Chapter 21 - The Immune System - Innate and Adaptive Body Defenses COPY Flashcards

1
Q

The immune system’s two intrinsic systems are:

A
  1. Innate (nonspecific) defense system 2. Adaptive (specific) defense system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The immune system is a ____ system rather than ____ system.

A

functional; organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Innate and adaptive defenses of the immune system are ____.

A

intertwined

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Both innate and adaptive defenses release and recognise many of the same

A

defensive molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do innate defenses differ from adaptive?

A
  1. innate defenses have specific pathways for certain substances 2. innate responses release proteins that alert cells of adaptive system to foreign molecules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Innate defense system has two lines of defense–first and second. The first is composed of:

A

external body membranes (skin and mucosae)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Innate defense system has two lines of defense–first and second. The second is composed of:

A

antimicrobial proteins, phagocytes, and other cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The second innate line of defense does what?

A
  1. inhibits the spread of invaders 2. has inflammation as its most important mechanism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The adaptive defense system’s third line of defense does what?

A

It attacks *particular* foreign substances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How does the adaptive line of defense differ from the innate line of defense?

A

Takes longer to react than innate system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Innate defenses have ____ to ward off invading pathogens.

A

surface barriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The surface barriers of innate defenses are in the most general context:

A

skin, mucous membranes, and their secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the characteristics of surface barriers of the innate defense system?

A
  1. they are a physical barrier to most microorganisms 2. they are keratin resistant to weak acids and bases, bacterial enzymes, and toxins 3. mucosae provide similar mechanical barriers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Surface barriers of the innate defense system have protective chemicals that inhibit or destroy microorganisms. What are they?

A
  1. the acidity of skin and secretions–acid mantle 2. enzymes 3. defensins 4. other chemicals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The acidity of skin and secretions in the innate defense system does what to microorganisms?

A

inhibits growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the enzymes that inhibit microorganisms in the innate defense system?

A
  1. lysozome of saliva 2. respiratory mucus 3. lacrimal fluid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What do the enzymes of the innate defense system do?

A

kill many microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Defensins of the innate defense system are what? What do they do to microorganisms?

A

antimicrobial peptides; inhibit growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Other chemicals of the innate defense system are what? What effect do they have on microorganisms?

A

lipids in sebum, dermcidin in sweat; toxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Respiratory system modifications (surface barriers) of the innate defense system are:

A
  1. mucus-coated hairs in nose 2. cilia of upper respiratory tract that sweep dust 3. bacteria-laden mucus toward mouth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Surface barriers of the innate immune system can be breached by nicks or cuts. What happens then?

A

second line of defense must protect deeper tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If microorganisms invade deeper tissues, internal defenses of cells and chemicals are necessary. What are they?

A
  1. phagocytes 2. natural killer (NK) cells 3. antimicrobial proteins 4. fever 5. inflammatory response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is an example of antimicrobial proteins that protect deeper tissues upon invasion?

A

interferons and complement proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What partakes in the inflammatory response to protect deeper tissues upon invasion?

A
  1. macrophages 2. mast cells 3. WBCs 4. inflammatory chemicals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The phagocytes that participate in internal defenses are:

A

-neutrophils -macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

These are the most abundant phagocytes but die fighting.

A

neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

_____ become phagocytic on exposure to infectious material.

A

neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

____ develop from monocytes.

A

macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The chief phagocytic cells are:

A

macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

____ macrophages wander through tissue spaces, e.g. alveolar macrophages.

A

free

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

___ macrophages are permanent residents of some organs, e.g. Kupffer cells (liver) and microglia (brain).

A

fixed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

In order for phagocytosis to take place, the phagocyte must

A

adhere to particle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Some microorganisms evade phagocytic adherence with ____.

A

capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

____ marks pathogens—coating by complement proteins or antibodies.

A

opsonisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

In phagocytosis, cytoplasmic extensions bind to and engulf the particle in a vesicle called ____.

A

phagosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In phagocytosis, the phagosome fuses with lysosome, which creates ____.

A

phagolysosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Pathogens are killed during phagocytosis due to acidifying and digesting with _____.

A

lysosomal enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

If lysosomal enzymes are unable to kill pathogens, helper T cells cause a release of enzymes of _____, which kill pathogens.

A

respiratory burst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the three ways that helper T cells kill pathogens that are resistant to lysosomal enzymes?

A
  1. release cell-killing free radicals 2. produce oxidising chemicals (e.g. H2O2) 3. increase pH and osmolarity of phagolysosome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

In phagocytosis, defensins in neutrophils pierce ____.

A

membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

nonphagocytic large granular lymphocytes

A

natural killer (NK) cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

NK cells attack cells that lack

A

“self” cell-surface receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

NK cells induce ___ in cancer cells and virus-infected cells.

A

apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

NK cells secrete potent chemicals that enhance:

A

inflammatory response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

This is triggered whenever body tissues are injured.

A

inflammatory response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

This prevents the spread of damaging agents.

A

inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The cardinal signs of acute inflammation are:

A

-redness -swelling -heat -pain -sometimes impairment of function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

When inflammation is triggered, it disposes of what?

A

cell debris and pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When inflammation is triggered, it alerts which system?

A

adaptive immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When inflammation is triggered, it sets the stage for what?

A

repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The inflammatory response begins with chemicals released into _____ by injured tissues, immune cells, blood proteins.

A

ECF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Macrophages and epithelial cells of boundary tissues have ____ receptors.

A

Toll-like (TLR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

11 types of toll-like receptors (TLR) recognise specific classes of:

A

infecting microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Activated TLRs trigger release of _____ that promote inflammation.

A

cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The three inflammatory mediators are:

A

-kinins -prostaglandins -complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Inflammatory mediators dilate _____.

