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Lange Rad Exam - V12 > Chapter 2 - Procedures > Flashcards

Chapter 2 - Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

The term varus refers to

A

Turned inward

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2
Q

Which elbow fat pad is not visible radiographically in the lateral projection of the normal elbow?

A

Posterior

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3
Q

image What could be done to improve the lateral (mediol-ateral) projection of the knee in the fig? (2)

A
  • Angle the xray tube 5 degrees cephalad.

- Rotate the pelvis slightly backward/posteriorly.

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4
Q

The proximal radius and ulna are seen free of superimposition in which of the following projections?

A

Lateral oblique elbow

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5
Q

An RPO position poorly demonstrates the lumbar zygopophyseal articulations and the pedicles are seen on posterior portion of the vertebral body. What does this indicate?

A

Excessive rotation

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6
Q

image Name the structure identified by the number 10 in fig 2-2.

A

Lateral epicondyle

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7
Q

The term dorsal can refer to which of three of the following? (3)

A
  • Back of the hand.
  • Upper surface of the foot.
  • Posterior surface of the body.
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8
Q

All of the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true. (3)

A
  • The right lung has two fissures.
  • The inferior portion of a lung is its base.
  • Each lung is enclosed in pleural membrane.
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9
Q

All of the following statements regarding a PA projection of the skull are true. (3)

A
  • The OML is perp to the IR.
  • The petrous pyramids fill the orbits.
  • The CR is perp to the IR and exits the nasion.
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10
Q

image An accurate critique of the PA projection of the chest seen in fig 2-3 would include which of the following? (3)

A
  • The pulmonary apices are demonstrated.
  • The air-filled trachea and carina are demonstrated.
  • Ten posterior ribs are seen above the diaphragm.
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11
Q

A congenital defect in which the sternum is depressed posteriorly is termed

A

Pectus excavatum

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12
Q

Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patello-femoral articulation?

A

Tangential patella

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13
Q

Structures located in the right lower quadrant (RLQ) include which of the following? (2)

A
  • Cecum.

- Vermiform appendix.

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14
Q

image Which of the following statements are correct regarding fig 2-4? (3)

A
  • The image was made in the RPO position.
  • The right ureter is best visualized.
  • KUB are included.
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15
Q

Structures involved in blowout fractures include the (2)

A
  • Orbital floor.

- Inferior rectus muscle.

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16
Q

Which of the following articulations participate(s) in the formation ankle mortise? (2)

A
  • Talotibial.

- Talofibular.

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17
Q

The upper surface of the foot may be described as the (2)

A
  • Anterior surface.

- Dorsum.

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18
Q

Double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the

A

Gastric or bowel mucosa

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19
Q

Terms to describe movement include (2)

A
  • Extension.

- Eversion.

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20
Q

Which of the following is best demonstrated on the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the CR directed 30 degrees caudad to the OML and exiting at the foramen magnum?

A

Occipital bone

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21
Q

The RPO position (Judet method) of the right acetabulum will demo the

A

Anterior rim of the acetabulum

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22
Q

image Select the three statements regarding fig 2-5? (3)

A
  • The left axillary ribs are well demonstrated.
  • The exposure was made on full inspiration.
  • The image was made using a 45 degree oblique.
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23
Q

Which of the following positions/projections is used to demonstrate a nearly frontal view of the sternum?

A

RAO

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24
Q

Skeletal muscle is (2)

A
  • Striated.

- Involuntary.

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25
Q

Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the knee joint? (2)

A
  • Femur.

- Tibia.

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26
Q

How should a chest exam to rule out air-fluid levels be obtained on a patient with traumatic injuries?

A

Include a lateral chest exam performed in dorsal decubitus position.

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27
Q

In the axiolateral inferosuperior projection of the hip, the IR should be

A

Parallel to the femoral neck

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28
Q

image Which of the following is recommended method to image the frontal and ethmoidal sinuses seen in fig 2-6?

