Chapter 22: Musculoskeletal System

Question 1

1. The type of joint that has the widest range of motion in all planes is the a. ball-and-socket.
   b. condyloid.
   c. gliding.
   d. saddle.

Answer 1

a. ball-and-socket.

Question 2

2. Spinal vertebrae are separated from each other by
   a. bursae.
   b. tendons.
   c. disks.
   d. ligaments.

Answer 2

c. disks.

Question 3

3. The joint where the humerus, radius, and ulna articulate is the
   a. wrist.
   b. elbow.
   c. shoulder.
   d. clavicle.

Answer 3

a. wrist.

Question 4

5. The tibia, fibula, and talus articulate to form the a. ankle.
   b. knee.
   c. hip.
   d. pelvis.

Answer 4

a. ankle.

Question 5

6. Long bones in children have growth plates known as
   a. epiphyses.
   b. epicondyles.
   c. synovium.
   d. fossae.

Answer 5

a. epiphyses.

Question 6

7. The elasticity of pelvic ligaments and softening of cartilage in a pregnant woman are the result of
   a. decreased mineral deposition.
   b. increased hormone secretion.
   c. uterine enlargement.
   d. gait changes.

Answer 6

b. increased hormone secretion.

Question 7

8. Skeletal changes in older adults are the result of
   a. increased bone deposition.
   b. increased bone resorption.
   c. decreased bone deposition.
   d. decreased bone resorption.

Answer 7

b. increased bone resorption.

Question 8

9. The family history for a patient with joint pain should include information about siblings with
   a. trauma to the skeletal system.
   b. chronic atopic dermatitis.
   c. genetic disorders.
   d. obesity.

Answer 8

c. genetic disorders.

Question 9

10. Risk factors for sports-related injuries include
    a. competing in colder climates.
    b. previous fracture.
    c. history of recent weight loss.
    d. failure to warm up before activity.

Answer 9

d. failure to warm up before activity.

Question 10

11. Light skin and thin body habitus are risk factors for
    a. rheumatoid arthritis.
    b. osteoarthritis.
    c. congenital bony defects.
    d. osteoporosis.

Answer 10

d. osteoporosis.

Question 11

12. Inquiry about nocturnal muscle spasms would be most significant when taking the musculoskeletal history of
    a. adolescents.
    b. infants.
    c. older adults.
    d. middle-age adults.

Answer 11

c. older adults.

Question 12

13. The musculoskeletal examination should begin when
    a. the patient enters the examination room.
    b. during the collection of subjective data.
    c. when height is measured.
    d. when joint mobility is assessed.

Answer 12

a. the patient enters the examination room.

Question 13

14. Fasciculation occurs after injury to a muscle’s
    a. venous return
    b. motor neuron.
    c. strength.
    d. tendon.

Answer 13

b. motor neuron.

Question 14

15. The physical assessment technique most frequently used to assess joint symmetry is
    a. inspection.
    b. palpation.
    c. percussion.
    d. the use of joint calipers.

Answer 14

a. inspection.

Question 15

16. A goniometer is used to assess
    a. bone maturity.
    b. joint proportions.
    c. range of motion.
    d. muscle strength.

Answer 15

c. range of motion.

Question 16

17. When palpating joints, crepitus may occur when
    a. irregular bony surfaces rub together.
    b. supporting muscles are excessively spastic.
    c. joints are excessively lax.
    d. there is excess fluid within the synovial membrane.

Answer 16

a. irregular bony surfaces rub together

Question 17

18. The temporomandibular joint is palpated
    a. under the mandible, anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
    b. above the mandible at midline.
    c. anterior to the tragus.
    d. at the mastoid process.

Answer 17

c. anterior to the tragus.

Question 18

19. The temporalis and masseter muscles are evaluated by
    a. having the patient shrug his or her shoulders.
    b. having the patient clench his or her teeth.
    c. asking the patient to fully extend his or her neck.
    d. passively opening the patient’s jaw.

Answer 18

b. having the patient clench his or her teeth.

Question 19

20. The strength of the trapezius muscle is evaluated by having the patient
    a. clench his or her teeth during muscle palpation.
    b. push his or her head against the examiner’s hand.
    c. straighten his or her leg with examiner opposition.
    d. uncross his or her legs with examiner resistance.

Answer 19

b. push his or her head against the examiner’s hand.

Question 20

21. Expected normal findings during the inspection of spinal alignment include
    a. asymmetric skin folds at the neck.
    b. slight right-sided scapular elevation.
    c. concave lumbar curve.
    d. the head positioned superiorly to the gluteal cleft.

Answer 20

d. the head positioned superiorly to the gluteal cleft.

Question 21

22. A common finding in markedly obese patients and pregnant women is
    a. kyphosis.
    b. lordosis.
    c. paraphimosis.
    d. scoliosis

Answer 21

b. lordosis.

Question 22

23. A wheelchair-dependent older woman would most likely develop skin breakdown at
    a. C7.
    b. the iliac crests.
    c. L4.
    d. the gibbus.

Answer 22

d. the gibbus.

Question 23

24. When the patient flexes forward at the waist, which spinal observation would lead you to suspect scoliosis?
    a. Prominent lumbar hump
    b. Prominent cervical concave curve
    c. Lateral curvature of the spine
    d. Restricted ability to flex at the hips

Answer 23

c. Lateral curvature of the spine

Question 24

25. When a patient abducts an arm and the ipsilateral scapula becomes more prominent (winged), this usually means that
    a. there has been an injury to the nerve of the anterior serratus muscle.
    b. one of the clavicles has been fractured.
    c. there is a unilateral trapezius muscle separation.
    d. one shoulder is dislocated.

Answer 24

a. there has been an injury to the nerve of the anterior serratus muscle.

Question 25

26. When the shoulder contour is asymmetric and one shoulder has hollows in the rounding contour, you would suspect
    a. kyphosis.
    b. fractured scapula.
    c. a dislocated shoulder.
    d. muscle wasting.

Answer 25

c. a dislocated shoulder.

Question 26

27. Ulnar deviation and swan neck deformities are characteristics of
    a. rheumatoid arthritis.
    b. osteoarthritis.
    c. osteoporosis.
    d. congenital defects.

Answer 26

a. rheumatoid arthritis.

Question 27

28. A finding that is indicative of osteoarthritis is (are)
    a. swan neck deformities.
    b. Bouchard nodes.
    c. ganglions.
    d. Heberden nodes.

Answer 27

d. Heberden nodes.

Question 28

29. Carpal tunnel syndrome would result in
    a. a negative Tinel sign.
    b. a negative Phalen test.
    c. reduced abduction of the thumb.
    d. palm tingling.

Answer 28

c. reduced abduction of the thumb.

Question 29

1. Cardinal signs for rheumatoid disorders include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
   a. Gradual onset
   b. Weakness that is usually localized and not severe
   c. Coarse crepitus on motion
   d. Joint tenderness
   e. Sleep disturbance

Answer 29

ANS: A, D, E
a. Gradual onset
d. Joint tenderness
e. Sleep disturbance

Question 30

2. The wrist moves in (Select all that apply.)
   a. eversion and inversion.
   b. proximal radius and ulna articulation.
   c. flexion and extension.
   d. adduction and abduction.

Answer 30

ANS: C, D
c. flexion and extension.
d. adduction and abduction.