A

local arterioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When inflammatory mediators dilate local arterioles, this is known as:

A

hyperemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

When inflammatory mediators dilate local arterioles, this causes:

A

redness and heat of inflamed region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Inflammatory mediators make capillaries ____.

A

leaky

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Inflammatory mediators attract ____ to area.

A

leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Does edema increase capillary permeability or decrease it? What does this cause?

A

increase; exudate goes to tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Exudate is fluid containing ___ and ___.

A

clotting factors; antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Exudate causes:

A

local swelling (edema)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

When swelling occurs, it pushes on nerve endings which causes:

A

pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Pain can also occur from:

A

-bacterial toxins -prostaglandins -kinins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Exudate moves foreign material into ____.

A

lymphatic vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Exudate delivers ____ and ____ to area of inflammation.

A

clotting proteins; complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The clotting factors that exudate delivers to area of inflammation form _____.

A

fibrin mesh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The fibrin mesh formed by clotting factors at areas of inflammation is the scaffold for ____.

A

repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The fibrin mesh formed by clotting factors at areas of inflammation isolates the injured area so that:

A

invaders can’t spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

In phagocyte mobilisation, ___ lead, and ___ follow.

A

neutrophils; macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

As phagocyte attack continues, ___ arrive.

A

monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

12 hours after leaving bloodstream, monocytes become ____. These are called ___.

A

macrophages; “late-arrivers”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

“Late-arrivers” replace ____ and remain for ____.

A

dying neutrophils; clean up prior to repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

If inflammation is due to pathogens, ____ is activated and ____ arrive.

A

complement; adaptive immunity elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The steps for phagocyte mobilisation are:

A
  1. leukocytosis 2. margination 3. diapedesis of neutropils 4. chemotaxis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

the release of neutrophils from bone marrow in response to ____-inducing factors from injured cells

A

leukocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

neutrophils cling to walls of capillaries in inflamed area in response to CAMs

A

margination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

inflammatory chemicals promote positive ___ of neutrophils

A

chemotaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

inflammatory chemicals that promote chemotaxis are known as

A

chemotactic agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Two different antimicrobial proteins are:

A

-interferons (IFNs) -complement proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Antimicrobial proteins attack microorganisms directly or indirectly?

A

directly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Antimicrobial proteins hinder the microorganisms’ ability to ____.

A

reproduce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

The family of immune-modulating proteins are known as:

A

interferons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Viral-infected cells secrete interferons to:

A

warn neighbouring cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

After viral-infected cells secrete IFNs, they enter neighbouring cells and cause the cell to do what?

A

produce proteins that block viral reproduction and degrade viral RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

IFN alpha and beta also activate ____.

A

NK cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

IFN ____ is secreted by lymphocytes.

A

gamma (immune interferon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

IFN gamma activates ____.

A

macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

IFN gamma has widespread ____ effects.

A

immune-mobilising

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Since IFN activates NK cells and macrophages, it indirectly fights ____.

A

cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Artificial IFNs are used to treat:

A

-hepatitis C -genital warts -MS -hairy cell leukaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

The complementary system is composed of ~20 blood proteins that circulate in ___ form.

A

inactive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

The complement system includes which blood proteins?

A

-C1-C9 -factors B, D, and P -other regulatory proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Complement is the major mechanism for destroying:

A

foreign substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Our cells contain complement activation ____.

A

inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Complement unleashes inflammatory chemicals that:

A

amplify all aspects of inflammatory response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Complement kills bacteria and certain other cell types by ____.

A

cell lysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Complement enhances which defense?

A

both innate and adaptive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

There are three pathways to complement activation, which are:

A

-classical pathway -lectin pathway -alternative pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

In the classical pathway, antibodies bind to ____ and ____. This is called _____.

A

invading organisms; complement components; complement fixation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

The classical pathway is the ___ step in complement activation.

A

first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

____ are produced by the innate system to recognise foreign invaders.

A

lectins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

When lectins are bound to foreign invaders they can also bind and activate ____.

A

complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Complement pathway that is triggered when activated C3, B, D, and P interact on the surface of microorganisms.

A

alternative pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Each complement pathway involves activation of ___ and in an orderly sequence.

A

proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

In complement activation, each step ___ the next.

A

catalyses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Each complement pathway converges on ___, which cleaves into __ and ___.

A

C3; C3a; C3b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

In complement activation, there is a common terminal pathway initiated that does three things, which are:

A

-enhances inflammation -promotes phagocytosis -causes cell lysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Cell lysis begins when:

A

C3b binds to target cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

After C3b binds to target cell, what happens?

A

insertion of complement proteins called [membrane attack complex (MAC)] into cell’s membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

After MAC is inserted into cell’s membrane, what happens?

A

MAC forms and stabilises a hole in the membrane surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

After MAC forms a hole in the membrane surface, what happens?

A

Influx of water –> lysis of cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

C3b also causes ____.

A

opsonisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

C3a and other cleavage products amplify ___.

A

inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

C3a stimulates mast cells and basophils to release ___.

A

histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

C3a attracts ___ and ____.

A

neutrophils; other inflammatory cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Fever is a systemic response to:

A

invading microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Leukocytes and macrophages exposed to foreign substances secrete ___.

A

pyrogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Pyrogens act on:

A

body’s thermostat in the hypothalamus, raising body temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

The benefits of moderate fever are:

A

-causing the liver and spleen to sequester zinc and iron (needed by microorganisms) -increasing metabolic rate –> faster repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

this system must be primed by initial exposure to a specific foreign substance

A

adaptive (specific defense) immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

The adaptive immune system activates ___.