A

Erect PA, chin extended, OML 15 degrees from horizontal

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29
Q

image Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the radiograph in fig 2-6? (2)

A
  • The position is used to demonstrate the frontal and ethmoid sinuses.
  • The perp plate is visualized in midline of the nasal cavity.
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30
Q

To better demonstrate the interphalangeal joints of the hand in the oblique position, the radiographer should

A

Use a support sponge for the phalanges

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31
Q

Traumatic rib fractures resulting in their detachment from the rib cage is termed

A

Flail chest

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32
Q

The relationship between the fractured ends of long bones is called

A

Apposition

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33
Q

In the PA axial oblique projection of the cervical spine, the CR should be directed

A

15 degrees cephalad to C4

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34
Q

In which of the following positions can small amounts of free air in the peritoneal cavity be demonstrated?

A

Left lateral decubitus

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35
Q

Which of the following anatomic structures is seen most anteriorly in a lateral projection of the chest?

A

Cardiac apex

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36
Q

For an AP projection of the knee in a patient whose measurement from ASIS to table top is 17cm, which CR direction will best demo the knee joint?

A

3-5 degrees caudad

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37
Q

image In which of the following projections was the image in fig 2-7 made?

A

Medial oblique

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38
Q

image Which of the following anatomic structures is indicated by the number 1 in fig 2-7?

A

Medial epicondyle

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39
Q

image Select the correct statement(s) regarding the image shown in fig 2-8? (2)

A
  • There is insufficient internal rotation.

- The femoral neck is foreshortened.

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40
Q

A patient unable to extend his or her arm is seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 90 degrees. The CR is directed 45 degrees medially (toward the shoulder). Which of the following structures will be demonstrated best? (2)

A
  • Radial head.

- Capitulum.

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41
Q

Which of the following projections can be used to supplement the traditional “open-mouth” projection when the upper portion of the odontoid process cannot be well demonstrated?

A

AP or PA through the foramen magnum

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42
Q

The floor of the cranium includes all of the following (3)

A
  • Temporal bones.
  • Ethmoid bone.
  • Sphenoid bone.
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43
Q

Narrowing of the upper airway, as seen in pediatric croup, can be best visualized in the

A

AP projection

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44
Q

image In which of the following positions was the radiograph shown in fig 2-9?

A

LAO

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45
Q

image The distal ileum is labeled in fig 2-9 as number

A

6

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46
Q

A kyphotic curve is formed by the (2)

A
  • Sacral vertebrae.

- Thoracic vertebrae.

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47
Q

Which of the following projections/positions will best demonstrate a subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation?

A

PA oblique scapular Y

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48
Q

Correct prep for a patient scheduled for an UGI series is most likely to be

A

NPO after midnight

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49
Q

Which of the following positions can be used to demo the axillary ribs of the right thorax?

A

LAO

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50
Q

The interspaces between the first and second cuneiforms are best demonstrated in which of the following projections?

A

Lateral Oblique Foot

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51
Q

The sternal angle is approx the same level as the

A

T5

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52
Q

The following are anatomical features of the femur. Rearrange them in order from distal to proximal. (6)

A

Lateral Condyle > Medial Epicondyle > Body/shaft > Lesser Trochanter > Greater Trochanter > Head

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53
Q

Which of the following positions is essential in radiography of the paranasal sinuses?

A

Erect

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54
Q

image Select the correct statement(s) regarding fig 2-10. (2)

A

The degree of obliquity is correct. The middle phalanges are foreshortened.

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55
Q

What is the relationship between the MSP and MCP?

A

Perpendicular

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56
Q

All of the following structures are associated with the posterior femur. (3)

A
  • Popliteal surface.
  • Intercondyloid fossa.
  • Linea aspera.
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57
Q

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Norgaard method, “ball-catcher’s position?” (3)

A
  • Bilateral AP oblique hands are obtained.
  • It is used for early detection of rheumatoid arthritis.
  • The hands are obliqued about 45 degrees, palm up.
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58
Q

image What condition(s) is/are demonstrated in fig 2-11? (2)

A
  • Pneumothorax.

- Pleural Effusion.

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59
Q

Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane as L2-L3?

A

Inferior Costal Margin

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60
Q

To visualize or “open” the right SI joint the patient is positioned

A

25-30 degrees LPO

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61
Q

Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint? (3)

A
  • Scapular Y projection.
  • Inferosuperior Axial.
  • Transthoracic Lateral.
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62
Q

Which of the following is/are distal to the tibial plateau? (2)

A
  • Tibial Condyles.

