin A**
49
How is the **serum-integrated screening test** differentiated from the **full-integrated screening test**?
**Serum-intregrated screening testing** does **not** include U/S to evaluate for nuchal translucency
50
What does the **quadruple test** include? For whom is it used? When?
- Quadruple test: **AFP**, **uE3**, **hCG**, and **inhibin A** - For those that present during the 2nd trimester - **Week 15 to 18 gestation**
51
{{BLANK}} is a new maternal plasma-based test used to evaluate fetal DNA in maternal circulation.
Cell-free fetal DNA (**cfDNA**) testing | Detection rate: 98%, FP rate: 1%, FN rate: 1.4%
52
What is the next step if a woman has a positive screening test for **Down syndrome**? How is this evaluated?
**Karyotype determination** - Weeks 10-15: CVS - Weeks 15-20: amniocentesis
53
What are the S/Sx of a **hydatidiform mole**?
- Very high **hCG** - **Hyperemesis** (& hyperemesis gravidarum) - Expulsion of "grape-like" tissue from the vagina - **Snowstorm** appearance on **U/S** (complete mole)
54
What is the karyotype for: 1. **Complete hydatidiform mole** 2. **Partial hydatidiform mole**
1. 46 XX or 46 XY 2. 69 (usually XXY)
55
How are **hydatidiform moles** treated?
- D&C - Serial hCG measurements | If hCG fails to fall to zero --> invasive mole or choriocarcinoma
56
**Choriocarcinoma** occurring post-hydatidiform mole D&C is best treated via {{BLANK}} or {{BLANK}}.
- Methotrexate (MTX) - Dactinomycin
57
{{BLANK}} are contraindicated during pregnancy as they may cause **yellow or brown teeth** discoloration.
Tetracyclines (TCNs)
58
{{BLANK}} is contraindicated during pregnancy as it causes **phocomelia** (i.e., absence of long bones w/ "flipper-like" appearance of hands).
Thalidomide
59
{{BLANK}} are contraindicated during pregnancy as they are **nephrotoxic** and **ototoxic**.
Aminoglycosides
60
{{BLANK}} is a teratogenic medication known to cause **neural tube defects** and **hypospadias**.
Valproic Acid
61
{{BLANK}} is contraindicated during pregnancy as it can lead to the **masculinization of a female fetus**.
Progesterone
62
{{BLANK}} use during pregnancy can lead to **IUGR**, **low birth weight**, and **prematurity**.
Cigarette
63
{{BLANK}} use during pregnancy can lead to **right heart abnormalities (e.g., Ebstein anomaly)**.
Lithium
64
{{BLANK}} use during pregnancy is contraindicated as it can lead to **craniofacial, limb, and cerebrovascular defects** along with **intellectual disability** and **fetal hydantoin syndrome**.
Phenytoin
65
{{BLANK}} use during pregnancy can lead to **craniofacial defects, IUGR, CNS malformation, and stillbirth**.
Warfarin
66
{{BLANK}} use during pregnancy can lead to **fingernail hypoplasia, craniofacial defects, and fetal hydantoin syndrome**.
Carbamazepine
67
{{BLANK}} use during pregnancy can lead to **CNS, craniofacial, ear, and cardiovascular defects**.
Isotretinoin
68
{{BLANK}}, in excess, can lead to **goiter and neonatal hypothyroidism**.
Iodine
69
{{BLANK}} use during pregnancy can lead to **cerebral infarcts and intellectual disability**.
Cocaine
70
**Diazepam** use during pregnancy can lead to?
Cleft lip/palate
71
{{BLANK}} use during pregnancy can lead to **clear cell vaginal cancer, adenosis, and cervical incompetence**.
Diethylstilbestrol (DES)
72
What is the definition of **macrosomia**?
Fetus/Newborn > 4,000 g (~9 lbs) | The cause is maternal DM until proven otherwise
73
You should treat **infantile hypoglycemia** due to **GDM/DM** via {{BLANK}}.
IV glucose
74
T/F: There is an increase in **respiratory distress** in patients born to mothers with diabetes.
True
75
Why is **insulin** typically the only agent used to treat **DM** of pregnancy?
It does not cross the placenta as oral agents may | Decreased risk of intrapartum fetal hypoglycemia
76
What is the typical treatment of **GDM**? What if that does not work?
1. Lifestyle modifications: **diet & exercise** 2. Insulin
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