A

complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

The adaptive immune system amplifies ____.

A

inflammatory response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

The adaptive immune system protects against ___ and ___.

A

infectious agents; abnormal body cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

part of the adaptive immune system that recognises and targets specific antigens

A

specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

part of the adaptive immune system that is not restricted to initial site

A

systemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

the adaptive immune system has ____, which leads to stronger attacks to known anitgens

A

memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

The two separate, overlapping arms of adaptive immune system are:

A

-humoral (antibody-mediated) immunity -cellular (cell-mediated) immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

humoral immunity is composed of ___, produced by lymphocytes, circulating freely in body fluids

A

antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

in humoral immunity, antibodies bind temporarily to the target cell and do two things:

A

-temporarily inactivate target cell -mark the target cell for destruction by phagocytes or complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

in cellular immunity ___ act against target cell.

A

lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

lymphocytes that act against target cell act directly by

A

killing infected cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

lymphocytes that act against target cell act indirectly by

A

releasing chemicals that enhance inflammatory response or activating other lymphocytes or macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

substances that can mobilise adaptive defenses and provoke an immune response

A

antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

antigens are the targets of all ___ immune responses

A

adaptive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Most antigens are large, complex molecules not normally found in

A

body (nonself)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

The two important functional properties of complete antigens are:

A

-immunogenicity -reactivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Examples of complete antigens are:

A

-foreign protein -polysaccharides -lipids -nucleic acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

ability to stimulate proliferation of specific lymphocytes

A

immunogenicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

ability to react with activated lymphocytes and antibodies released by immunogenic reactions

A

reactivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

incomplete antigens are known as

A

haptens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

incomplete antigens are not ___ by themselves

A

immunogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Example of haptens:

A

-peptides -nucleotides -some hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

haptens may be immunogenic if attached to ____ and combination is marked foreign

A

body proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

haptens cause the immune system to mount

A

harmful attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Examples of mounted harmful attack as a result of haptens:

A

-poison ivy -animal dander -detergents -cosmetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

antigenic determinants are also known as

A

epitopes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Only certain parts (epitopes) of entire antigen are ___

A

immunogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Antibodies and lymphocyte receptors bind to epitopes as enzyme binds ___.

A

substrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Most naturally occurring antigens have numerous antigenic determinants that

A

-mobilise several different lymphocyte populations -form different kinds of antibodies against it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Large, chemically simple molecules (e.g. plastics) have little or no ___.

A

immunogenicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

self-antigens are also known as

A

MHC proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

self-antigens are

A

protein molecules on the surface of cells that are not antigenic to self but antigenic to others in transfusions or grafts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Example of self-antigens:

A

MHC glycoproteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

MHC glycoproteins are coded by genes of ____ and are unique to the individual.

A

major histocompatibility complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

MHC glycoproteins have a groove holding ___ or ___.

A

self-antigen; foreign antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Lymphocytes only bind ___ on MHC proteins.

A

antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

The three types of cells of the adaptive immune system are:

A

-B lymphocytes -T lymphocytes -Antigen-presenting cells (APCs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

B lymphocytes participate in ___ immunity.

A

humoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

T lymphocytes participate in ___ immunity.

A

cell-mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

these do not respond to specific antigens and play essential auxiliary roles in immunity

A

antigen-presenting cells (APCs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

The five steps of lymphocyte development, maturation, and activation are:

A

-origin (all originate in red bone marrow) -maturation -seeding secondary lymphoid organs and circulation -antigen encounter and activation -proliferation and differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Lymphocytes are educated as they mature, and become B cells in ___ or T cells in ___.

A

bone marrow; thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

a lymphocyte can recognise one specific antigen by binding to it is known as

A

immunocompetence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

lymphocytes unresponsive to own antigens is known as

A

self-tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Thanks to immunocompetence, B or T cells display a unique receptor on their surface when they achieve maturity, so they can bind

A

only one antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

T cells mature in the thymus under ___ and ___ pressures.

A

-positive selection -negative selection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

selects T cells capable of regonising self-MHC proteins; failures are destroyed by apoptosis

A

positive selection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

T cells capable of recognising self-MHC proteins is known as

A

MHC restriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

prompts apoptosis of T cells that bind to self-antigens displayed by self-MHC; ensures self tolerance

A

negative selection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

B cells are positively selected if they successfully make

A

antigen receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

B cells that are self-reactive are handled by

A

elimination by apoptosis (clonal deletion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Immunocompetent B and T cells that are not yet exposed to antigen are called

A

naive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Naive B/T cells are exported from ____ to ____.

A

primary lymphoid organs; “seed” secondary lymphoid organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Exportation of naive B/T cells increases the chance of:

A

encounter with antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

examples of primary lymphoid organs

A

-bone marrow -thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

examples of secondary lymphoid organs

A

-lymph nodes -spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

naive lymphocyte’s first encounter with antigen leads to selection for further development. this is known as

A

clonal selection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

If the correct signals are present in clonal selection,

A

lymphocyte will complete its differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

An activated lymphocyte ____.

A

proliferates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Due to lymphocyte proliferation, this leads to

A

exact clones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Most lymphocyte clones become

A

effector cells that fight infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Few lymphocyte clones remain as

A

memory cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Memory cells are able to respond to the same antigen

A

more quickly the second time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

B and T memory cells and effector T cells circulate ___.

A

continuously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

____ determine which foreign substances the immune system will recognise.

A

genes (not antigens)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Immune cell receptors are the result of

A

acquired knowledge of microbes (likely in environment)

189
Q

Lymphocytes make how many different types of antigen receptors?

A

up to a billion

190
Q

Lymphocytes are coded for by ~____ genes.