- Tibial Tuberosity.

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63
Q

Evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus include (2)

A
  • Lesser tubercle in profile.

- Superimposed epicondyles.

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64
Q

Which of the following are mediastinal structures? (3)

A
  • Heart.
  • Trachea.
  • Esophagus.
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65
Q

image Which of the following statements are correct regarding fig 2-12? (3)

A
  • The atlantoaxial articulation is well demonstrated.
  • The odontoid process is incompletely visualized.
  • More flexion is required to move upper incisors more inferiorly.
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66
Q

Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small, bony fragment pulled from a bony process?

A

Avulsion fracture

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67
Q

That portion of the humerus which articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint is the

A

Trochlea

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68
Q

Valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm requires that (2)

A
  • The radius and ulna be superimposed distally.

- The radial tuberosity should face anteriorly.

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69
Q

In myelography, the contrast medium generally is injected into the

A

Subarachnoid space between the 3rd and 4th lumbar vertebrae

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70
Q

The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is the

A

Bregma

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71
Q

image Which of the following statements are true regarding the radiograph in fig 2-13? (4)

A
  • The image is an oblique projection of the shoulder.
  • The glenoid cavity and humeral head are superimposed.
  • The acromion process is projected laterally.
  • The coracoid process is free of superimposition.
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72
Q

Which of the following precautions should be observed when radiographing a patient who has sustained a traumatic injury to the hip? (2)

A
  • When a fracture is suspected, manipulation of the affected extremity should be performed by a physician.
  • To evaluate the entire region, the pelvis is typically included in the inital exam.
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73
Q

The lumbar vertebral transverse process is represented by which part of the “scottie dog” seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine?

A

Nose

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74
Q

Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate the lumbosacral zygapophyseal articulation?

A

30 degrees RPO

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75
Q

Which of the following places the anatomical points of the hand’s third digit in correct order from proximal to distal?

A

Carpometacarpal joint > base of metacarpal > metacarpophalangeal joint > proximal interphalangeal joint > head of middle phalange > distal interphalangeal joint > ungual tuft

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76
Q

Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial tuberosty?

A

Osgood-Schlatter disease

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77
Q

Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the (2)

A
  • Atlantoaxial joint.

- Radioulnar joint.

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78
Q

Components of the bony thorax include the (3)

A
  • Manubrium.
  • Ribs.
  • Thoracic Vertebrae.
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79
Q

Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the

A

Right main stem bronchus

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80
Q

image The PA chest radiograph shown in fig 2-14 demonstrates (2)

A
  • Rotation.

- Scapulae removed from lung fields.

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81
Q

image The letter B in fig 2-14 indicates

A

A left anterior rib

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82
Q

The laryngeal prominence is formed by the

A

Thyroid cartilage

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83
Q

Types of articulations lacking a joint cavity include (2)

A
  • Fibrous.

- Cartilaginous.

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84
Q

The thoracic zygapophyseal joints are demonstrated with the

A

MSP 20 degrees to the IR

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85
Q

The structure located midway between the ASIS and pubic symphysis is the

A

Dome of the acetabulum

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86
Q

image The structure labeled 4 in fig 2-15 is the

A

Maxillary sinus

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87
Q

image Which of the following would best evaluate the structure labeled 3 in fig 2-15?

A

SMV projection

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88
Q

The uppermost portion os the iliac crest is at approx the same level as

A

L4

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89
Q

image The radiograph shown in fig 2-16 demonstrates the articulation between the

A

Talus and navicular

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90
Q

image The ulnar styloid process seen in fig 2-17 is indicated by number

A

9

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91
Q

The articular facets of L5-S1 are best demonstrated in a/an

A

30 degree oblique

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92
Q

The patient’s chin should be elevated during chest radiography to

A

Avoid superimposition on the apices

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93
Q

That portion of a long bone from which is lengthens/grows is the

A

Metaphysis

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94
Q

Posterior displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the

A

Lateral projection

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95
Q

What part of the scottie dog, seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine, represents the pedicle

A

Eye

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96
Q

image All of the following statements regarding the position shown in fig 2-18 are true (3)

A
  • A right pneumothorax could be demonstrated.
  • A left pleural effusion could be demonstrated.
  • The CR is directed horizontally to the level of T7.
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97
Q

Which of the following positions best demonstrates the proximal tibiofibular articulation?

