Chapter 2: The Regulatory Framework Flashcards

1
Q

What are the main aims of regulation in global markets

A
  • Maintain and promote fairness, efficiency, competitiveness, transparency and orderliness of the securities and futures industry
  • Promote understanding by the public of, and trust in, the operaton and functioning of the securities and futures industry
  • Provide protection for memebers of the public investing in, or holidng, financial products
  • Minimise crime and misconduct in the securities and futures industry, and
  • Assist in maintaining the markets financial stability
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2
Q

What is prudential regulation

A

It is concerned with the financial soundness of regulated financial services firms, making sure that they are not about to become bankrupt. The purpose of prudential regulaton is to prevent investors and the economy in general from suffering losses as a result of the failure of individuak firms or, at worst, multiple firms

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3
Q

What is business conduct regulation

A

It is concerned with the way in which business is done, particularly the way investment and savings products are marketed and sold.

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4
Q

How can somone become authorised to carry out regulated activities

A

They must apply for permission from the FSA

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5
Q

What are the 11 FSMA principles

A
  1. conduct its business with integrity
  2. conduct its business with due skill, care and diligence
  3. take reasonable care to organise and control its affairs responsibly and effectively, with adequate
    risk management systems
  4. maintain adequate financial resources
  5. observe proper standards of market conduct
  6. pay due regard to the interests of its customers and treat them fairly
  7. pay due regard to the information needs of its clients, and communicate information to them in
    a way which is clear, fair and not misleading
  8. manage conflicts of interest fairly, both between itself and its customers and between a customer
    and another client
  9. take reasonable care to ensure the suitability of its advice and discretionary decisions for any
    customer who is entitled to rely upon its judgement
  10. arrange adequate protection for clients’ assets when it is responsible for them, and
  11. deal with its regulators in an open, cooperative way, and must disclose to the regulator appropriately
    anything relating to the firm of which the regulator would reasonably expect notice.
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6
Q

What are the 3 sets of rules used by the UK regulator

A

MiFID II, Capital Requirements Directive (CRD), European Market Infrastructure Regulation (EMIR)

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7
Q

What is the difference between Level 1 and Level 2 legislation

A

Level 1 legislation typucally refersto when the European Union legislates for the whole of the EU, where the legislation tends to be quite broad. Level 2 refers to legislation put in place by the member states e.g. UK and tends to be more specific

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8
Q

Which 3 regulatory bodies replaced the FSA

A

Financial Policy Commitee (FPC), Prudential Regulatory Authority, Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)

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9
Q

What is the purpose of the FPC

A

Responsible for macro-prudential regulation

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10
Q

What is the purpose of the PRA

A

Responsible for the prudential regulation and supervision of substantial individual firms

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11
Q

What is the purpose of the FCA

A

The FCA focuses on the regulation of all retail and wholesale firms. It also has the responsibility for frims that do not fall within PRA’s scope. Main objective is to ensure markets function well.

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12
Q

What is the purpose of ESMA

A

ESMA is a European-wide regulation and their mission is to protect investors and reinforce stable and well functioning markets in the EU.

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13
Q

What did MiFID II replace

A

The Investment Services Directive (1993)

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14
Q

What is the difference between MiFID and MiFIR

A

MiFID is a directive and thereofre has to be transposed into each countries laws individually, whereas MiIFR is a regulation governed by european Law and therefore automatically became a law in member states when enacted

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15
Q

What is a multi-lateral trading facility (MTF)

A

A system that brings together multiple parties that are interested in buying and selling financial instruments, and enables them to do so.

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16
Q

What is a systematic Internaliser

A

a firm that, on a frequent and systematic basis, delas on its own account by executing client orders outside of an MTF or regulated market

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17
Q

What is transaction reporting

A

Most firms employ a nominated Approved Reporting Mechanism (ARM) to report to the relevant regulator on their behalf. Although, some firms (typically large investment banks) will report to the regulator directly

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18
Q

What is trade publication

A

Needs to be reported to a nominated Approved Publication Arrangement (APA) on a near real-time basis (Less than 15 minutes depending on the asset class)

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19
Q

What is an LEI

A

Legal Entity Identifier

20
Q

What is best execution

A

An obligation on the sell side firm to take all significant steps to get the lowest available price for its customer when the customer is buying, and the highest available when selling