A

25,000

191
Q

Gene segments are shuffled by ____.

A

somatic recombination

192
Q

these engulf antigens

A

antigen-presenting cells (APCs)

193
Q

APCs present fragments of antigens to ___ for recognition.

A

T cells

194
Q

The three major types of APCs are:

A

-dendritic cells -macrophages -B cells

195
Q

dendritic cells are located in

A

connective tissues and epidermis

196
Q

macrophages are located in

A

connective tissues and lymphoid organs

197
Q

dendritic cells phagocytise ___

A

pathogens

198
Q

dendritic cells enter ___ to present antigens to ___ in lymph node

A

lymphatics; T cells

199
Q

the most effective antigen-presenter known is

A

dendritic cell

200
Q

dendritic cells are the key link between

A

innate and adaptive immunity

201
Q

macrophages are widespread in ___ and ___

A

lymphoid organs; connective tissues

202
Q

macrophages can activate

A

naive T cells

203
Q

macrophages present antigens to T cells to

A

activate themselves into voracious phagocytes that secrete bactericidal chemicals

204
Q

these do not activate naive T cells

A

B cells

205
Q

B cells present antigens to ___ to assist own activation

A

helper T cell

206
Q

B cells are activated when

A

antigens bind to its surface receptors and cross-link them

207
Q

After antigens cross-link surface receptors, what happens?

A

receptor-mediated endocytosis of cross-linked antigen-receptor complexes (clonal selection)

208
Q

After receptor-mediated endocytosis of cross-linked antigen-receptor complexes takes place, what happens?

A

proliferation and differentiation into effector cells

209
Q

Most clone cells become ____ cells.

A

plasma

210
Q

Plasma cells secrete ___ at a rate of ___ for how long?

A

specific antibodies; 2000 molecules/sec; four to five days, then die

211
Q

Antibodies circulate in ___ or ___.

A

blood; lymph

212
Q

Antibodies bind to ___ and mark for

A

free antigens; destruction by innate or adaptive mechanisms

213
Q

Clone cells that do not become plasma cells become ____.

A

memory cells

214
Q

Memory cells provide ____ memory and mount ___ response to future exposures of same antigen.

A

immunological; immediate

215
Q

In immunological memory—primary immune response, upon first antigen exposure, what takes place?

A

cell proliferation and differentiation

216
Q

The lag period for cell proliferation and differentiation in the primary immune response is:

A

three to six days

217
Q

In the primary immune response, peak levels of plasma antibody are reached in ___ days.

A

10

218
Q

After peak level of plasma antibodies in primary immune response of immunological memory, what happens?

A

antibody levels decline

219
Q

Re-exposure to the same antigen gives ____ response. (Part of secondary immune response)

A

faster, more prolonged, more effective

220
Q

(part of secondary immune response) Sensitised memory cells respond within:

A

hours

221
Q

(part of secondary immune response) Antibody levels peak in ___ days at much higher levels.

A

two to three

222
Q

(part of secondary immune response) Antibodies bind with ___ affinity.

A

greater

223
Q

(part of secondary immune response) Antibody level can remain high for

A

weeks to months

224
Q

when B cells encounter antigens and produce specific antibodies against them, this is known as

A

active humoral immunity

225
Q

The two types of active humoral immunity are

A

-naturally acquired -artificially acquired

226
Q

response to bacterial or viral infection

A

naturally acquired humoral immunity

227
Q

response to vaccine of dead or attenuated pathogens

A

artificially acquired humoral immunity

228
Q

most of dead or attenuated pathogens are

A

vaccines

229
Q

Vaccines spare us symptoms of

A

primary response

230
Q

Vaccines provide

A

antigenic determinants that are immunogenic and reactive

231
Q

Vaccines can cause

A

-illness trying to vaccine against -allergic responses

232
Q

___ and ___ help prevent illness or allergic responses induced by vaccines.

A

-“naked DNA” -oral vaccines

233
Q

In ____ immunity, readymade antibodies are introduced into body.

A

passive humoral

234
Q

In passive humoral immunity, B cells are ___ by antigens.

A

not challenged

235
Q

Does immunological memory occur in passive humoral immunity?

A

no

236
Q

In passive humoral immunity, protection ends when

A

antibodies degrade

237
Q

Two types of passive humoral immunity

A

-naturally acquired -artificially acquired

238
Q

antibodies are delivered to fetus via placenta or to infant through milk. this is known as

A

naturally acquired passive humoral immunity

239
Q

injection of serum, such as gamma globulin, is known as

A

artificially acquired passive humoral immunity

240
Q

In artifically acquired passive humoral immunity, protection is immediate but ends when

A

antibodies naturally degrade in body

241
Q

the gamma globulin portion of blood is known as

A

immunoglobulins

242
Q

proteins secreted by plasma cells are

A

antibodies

243
Q

Antibodies are capable of binding specifically with antigen detected by ___.

A

B cells

244
Q

Antibodies are grouped into one of ___ Ig classes.

A

five

245
Q

four looping polypeptide chains linked by disulfide bonds

A

antibody monomer

246
Q

Antibodies have T- or Y- shaped ____.

A

antibody monomer

247
Q

Overall antibody shape/structure:

A

-two identical heavy chains with hinge region at “middles” -two identical light chains -variable regions at one end of each arm -constant regions of stem

248
Q

Variable regions at one end of each antibody arm combine to form two identical ____.