A

45 degree internal rotation

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98
Q

At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate?

A

C4

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99
Q

What is the position of the stomach in a hypersthenic patient?

A

High and horizontal

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100
Q

image Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the shoulder image seen in fig 2-19? (2)

A
  • It provides a lateral view.

- It is useful in trauma situations.

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101
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of the hypersthenic body parts? (2)

A
  • Short, wide, and transverse heart.

- High and peripheral large bowel.

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102
Q

Which of the following conditions is often the result of ureteral obstruction or stricture?

A

Hydronephrosis

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103
Q

Which of the following should be demonstrated in a true AP projection of the clavicle? (2)

A
  • Clavicular body.

- AC joint.

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104
Q

All of the following statements regarding large bowel radiography are true (3)

A
  • The large bowel must be completely empty prior to exam.
  • Retained fecal material can obscure pathology.
  • Double-contrast studies help to demonstrate mucosal lesions.
105
Q

In a lateral projection of the normal knee, the (3)

A
  • Fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia.
  • Patellofemoral joint should be visualized.
  • Femoral condyles should be superimposed.
106
Q

Which of the following conditions is characterized by “flattening” of the hemidiaphragm?

A

Emphysema

107
Q

The term used to describe the presence of blood in vomit is

A

Hematemesis

108
Q

The outermost wall of the digestive tract is the

A

Serosa

109
Q

Which position of the shoulder demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profile medially?

A

Internal rotation

110
Q

image In the PA projection of the hand seen in fig 2-20, which numeral identifies the interphalangeal joint?

A

6

111
Q

In which position of the shoulder is the greater tubercle seen superimposed on the humeral head?

A

Internal rotation

112
Q

image With the patient positioned in fig 2-21, which of the following structures is best demonstrated?

A

Intercondyloid fossa

113
Q

image Which of the following structures is illustrated by number 2 in fig 2-22?

A

Zygomatic arch

114
Q

Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic? (2)

A
  • Condyloid.

- Sellar.

115
Q

Which of the following carpal(s) is/are best demonstrated by ulnar flexion/deviation? (2)

A
  • Lateral carpals.

- Scaphoid.

116
Q

image What should be done to better demonstrate the coracoid process shown in fig 2-23?

A

Angle the CR about 30 degree cephalad

117
Q

An LPO fails to clearly demonstrate the lumbar zygopophyseal articulations. The pedicles are seen on the anterior portion of the vertebral body. What does this indicate?

A

Insufficient rotation

118
Q

In which type of fracture are on the splintered ends of bone forced through the skin?

A

Compound

119
Q

The CR is parallel to the intervertebral foramina in which of the following projections? (2)

A
  • Lateral T-spine.

- Lateral L-spine.

120
Q

Which of the following is/are recommended to reduce the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR in CR/DR imaging of the lumbosacral region? (2)

A
  • Close collimation.

- Lead mat on table posterior to the patient.

121
Q

Which of the following are/is associated with a colles fracture? (2)

A
  • Chip fracture of the ulnar styloid.

- Posterior or backward displacement.

122
Q

Which type of ileus is characterized by cessation of peristalsis?

A

Paralytic

123
Q

The projection/method often used to detect carpal canal defect is the

A

Tangential projection wrist, Gaynor-Hart method

124
Q

A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate (2)

A
  • Foreign body.

- Soft tissue.

125
Q

image Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the images shown in fig 2-24? (2)

A
  • Image A was made with cephalad angulation.

- Image B was made with caudal angulation.

126
Q

Which body habitus type is characterized by a long thorax and very low, medial stomach?

A

Asthenic

127
Q

Which of the following should be performed to rule out subluxation or fracture of the cervical spine?

A

Horizontal beam lateral

128
Q

Structures located proximal to the carpal bones include

A

Radial styloid process

129
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the scapular Y projection of the shoulder is/are true? (2)

A
  • The scapular borders should be superimposed on the humeral shaft.
  • An oblique projection of the shoulder is obtained.
130
Q

An injury to a structure located on the side opposite that of the primary injury is called

A

Contrecoupe

131
Q

The most distal portion of the pharynx is the

A

Laryngopharynx

132
Q

Which part of the mandible will be best visualized with the patient’s head in the PA position and the CR directed 20 degrees cephalad?