21
Q

What is an OTF

A

Any facility or system that is not an MTF or regulated market, operated by an investment firm or market operator, in which multiple third-party buying and selling interests in fincnail instruments are able to interact in the system in a way which results in a contract

22
Q

What must third-country firms first do in order to offer services in the UK

A

Thye are reuqired to open a branch in the countries in which they wish to offer services. Since Brexit, the UK is considered a third country

23
Q

Which two sets of reporting are required under MiFID II

A

Ex ante (Pre-sales) showing which costs are predicted, and ex post (post sales) showing the actual costs incurred over the period

24
Q

How long should telephone recordings be kept

A

5 years unless requested by the FCA for 7 years

25
Q

What is the minmium periodic portfolio reporting frequency

A

Quaterly

26
Q

What percentage value drop needs to be reported to the investor within 24 hours

A

10% since the last periodic report

27
Q

What is GDPR

A

The General Data Protection Regulation is a regulation within the EU that focuses on data protection and privacy

28
Q

What are the principles of GDPR

A
  • Lawfulness, fairness and transparency
  • Purpose limitation
  • Data minimisation
  • Accuracy
  • Storage limitation
  • Integrity and confidentiality
29
Q

What are the penalties for GDPR Non-Compliance

A

fines up to 20 million Euros or 4% of group worldwide turnover (Whichever is higher)

30
Q

What is SYSC and what is its prupose according to regulators

A

Senior Management Arrangements, Systems and Controls
* Encourage directors and sneior management to take an approrpiate practical responsibility for their firm’s arrnagements on mater that are likely to be relevent to regulators
* Increase cerainity by amplifying principle 3
* Encourage firms to vest resonsibility for effectove and responsible organisation in the specific directors and snior managers
* Ceate a common platform of organisationalk and systems and controls requirements for all firms.

31
Q

How many COBS rules are there and what is their purpose

A

Rule 2.1 states the purpose of the set of rules, which is to ensure that firms alwys act honestly, fairly, and professionally in accordance with the best interests of thier clients

32
Q

What are the CASS rules

A

Client Asset Sourcebook rules. If a firm physically holds onto assets that belong to a client then these assets must be:
* Segregated from assets that belong to the frim itself
* Regularly reconciled, and if a short fall is found, the firm must rectify it

33
Q

What is the SMCR

A

Senior Managers and Certification Regime which consists of the Senior managers Regime (SMR) and the cCertification Regime.

34
Q

What is the SMR

A

The Senior Managers Regime whuch focuses on holding senior managers accountable.

35
Q

What is the Certification Regime

A

It applies to ‘material risk takers’ and It states that firms need to firms need to indetigy those who are certified, assess they are fit and proper, and have the ability to reassess them on an annual basis

36
Q

What is the minimum capital ratio per Basel II

A

Between 8% and 15%

37
Q

How to calculate Capital Ratio

A

(Capital Requirement)/(Credit risk exposure + market risk exposure + operational risk exposure)

38
Q

What are the three methods of calculating risk exposure

A

The basic inidcator approach, the standardised appraoch and the Advanaced measurement approach

39
Q

What is the basic inidcator approach

A

Where tha bank holds a fixed percentage of its gross income as operational risk capital - percentage is set at 15%

40
Q

What is the standardised approach

A

It splits the frims ross income between a number od defined business lines and then multiplies by a factor (dentoted beta) specific to each business line

41
Q

What is the advanced measurement approach

A

This approach allows banks to use their own meausirng process such as their own VaR models, provided they are approved.

42
Q

What is the purpose of FATCA

A

It compels US citizens to file annual reports on any foerign account holdings

43
Q

What is an FFI

A

Foreign Financial Institution

44
Q

What is the CSDR

A

The Central Securities depositories Regulation aims to harmonise the authorisation and supervision of EU central security depositories (CSDs) as well as certain settlement aspects.

45
Q

What are the 4 phases of CSDR

A

Omnibus/segregated Accounts
Internalised Settlement Reporting
Settlement Discipline Regime
Electronic Book Entry

46
Q

When should CDD checks be done

A

When a regulated firm:

Establishes a new business relationship
Carries out an occasional transaction
Suspects money laundering or terrorist financing
doubts the integrity of information previously obtained