A

antigen-binding sites

249
Q

Constant regions of antibody stem determine

A

antibody class

250
Q

Constant regions of antibody stem serve common functions in all antibodies by dictating:

A

-cells and chemicals that antibody can bind -how antibody class functions to eliminate antigens

251
Q

The different classes of antibodies are:

A

-IgM -IgA -IgD -IgG -IgE

252
Q

Characteristics of IgM antibodies:

A

-pentamer (larger than others) -first antibody released -potent agglutinating agent -readily fixes and activates complement

253
Q

Characteristics of IgA antibodies:

A

-monomer or dimer -in mucus and other secretions -helps prevent entry of pathogens

254
Q

Characteristics of IgD antibodies:

A

-monomer attached to surface of B cells -functions as B cell receptor

255
Q

Characteristics of IgG antibodies:

A

-monomer; 75-85% of antibodies in plasma -from secondary and late primary responses -crosses placental barrier

256
Q

Characteristics of IgE antibodies:

A

-monomer active in some allergies and parasitic infections -causes mast cells and basophils to release histamine

257
Q

B cells can switch antibody classes but retain ____.

A

antigen specificity

258
Q

B cells can switch from ___ at first; then ___.

A

IgM; IgG

259
Q

Almost all secondary antibody responses are ___.

A

IgG

260
Q

How do antibodies affect antigens?

A

inactivate and tag antigens; do not destroy them

261
Q

When antibodies interact with antigens, they form:

A

antigen-antibody (immune) complexes

262
Q

The defensive mechanisms used by antibodies are

A

-neutralisation and agglutination (two most important) -precipitation and complement fixation

263
Q

the simplest defense mechanism is

A

neutralisation

264
Q

In neutralisation, antibodies block specific sites on ___ or ___.

A

viruses; bacterial exotoxins

265
Q

In neutralisation, antibodies that block sites prevent antigens from

A

binding to receptors on tissue cells

266
Q

In neutralisation ____ undergo phagocytosis.

A

antigen-antibody complexes

267
Q

antibodies bind same determinant on more than one cell-bound antigen

A

agglutination

268
Q

In agglutination, ____ agglutinate. An example is:

A

cross-linked antigen-antibody complexes; clumping of mismatched blood cells

269
Q

soluble molecules are cross-linked

A

precipitation

270
Q

When soluble molecules are cross-linked, what happens?

A

Complexes precipitate and are subject to phagocytosis.

271
Q

The main antibody defense against cellular antigens is:

A

complement fixation and activation

272
Q

In complement fixation, several antibodies bind close together on a cellular antigen. This leads to:

A

complement-binding sites on stem regions aligning

273
Q

When complement-binding sites on stem regions align, this triggers:

A

complement fixation into cell’s surface —> cell lysis

274
Q

Functions of activated complement are:

A

-amplifies inflammatory response -promotes phagocytosis via opsonisation - –>positive feedback cycle that enlists more and more defensive elements

275
Q

A commercially prepared pure antibody (also known as ____) is specific for:

A

monoclonal antibody; single antigenic determinant

276
Q

Monoclonal antibodies are produced by:

A

hybridomas

277
Q

cell hybrids; fusion of tumor cell and B cell

A

hybridomas

278
Q

Monoclonal antibodies proliferate indefinitely and have ability to produce:

A

single type of antibody

279
Q

monoclonal antibodies are used in

A

-research -clinical testing -cancer treatment

280
Q

What do antigen-antibody complexes do to antigens?

A

do not destroy; prepare them for destruction by innate defenses

281
Q

Antibodies do not invade solid tissue unless:

A

there is a lesion present

282
Q

Antibodies can act intracellularly if:

A

attached to virus before it enters cell –>activate mechanisms that destroy virus

283
Q

In the cellular immune response, T cells provide defense against ____.

A

intracellular antigens

284
Q

Some T cells ___ cells; others release chemicals that:

A

directly kill; regulate immune response

285
Q

In cell-mediated immune response, there are two populations of T cells based on which glycoprotein surface receptors are displayed. These are:

A

-CD4 cells -CD8 cells

286
Q

CD4 cells usually become ____ cells.

A

helper T

287
Q

Helper T (CD4) cells activate:

A

-B cells -other T cells -macrophages -direct adaptive immune response

288
Q

Some CD4 cells become ____.

A

regulatory T cells

289
Q

Regulatory T cells moderate ____.

A

immune response

290
Q

CD4 cells can also become ____.

A

memory T cells

291
Q

CD8 cells become ____.

A

cytotoxic T cells

292
Q

Cytotoxic T cells (CD8) destroy cells that are

A

harboring foreign antigens

293
Q

CD8 cells can also become ___

A

memory T cells

294
Q

Helper, cytotoxic, and regulatory T cells are ____ T cells.

A

activated

295
Q

CD4 or CD8 cells are also known as

A

naive T cells

296
Q

T cells only respond to processed fragments of antigens displayed on

A

surfaces of cells

297
Q

Antigen presentation is vital for activation of ___ and normal functioning of ___.

A

naive T cells; effector T cells

298
Q

The two types of MHC proteins important to T cell activation are:

A

-Class I MHC proteins -Class II MHC proteins

299
Q

Both types of MHC proteins are synthesised at __ and bind to ____.

A

endoplasmic reticulum; peptide fragments

300
Q

proteins that are displayed by all cells except RBCs

A

class I MHC proteins

301
Q

proteins that are displayed by APCs (dendritic cells, macrophages, B cells)

A

class II MHC proteins

302
Q

Class I MHC proteins bind with fragment of protein synthesised

A

in the cell

303
Q

a fragment of protein synthesised in the cell is known as

A

endogenous antigen

304
Q

In a normal cell, an endogenous antigen is ___. In an infected or abnormal cell it is ___.

A

self-antigen; nonself antigen

305
Q

Class I MHC proteins are crucial for

A

CD8 cell activation

306
Q

Class I MHC proteins inform cytotoxic T cells of

A

microorganisms hiding in cells (cytotoxic T cells ignore displayed self-antigens)

307
Q

Class I MHC proteins act as

A

antigen holders; form “self” part that T cells recognise

308
Q

Class II MHC proteins bind with fragments of ____ that have been engulfed and broken down in a phagolysosome.