A

Rami

133
Q

During IV urography, the prone position is generally recommended to demonstrate (2)

A
  • Ureteral filling.

- The renal pelvis.

134
Q

The plane passing vertically through the body and dividing into anterior and posterior halves is the

A

MCP

135
Q

The act of expiration will cause the (2)

A
  • Sternum and ribs to move inferiorly.

- Diaphragm to move superiorly.

136
Q

image The number 2 in fig 2-25 indicates

A

Spinous process of L1

137
Q

The AP axial projection of the cervical spine demonstrates which of the following?

A

C3-C7 cervical bodies

138
Q

CR angulation may be required to avoid (2)

A
  • Foreshortening or self-superimposition.

- Superimposition of overlying structures.

139
Q

Which of the following is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsometatarsal joints in a dorsoplantar projection of the foot?

A

Angle the CR 10 degrees posteriorly

140
Q

Foot motion caused by turning the ankle outward is termed

A

Eversion

141
Q

Which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace?

A

Patient supine with CR 30-35 degrees angle cephalad

142
Q

Subject/object unsharpness can result from all of the following (3)

A
  • Object shape does not coincide with the shape of the x-ray beam.
  • Object plane is not parallel with the x-ray tube and/or IR.
  • Anatomic object(s) of interest is/are at a distance from the IR.
143
Q

Patients are instructed to remove all jewelry, hair clips, metal prosthesis, coins, and credit cards before entering the room for an examination in

A

MRI

144
Q

The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles? (2)

A
  • IPL perpendicular to the IR.

- IOML parallel to the transverse axis of the IR.

145
Q

image The radiograph shown in fig 2-26 was most likely made in which of the following positions?

A

Prone recumbent

146
Q

Persistent connection between the fetal aorta and pulmonary artery is called

A

A patent ductus arteriosus

147
Q

To evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers

A

Must be supported parallel to the IR

148
Q

The cartilaginous portion of growing bone found at the extremities of long bones is the

A

Epiphysis

149
Q

How should a mobile chest examination be performed to demonstrate air-fluid levels on a patient seated semi upright about 70 degrees?

A

With CR parallel to the floor

150
Q

The ileocecal valve normally is located in which of the following body regions?

A

Right iliac

151
Q

Which of the following is/are true regarding radiographic examination of the AC joints? (2)

A
  • The procedure is performed in the erect position.

- Use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints.

152
Q

A type of cancerous bone tumor occurring in children and young adults and arising from bone marrow is

A

Ewing sarcoma

153
Q

With the patient on the x-ray table with the head lower than the feet, the patient is said to be in the

A

Trendelenberg position

154
Q

Which of the following skull positions will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process?

A

SMV

155
Q

image Which of the following statements are true with respect to the image seen in fig 2-27? (2)

A
  • The zygapophyseal articulations are demonstrated.

- All seven cervical vertebrae are visualized.

156
Q

Which of the following ia/are located on the anterior aspect of the femur?

A

Patellar surface

157
Q

In which of the following tangential axial projections of the patella is complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris required for an accurate diagnosis?

A

Supine flexion 45 degrees (merchant)

158
Q

image In fig 2-28, the structure indicated as number 2 is which of the following?

A

Tubercle of the rib

159
Q

Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to evaluation criteria for a PA projection of the chest for lungs? (2)

A
  • Sternal extremities of clavicles are equidistant from vertebral borders.
  • Ten posterior ribs are demonstrated above the diaphragm.
160
Q

In which of the following positions/projections will the talocalcaneal joint joint be visualized?

A

Plantodorsal projection of the os calcis

161
Q

In the lateral projection of the ankle, the (2)

A
  • Talotibial joint is visualized.

- TIbia and fibula are superimposed.

