Chapter 25: Intro to Oncologic Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

Generally speaking, what alterations results in the formation of cancer?

A
  • Activation of tumor-promoting factors via oncogenes
    or
  • Loss of innate tumor inhibitory effects via tumor suppressor genes (e.g. p53 “guardian of the genome”)
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2
Q

What are the (6) phenotypic characteristics of cancer cells?

A
  • Self-sufficiency in growth signals
  • Insensitivity to anti-growth signals
  • Tissue invasion and metastasis
  • Limitless replicative potential
  • Sustained angiogenesis
  • Evasion of apoptosis
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3
Q

Which forms of neoplasia have confirmed, true genetic heritability in animals?

A
  • Osteosarcoma of Scottish Deerhounds
  • Renal cystadenocarcinoma in GSD
  • Nodular dermatofibrosis in GSD
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4
Q

List (5) biologic carcinogens in animals:

A
  • FeLV and lymphoproliferative diseases
  • Feline sarcoma virus and FSA (must also be infected with FeLV)
  • Papillomavirus in puppies. Papilloma can lead to formation of SCC in rare cases
  • Spircocerca lupi and esophageal sarcomas in dogs
  • Transmissible venereal tumor by direct cellular transmission
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5
Q

List (5) physical carcinogens:

A
  • Asbestos and mesothelioma in humans
  • Injection-site sarcoma in cats
  • Post-trauma ocular sarcomas
  • Microchip-associated FSA
  • TPLO metallurgy and canine OSA
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6
Q

List the four possible mechanisms which can transform genes into oncogenes:

A
  • Retrovirus-mediated transduction
  • Translocation mutation
  • Amplification
  • Proviral insertion
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7
Q

Translation of oncogenes leads to transcription of key proteins such as….

A
  • Growth factors
  • Growth factor receptors
  • Cytoplasmic kinases/Ras
  • Transcription factors
  • Antiapoptotic proteins
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8
Q

What are Ras oncogenes?

A

Lead to production of membrane-associated proteins that have a key role in cell signalling leading to activation of various cell-proliferative pathways

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9
Q

What are the two forms of tumor suppressor genes?

A
  • Gate keepers - Inhibit growth while promoting cell death (eg. p53)
  • Care takers - Ensure DNA repair while maintaining genomic stability

p53 is one of the most common mutations. It is crucial for normal cell cycle and serves as a checkpoint for entry into apoptosis

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10
Q

In general, how do carcinomas, round cell tumors and sarcomas metastasize?

A
  • Carcinomas and round cell tumors via lymphatics
  • Sarcomas via hematogenous routes
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11
Q

How do metastatic cells survive in their new environment?

A
  • Progressive hypoxia due to proliferation (need to be 100-200mcm from capillary bed for continued growth)
  • Hypoxia activates hypoxia-induced factor (HIF1alpha), an oxygen-dependent transcription factor
  • HIF-1a induced transcription of tumor-derived growth factors such as VEGF
  • Growth factors lead to endothelial recruitment and eventual organization in capillaries
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12
Q

What factors need to be considered when choosing a biopsy?

A
  • Invasiveness of procedure
  • Potential for hemorrhage
  • Seeding of tumor cells
  • Will it change the treatment plan
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13
Q

How can nuclear scintigraphy be applied to dogs with OSA? What substance is used for this?

A

Technetium-99m hydromethylene diphosphate used for a whole body scan to detect asymptomatic synchronous or asymptomatic lesions

In one study, 7.8% of 399 dogs with appendicular OSA were diagnosed with a second asymptomatic lesion. Not good candidates for amputation

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14
Q

List some uses of nuclear scintigraphy:

A
  • Technetium-99m hydromethyl diphosphate for OSA to detect multiple lesions or to define margins for limb-sparing
  • Technetium-99m diethylenetriaminepentaacetic acid for GFR prior to nephrectomy
  • Technetium-99m for thyroid tumors to identify metastatic or ectopic disease
  • Indium-111 pentetreotide (somatostatin receptor scan) to identify primary and metastatic lesions in dogs with functional insulinomas
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15
Q

What is a PET-CT?
What are its limitations?