A

exogenous antigens

309
Q

Class II MHC proteins are recognised by ____.

A

helper T cells

310
Q

Class II MHC proteins signal ___ cells that help is required.

A

CD4

311
Q

CD4 and CD8 cells have different requirements for MHC protein that presents antigens to them. CD4 cells that become Th bind only:

A

class II MHC proteins typically on APC surfaces

312
Q

CD4 and CD8 cells have different requirements for MHC protein that presents antigens to them. CD8 cells that become cytotoxic T cell bind only:

A

class I MHC proteins on APC surfaces

313
Q

Once (CD8 cells that become) cytotoxic T cells are activated, they seek:

A

same antigen on class I MHC proteins on any cell

314
Q

CD8 cells are activated by class __ MHC proteins.

A

I

315
Q

How do APCs get endogenous antigens from another cell and display them on class I MHCs?

A

Dendritic cells engulf dying virus-infected or tumor cells, or import antigens via temporary gap junctions with infected cells–then display both class I and class II MHCs

316
Q

The two-step process of T cell activation:

A

-Antigen binding -Co-stimulation

317
Q

Both steps of T cell activation occur on surface of:

A

same APC

318
Q

Both steps of T cell activation are required for ___.

A

clonal selection

319
Q

T cell antigen receptors (TCRs) bind to ____ on APC surface.

A

antigen-MHC complex

320
Q

TCR that recognises the nonself-self complex is linked to:

A

multiple intracellular signaling pathways

321
Q

Other T cell surface proteins are involved in ____. (Ex. ___)

A

T cell activation; CD4 and CD8 help maintain coupling during antigen recognition

322
Q

T cell activation–co-stimulation–requires T cell binding to:

A

other surface receptors on an APC (co-stimulatory signals)

323
Q

Cytokines (interleukin 1 and 2 from APCs or T cells) trigger ___ and ___ of activated T cell.

A

proliferation; differentiation

324
Q

Without co-stimulation of T cell activation, ___ occurs.

A

anergy

325
Q

In anergy, T cells become:

A

tolerant to that antigen

326
Q

In anergy, T cells are unable to:

A

divide

327
Q

In anergy, T cells do not:

A

secrete cytokines

328
Q

T cells that are activated do what?

A

-enlarge and proliferate in response to cytokines -differentiate and perform functions according to their T cell class

329
Q

Primary T cell response peaks within:

A

a week

330
Q

T cell apoptosis occurs between days:

A

7 and 30

331
Q

The benefit of T cell apoptosis:

A

activated T cells are a hazard–produce large amount of inflammatory cytokines –>hyperplasia, cancer

332
Q

Effector activity wanes as amount of:

A

antigen declines

333
Q

Memory T cells remain and mediate:

A

secondary responses

334
Q

chemical messengers of the immune system are:

A

cytokines

335
Q

Cytokines mediate:

A

-cell development -differentiation -responses in immune system

336
Q

Cytokines include ___ and ___.

A

interferons; interleukins

337
Q

____ is released by macrophages which co-stimulates bound T cells.

A

Interleukin 1 (IL-1)

338
Q

Interleukin 1 co-stimulates bound T cells to:

A

-release interleukin 2 (IL-2) -synthesise more IL-2 receptors

339
Q

IL-2 is a key growth factor, acting on cells that:

A

release it and other T cells

340
Q

IL-2 encourages activated ____ to divide rapidly.

A

T cells

341
Q

Other cytokines amplify and regulate:

A

innate and adaptive responses

342
Q

Examples of cytokines that amplify and regulate innate and adaptive responses:

A

-tumor necrosis factor – cell toxin -gamma interferon – enhances killing power of macrophages

343
Q

Helper T (Th) cells play a central role in:

A

adaptive immune response

344
Q

Helper T cells activate both:

A

humoral and cellular arms

345
Q

Once primed by APC presentation of antigen, helper T cells do what?

A

-help activate T and B cells -induce T and B cell proliferation -their cytokines recruit other immune cells

346
Q

Without helper T cells, there is no:

A

immune response

347
Q

Helper T cells interact directly with B cells displaying:

A

antigen fragments bound to MHC II receptors

348
Q

Helper T cells stimulate B cells to ___ and ___.

A

divide more rapidly; being antibody formation

349
Q

B cells may be activated by helper T cells by binding to _____. Reponse is:

A

T cell-independent antigens; weak and short-lived

350
Q

Most antigens require Th co-stimulation to activate B-cells, these are called:

A

T cell-dependent antigens

351
Q

CD8 cells require helper T cell activation into:

A

destructive cytotoxic T cells

352
Q

Helper T cell activation of CD8 cells cause dendritic cells to express ____ required for CD8 cell activation.

A

co-stimulatory molecules

353
Q

Helper T cells amplify responses of:

A

innate immmune system

354
Q

Helper T cells activate ___, which leads to:

A

macrophages; more potent killers

355
Q

Helper T cells mobilise _____ and ____ and attract other types of ___.

A

lymphocytes; macropages; WBCs

356
Q

Helper T cells are divided into these subsets of helper T cells:

A

-Th1 -Th2 -Th17

357
Q

Subset helper T cells that mediate most aspects of cellular immunity:

A

Th1

358
Q

Subset helper T cells that defend against parasitic worms; mobilise eosinophils, promote allergies:

A

Th2

359
Q

Subset helper T cells that link adaptive and innate immunity by releasing IL-17; may play role in autoimmune disease:

A

Th17

360
Q

these cells directly attack and kill other cells

A

cytotoxic T cells (Tc)

361
Q

activated cytotoxic cells circulate in blood and lymph and lymphoid organs in search of:

A

body cells displaying antigen they recognise

362
Q

Cytotoxic (Tc) cell targets are:

A

-virus-infected cells -cells with intracellular bacteria or parasites -cancer cells -foreign cells (transfusions or transplants)

363
Q

Cytotoxic T cells bind to a ___ complex.