162
Q

image The position illustrated in the radiograph in fig 2-29 may be obtained with the patient

A

Supine and the CR angled 30 degrees cephalad

163
Q

All of the following positions are likely to be used for both single- and double-contrast examinations of the large bowel (3)

A
  • Lateral Rectum.
  • AP axial sigmoidcolon.
  • RAO and LAO abdomen.
164
Q

Which of the following projections best demonstrates the ankle mortise?

A

Medial oblique 15-20 degrees

165
Q

Which type of pediatric fracture specifically involves the bony growth plate?

A

Salter-Harris

166
Q

image Which aspect(s) of the scapula is/are demonstrated in fig 2-30?

A

It’s posterior aspect

167
Q

image Which of the following is represented by number 3 in fig 2-30?

A

Acromion process

168
Q

image Which of the following is represented by number 8 in fig 2-30?

A

Apex

169
Q

With the patient in the PA position and the OML and CR perpendicular to the IR, the resulting image will demonstrate the petrous pyramids

A

Completely within the orbits

170
Q

When evaluating the PA axial projection of the skull with 15 degree caudal angle, which of the following should be demonstrated? (3)

A
  • Petrous pyramids in the lower 1/3 of the orbits.
  • Equal distance from the lateral border of the skull to the lateral rim of the orbit bilaterally.
  • Symmetrical petrous pyramids.
171
Q

Which of the following barium-filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the LPO position?

A

Hepatic/right colic flexure

172
Q

HSG may be performed for demonstration of (3)

A
  • Uterine tubal patency.
  • Mass lesions in the uterine cavity.
  • Uterine position.
173
Q

During a double-contrast BE, which of the following positions would afford the best double-contrast visualization of the lateral wall of the descending colon and the medial wall of the ascending colon?

A

Right lateral decubitus

174
Q

In the PA axial oblique position of the cervical spine, the structures best seen are the

A

Intervertebral foramina nearest the IR

175
Q

During chest radiography, the act of inspiration (2)

A
  • Raises the ribs.

- Depresses the abdominal viscera.

176
Q

All of the following are palpable bony landmarks that can be used in radiography of the pelvis (3)

A
  • Pubic Symphysis.
  • Greater trochanter.
  • Iliac crest.
177
Q

image Which of the following statements is/are true regarding fig 2-31? (3)

A
  • It demonstrates RAO sternum.
  • Exposure was made during shallow respiration.
  • Sternum was projected in the left thorax.
178
Q

image To better visualize the knee-joint space in the radiograph in fig 2-32, the radiographer should

A

Direct the CR 5-7 degrees cephalad

179
Q

During an air contrast BE, in what part of the colon is air most likely to be visualized in the AP recumbent position?

A

Transverse colon

180
Q

With which of the following does the trapezium articulate?

A

First metacarpal

181
Q

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding a PA projection of the paranasal sinuses? (2)

A
  • The OML is elevated 15 degrees from the horizontal.

- The frontal and ethmoidal sinuses are visualized.

182
Q

With a patient in the PA position and the OML perpendicular to the table, a 15-20 degree caudal angulation would place the petrous ridges in the lower third of the orbit. To achieve the same result in an infant or a small child, it is necessary for the radiographer to modify the angulation to

A

10-15 degrees caudal

183
Q

During GI radiography, the position of the stomach may vary depending on (3)

A
  • The respiratory phase.
  • Body habitus.
  • Patient position.
184
Q

For which of the following conditions is operative cholangiography a useful tool? (2)

A
  • Patency of the biliary ducts.

- Biliary tract calculi.

185
Q

For the average patient, the CR for a lateral projection of a barium filled stomach should enter

A

Midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface

186
Q

In the lateral projection of the foot, the (2)

A
  • Plantar surface should be perpendicular to the IR.

- Metatarsals are superimposed.

187
Q

Which of the following is/are appropriate technique(s) for imaging a patient with a possible traumatic spine injury? (2)

A
  • Maneuver the x-ray tube instead of moving the patient.

- Call for help and use the log rolling method to turn the patient.

188
Q

All elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which position?

A

Lateral

189
Q

image The structure labeled 4 in fig 2-33 is the

A

Odontoid process

190
Q

image In fig 2-33, the posterior arch of the atlas is indicated by the number

A

number 3

191
Q

Which of the following examinations is used to demonstrate vesicoureteral reflux?