A

A radiopharmaceutical (F-fluorodeoxyglucose; FDG) is transported into and trapped inside tumor cells because it is not utilized in the glycolic pathway. Signal is higher in tumor cells as they have a higher uptake of glucose.

Limitations
- Not all tumors will have increased uptake
- Non-specific (inflammation reacts similarly)
- Not readily available

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16
Q

What size metastatic lesions can be seen on thoracic radiographs and CT?

A
  • 6mm on radiographs
  • 1mm on CT
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17
Q

What are the major potential side effects of doxorubicine and cisplatin?

A
  • Doxorubicine can cause cardiotoxicity
  • Cisplatin can cause nephrotoxicity
18
Q

What are the 4 categories of tumor excision?

A
  • Debulking
  • Marginal
  • Wide
  • Radical
19
Q

What are the general rules for lateral margins of soft tissue sarcomas, MCT and carcinomas?

A
  • Sarcomas and MCT - 2-3cm lateral margins
  • Carcinomas - 1cm usually sufficient
20
Q

A study by Simpson et al revealed what regarding lateral margins for MCT excision?

A
  • All grade 1 MCT were completely excised with 1cm margins
  • Only 75% of grade 2 MCT were completely excised with 1cm margins, increasing to 100% with 2cm margins

2cm margins recommended for grade 1 and 2, not enough data to make recommendations for grade 3 so should aim for 3cm if possible

21
Q

What are the 4 options when incomplete excision of an STS is achieved?

A
  • No treatment
  • Staged resection of the scar
  • Wide scar revision
  • Combination with radiation or chemo

78% of STS reported as incompletely excised do not have any evidence of residual tumor following further resection

22
Q

Is lymph node size a predictor of metastasis?

A

No
A study of 100 dogs with oral malignant melanoma, 40% of dogs with normal-sized LN had metastasis and 49% of dogs with enlarged LN did not have metastasis

23
Q

List 3 methods of identifying the sentinel lymph node:

A
  • Lymphoscintigraphy
  • Peritumoral injection of blue dye
  • Intra-op cytology or histopath
24
Q

What are some considerations regarding surgical technique for oncologic surgeries?

A
  • Early hemostasis to prevent release of tumor emboli
  • Careful handling to prevent exfoliation
  • Structures adhered to the tumor should be resected en bloc if possible (57% rate of invasion in humans)
  • Multifilament suture is associated with an increased risk of recurrence
  • Ideally avoiding drains as can extend margins if resection if incomplete
  • Reconstructive surgery is ideally done as a second procedure once histology results have confirmed clean margins
  • Gloves and instruments changes prior to closure or between mass removals
25
Q

What IHC markers are used for carcinomas and sarcomas?

A
  • Cytokeratin (found in epithelial calls) stain for carcinomas
  • Vimentin (found in mesenchymal cells) stain for sarcomas (and melanoma)
26
Q

What proliferation markers can be used to help predict recurrence of incompletely excised grade 2 MCT?

A
  • Ki67 (low vs high have signifcant prognosis)
  • Proliferating cell nuclear antigen (PCNA) combined with Ki67 is prognostic for recurrence
27
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of neoadjuvant radiation therapy?
Of adjuvant radiation therapy:

A

Neoadjuvant (prior to surgery) is theoretically more effective due to unimpaired vascular supply (better oxygenated, less hypoxic and therefore more radiosensitive)
- Irradiated skin is more likely to develop incisional complications

Radiation is much more effective against microscopic disease and there is no delay in surgery with adjuvant radiation

  • Adjuvant radiation can also increase incisional complications, especially if started before 7 days post-op
28
Q

Define “maximally tolerated dose” in chemotherapy:

A

Chemotherapy where toxicity, dosage and interval of treatment are based on phase I clinical trials. This data is not often available for vet patients and is extrapolated from human date. Drug doses delivered in vet med are typically half that in humans

29
Q

Define metronomic chemotherapy:

A

Frequent, even daily, administration of chemotherapeutics at doses significantly below maximally tolerated dose, with no prolonged drug-free breaks

Aims to control or minimise angiogenesis and invasion rather than cytotoxicity

30
Q

What are alkylating chemo agents?