A

self-nonself

364
Q

Cytotoxic T cells can destroy all:

A

infected or abnormal cells

365
Q

Lethal hit of cytotoxic cells–two methods:

A

-Tc cell releases perforins and granzymes by exocytosis -Tc cell binds specific membrane receptor on target cell, and stimulates apoptosis

366
Q

Perforins create pores through which:

A

granzymes can enter target cell

367
Q

Granzymes stimulate ____.

A

apoptosis

368
Q

Regulatory T cells dampen immune response by:

A

direct contact or by inhibitory cytokines such as IL-10 and TGF-beta

369
Q

Regulatory T cells are important in preventing:

A

autoimmune reactions

370
Q

By preventing autoimmune reactions, regulatory T cells do (two) things:

A

-suppress self-reactive lymphocytes in periphery (outside lymphoid organs) -research into using them to induce tolerance to transplanted tissue

371
Q

Natural killer cells recognise other (3) signs of abnormality:

A

-lack of class I MHC -antibody coating target cell -different surface markers of stressed cells

372
Q

NK cells use same key mechanisms as ___ cells for killing their target cells.

A

cytotoxic T cells

373
Q

In ___, NK and cytotoxic T cells prowl for markers they recognise.

A

immune surveillance

374
Q

The four varieties of organ transplants are:

A

-autografts -isografts -allografts -xenografts

375
Q

graft from one body site to another in same person

A

autograft

376
Q

graft between identical twins

A

isograft

377
Q

graft between individuals who are not identical twins

A

allograft

378
Q

graft from another animal species

A

xenograft

379
Q

Sucess of graft depends on similarity of __.

A

tissues

380
Q

Autografts and isografts have ideal donor tissues which are almost always successful if:

A

there is a good blood supply and no infection

381
Q

There has been research into ___grafts from genetically engineered animals.

A

xenografts

382
Q

The most common graft is:

A

allograft

383
Q

In allograft, ___, ___, and ___ are mached as closely as possible.

A

ABO; other blood antigens; MHC antigens

384
Q

In immunosuppressive therapy problems, the patient’s ___ is supressed.

A

immune system

385
Q

After the immune system is suppressed, it cannot:

A

protect from foreign agents

386
Q

After the immune system is suppressed, bacterial and viral infections lead to:

A

death

387
Q

After the immune system is suppressed, it must balance drugs for ____ but no toxicity.

A

graft

388
Q

After the immune system is suppressed, it uses ___ to control infections.

A

antibiotics

389
Q

After the immune system is suppressed, undr best circumstances, rejection is after ____ in __% of patients.

A

10 years; 50%

390
Q

congenital or acquired condition that impairs function or production of immune cells or molecules such as complement or antibodies

A

immunodeficiency

391
Q

Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID) is a ___ defect.

A

genetic

392
Q

In SCID, there is a marked deficit in ___ and ___ cells.

A

B; T

393
Q

In SCID, there is a defective ___ enzyme.

A

adenosine deaminase (ADA)

394
Q

SCID is fatal if untreated; it is treated with ___ transplants.

A

bone marrow

395
Q

Lymphoma is an acquired ____.

A

immunodeficiency

396
Q

Lymphoma is cancer of ____.

A

lymphocytes

397
Q

Lymphoma leads to immunodeficiency by depressing:

A

lymph node cells

398
Q

Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) cripples the immune system by:

A

interfering with activity of helper T cells

399
Q

AIDS is characterised by:

A

-severe weight loss -night sweats -swollen lymph nodes

400
Q

With AIDS, opportunistic infections occur, such as:

A

-pneumocystis pneumonia -Kaposi’s sarcoma

401
Q

AIDS is caused by ____ transmitted by bodily fluids–blood, semen, and vaginal secretions

A

human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

402
Q

HIV enters body via:

A

-blood transfusions -blood-contaminated needles -sexual intercouse and oral sex -vaginal secretions

403
Q

HIV destroys ___ cells, which leads to:

A

helper T cells; depression of cell-mediated immunity

404
Q

HIV multiplies in lymph nodes throughout ___ period, ~10 years if untreated

A

asymptomatic

405
Q

There are symptoms of HIV when ___ collapses:

A

immune system

406
Q

HIV also invades brain, which leads to:

A

dementia

407
Q

HIV-coated glycoprotein complex attaches to:

A

CD4 receptor

408
Q

Acquired Immune Deficiency Synrome (AIDS) arises from:

A

HIV reverse transcriptase

409
Q

HIV reverse transcriptase leads to:

A

frequent errors; high mutation rate and resistance to drugs

410
Q

AIDS can be treated with these antiviral drugs:

A

-fusion inhibitors -integrase inhibitors -reverse transcriptase and protease inhibitors -antiretroviral vaginal gel

411
Q

____ block HIV’s entry into cell.

A

fusion inhibitors

412
Q

____ block viral RNA integration into host’s DNA.

A

integrase inhibitors

413
Q

_____ inhibit viral replication enzymes.

A

reverse transcriptase and protease inhibitors

414
Q

antiretroviral vaginal gel reduces AIDS risk by ___%.

A

50

415
Q

immune system loses ability to distinguish self from foreign

A

autoimmune disease

416
Q

in autoimmune disease, there is production of ____ and ____ that destroy body tissues.