A
  • Non cell cycle specific, interfere with DNA replication and translation
  • Loumustine (Histiocytic sarcoma, MCT). Severe hepatotoxicity 6%
  • Cyclophosphamide (lymphoma). Furosemide can reduce occurrence of sterile hemorrhagic cystitis
31
Q

What are microtubule inhibiting chemo agents?

A
  • Cell cycle specific, affect spindle apparatus during mitosis
  • Vincristine (lymphoma)
  • Vinblastine (MCT)
  • Vinorelbine (lymphoma, MCT, lung tumor)

Minimally myelosuppressive and well tolerated. Can cause paralytic ileus and extravasation phlebitis

32
Q

Tell me about Doxorubicin?

A
  • non cell cycle specific with multiple mechanisms of action
  • Lymphoma, hemangiosarcoma, high grade STS, high grade carcinoma, OSA
  • Can cause DCM like damage in dogs, renal insufficiency in cats
  • Significant myelosuppression and GI toxicity
33
Q

Tell me about platinum agents for chemo?

A
  • Non cell cycle specific - caused binding of DNA, restricting replication and protein synthesis
  • Carboplatin and cisplatin - OSA, rescue for other sarcoma and carcinomas
  • Cisplatin fatal to cats! Fatal pulmonary edema
  • Nephrotoxicity
34
Q

Tell me about the role of bisphosphonates in chemo / cancer treatment?

A
  • Inhibits osteoclast activity - palliative Tx for osteolytic disease from OSA, multiple myeloma and metastatic bone disease
  • IV is preferred (low oral bioavailability, cause reflux)
  • Pamidronate most common - approx 30% successful palliation
  • Zoledronate - shorter infusion time, improved inhibition or resorption (100x potency), potential for less frequent treatment
35
Q

What are the reported morbidity and mortality rates of chemotherapy patients as a whole?

A
  • 15% require nonhospitalized medical attention
  • 5% hospitalized
  • 1% mortality rate
36
Q

When is the bone marrow nadir with chemotherapeutics?
At what level is chemo delayed?

A

Typically 7 days with the exception of carboplatin which is 10-14 days

Chemo is delayed by 5-7 days if neutrophils are less than 1500-2000/uL and platelets less than 50,000/uL

If neuts under 1000, prophylactic antibiotics are initiated and future doses reduced by 20%

37
Q

What is the most available form of immunotherapy?

A

Melanoma vaccine

DNA vaccine utilizing human tyrosinase DNA which shows an upregulation of antibodies in dogs against human tyrosinase. Clinical studies show mixed efficacy…

38
Q

Tell me about tyrosine Kinase inhibitors in chemo?

A
  • Target the ATP binding sites of membrane and cytoplasmic tyrosine kinases which are responsible for phosphorylation causing cell proliferation
  • Toceranib (Palladia) for MCT in dogs - targets c-kit. Indicated for high grade or metastatic disease and work best on microscopic disease
39
Q

What is the most common mechanism of acquired chemotherapeutic resistance?

A

Mutation in the canine MDR-1 gene (Collies, Shelties, Australian Cattle Dogs may already have this mutation)

40
Q

Describe the process of metastasis:

A
  1. Cell detaches from primary tumor
  2. Migrates through surrounding tissues
  3. Intravasation into a microvessel
  4. Survival in circulation
  5. attachment to distant endothelial cell
  6. extravasation
  7. angiogenesis
  8. Proliferation
41
Q

Malignant tumors may have what?
This means that the deep margin is what?

A

Satellite tumor cells outside the capsule
So deep margins are tumor-resistant fascial planes **