A

autoantibodies; sensitised Tc cells

417
Q

Examples of autoimmune diseases:

A

-MS -myasthenia gravis -Graves’ disease -type I diabetes mellitus -systemic lupus erythmatosus -glomerulonephritis -rheumatoid arthritis

418
Q

Autoimmune diseases are treated by suppressing the entire immune system by:

A

-anti-inflammatory drugs (e.g. corticosteroids) -blocking cytokine action -blocking co-stimulatory molecules

419
Q

Research into autoimmune disease treatment includes:

A

-activating regulatory T cells -inducing self-tolerance using vaccines -directing antiboies against self-reactive immune cells

420
Q

In autoimmune disease, weakly self-reactive lymphocytes may be activated by:

A

-foreign antigens that may resemble self-antigens -new self-antigens may appear

421
Q

When foreign antigens that may resemble self-antigens appear, antibodies against foreign antigen may:

A

cross-react with self-antigen

422
Q

In autoimmune disease, new self-antigens may appear, generated by:

A

-gene mutations -changes in self-antigens by hapten attachment or infectious damage -release of novel self-antigens by trauma to barrier

423
Q

immune responses to perceived (otherwise harmless) threat cause tissue damage

A

hypersensitivities

424
Q

different types of hypersensitivities are distinguished by:

A
  1. their time course 2. whether antibodies or T cells are involved
425
Q

Antibodies cause ___ and ___ hypersensitivities.

A

immediate; subacute

426
Q

T cells cause ___ hypersensitivity.

A

delayed

427
Q

_____ hypersensitivities begin in seconds after contact with allergen.

A

acute (type I) [allergies]

428
Q

Initial contact with allergen is ____ but sensitises person.

A

asymptomatic

429
Q

Allergy reaction may be ___ or ___.

A

local; systemic

430
Q

Allergy reaction involves ___ secrete by ___ cells.

A

IL-4; Th2

431
Q

Secreted IL-4 stimulates ____ to produce ___.

A

B cells; IgE

432
Q

Produce IgE binds to ___ and ___, which leads to:

A

mast cells; basophils; flood of histamine release and induced inflammatory response

433
Q

A later encounter with same allergen leads to:

A

allergic reaction

434
Q

mast cells of skin and respiratory and gastrointestinal mucosa react to allergen

A

local reaction

435
Q

allergic systemic response is ____.

A

anaphylactic shock

436
Q

in allergic reaction, histamine release leads to

A

blood vessels dilated and leaky –> runny nose, hives, watery eyes -asthma if allergen is inhaled

437
Q

allergic reaction histamine release is controlle by

A

antihistamines

438
Q

systemic response to allergen that directly enters blood and circulates rapidly

A

anaphylactic shock

439
Q

in anaphylactic shock, ___ and ___ are enliste throughout the body

A

basophils; mast cells

440
Q

Systemic histamine release may cause:

A

-constriction of bronchioles; tongue may swell -sudden vasodilation and fluid loss from bloodstream that may cause ->circulatory collapse (hypotensive shock) and death

441
Q

anaphylactic shock is treate by

A

epinephrine

442
Q

subacute hypersensitivities are caused by ___ and ___ transferred via blood plasma or serum

A

IgM and IgG

443
Q

subacute hypersensitivities have a ___ onset and ___ duration

A

slow; long

444
Q

two subacute hypersensitivities are:

A

-cytotoxic (type II reactions) -immune complex (type III) hypersensitivity

445
Q

an example of cytotoxic (type II) reaction

A

mismatched blood transfusion reaction

446
Q

an example of immune complex (type III) hypersensitivity

A

systemic lupus erythematosus

447
Q

antibodies bind to antigens on specific body cells, stimulate phagocytosis and complement-mediated lysis of cellular antigens

A

cytotoxic (type II) reactions

448
Q

in immune complex (type III) hypersensitivity, ___ are widely distributed in body or blood

A

antigens

449
Q

in immune complex (type III) hypersensitivity, once antigens are distributed in the body, ____ form.

A

insoluble antigen-antibody complexes

450
Q

in immune complex (type III) hypersensitivity, complexes cannot be cleared from:

A

particular area of body

451
Q

in immune complex (type III) hypersensitivity, complex buildup leads to:

A

-intense inflammation -local cell lysis -cell killing by neutrophils

452
Q

delayed hypersensitivities (type IV) have a ___ onset.

A

slow

453
Q

delayed hypersensitivities (type IV) mechanism depends on _____ cells.

A

helper T

454
Q

in delayed hypersensitivities (type IV), ____ and ___ cause damage.

A

cytokine-activated macrophages; cytotoxic T cells

455
Q

an example of delayed hypersensitivity (type IV) is

A

allergic contact dermatitis (e.g. poison ivy)

456
Q

type IV hypersensitivity agents act as ____.

A

haptens

457
Q

___ test depends on type IV hypersensitivity reaction.

A

TB skin

458
Q

immune system stem cells develop in liver and spleen in weeks ____.

A

1-9

459
Q

bone marrow becomes primary source of stem cells when?

A

later and through adult life

460
Q

lymphocyte development continues in ___ and ___.

A

bone marrow; thymus

461
Q

___ lymphocytes preominate in newborn; ___ system educated as person encounters antigens

A

Th2; Th1

462
Q

depression, emotional stress, and grief do what do the immune response?

A

impair

463
Q

vitamin ____ is required for activation of CD8 cells to produce Tc cells

A

D

464
Q

vitamin D supplements reduce _____.

A

influenza

465
Q

vitamin D deficiency is linked to ____.

A

MS

466
Q

with age, immune system begins to ___.

A

wane

467
Q

as a person ages, there is greater susceptibility to:

A

immunodeficiency and autoimmune diseases

468
Q

as a person ages, there is greater incidence of:

A

cancer