A

Voiding cystourethrogram

192
Q

Important considerations for radiographic examinations of traumatic injuries to the upper extremity include (2)

A
  • Both joints must be included in long bone studies.

- Two views, at 90 degrees to each other, are required.

193
Q

In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated?

A

Medial oblique 15-20 degrees

194
Q

In the AP projection of the ankle, the (2)

A
  • Plantar surface of the foot is vertical.

- Fibula projects more distally than the tibia.

195
Q

Which of the following sequences correctly describes a path of blood flow as it leaves the left ventricle?

A

Arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins.

196
Q

Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25 degree RPO position with the CR entering 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS?

A

Left SI joint

197
Q

An AC separation will be best demonstrated in which of the following projections?

A

AP erect, both shoulders

198
Q

Causes of death in 70% of people older than 65 years include (2)

A
  • Stroke.

- Heart disease.

199
Q

In the axiolateral projection of the hip, the CR should be

A

Perpendicular to the femoral neck

200
Q

image Select the statements that correctly describe the image seen in fig 2-34. (4)

A
  • An axial projection the calcaneus is seen.
  • The talocalcaneal joint is visualized.
  • The ankle is dorsiflexed.
  • The sustentaculum tali is visualized.
201
Q

The inhalation of liquid or solid particles into the nose, throat, or lungs is called

A

Aspiration

202
Q

ERCP usually involves (2)

A
  • Introduction of contrast medium into the common bile duct.
  • Introduction of barium directly into the duodenum.
203
Q

The long, flat structures that project posteromedially from the pedicles are the

A

Laminae

204
Q

The axiolateral, or horizontal beam, projection of the hip requires the IR to be placed (2)

A
  • Parallel to the long axis of the femoral neck.

- In contact with the lateral surface of the body.

205
Q

Appropriate radiation protection strategies for the pediatric patient include which of the following?

A

Use appropriate gonadal shielding. Shield torso when examining upper extremities.

206
Q

Which of the following interventional procedures can be used to increase the diameter of a stenosed vessel? (2)

A
  • Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA).

- Stent placement.

207
Q

Which of the following examinations involves the introduction of a radiopaque contrast through a uterine cannula?

A

HSG

208
Q

Arteries and veins enter and exit the medial aspect of each lung at the

A

Hilus

209
Q

The contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with forceful contraction and relaxation of the heart are called?

A

Pulse

210
Q

Which of the following structures should be visualized through the foramen magnum in an AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull for occipital bone? (2)

A
  • Dorsum sella.

- Posterior arch of C1.

211
Q

Which of the following projections/positions would be the best choice for a right shoulder examination to rule out fracture?

A

AP and Scapular Y

212
Q

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular with minimal superimposition?

A

AP oblique, medial rotation

213
Q

Which of the following bone participate(s) in the formation of the obturator foramen? (2)

A

Ischium. Pubis.

214
Q

All of the following are associated with the knee joint (3)

A
  • Fatpad.
  • Menisci.
  • Collateral ligament.
215
Q

The AP projection of the sacrum requires that the CR should be directed (2)

A
  • 15 degrees cephalad.

- Two inches superior to the pubic symphysis.

216
Q

Which of the following positions/projections would best demonstrate cartilage degeneration in the knees?

A

AP erect

217
Q

Elements of the correct positioning for PA projection of the chest include (3)

A
  • Weight evenly distributed on feet.

- Elevation of the chin.

218
Q

image Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the images shown in fig 2-35? (2)

A
  • Image B demonstrates internal rotation.

- The greater tubercle is demonstrated in image A.

219
Q

Which of the following will best demonstrate the size and shape of the liver and kidneys?

A

AP Abdomen

220
Q

The adult cranial bones contain a layer of cancellous tissue between the inner and outer layers called

A

Diploe

221
Q

In the AP axial projection, or bilateral frog leg position, which of the following is most likely to place the long axis of the femoral necks parallel with the plane of the IR?

A

Abducted 40 degrees from the vertical

222
Q

AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed (2)

A
  • Following inversion or eversion injuries.

- To demonstrate a ligament tear.

223
Q

Which of the following projections require(s) that the humeral epicondyles be perpendicular to the IR? (2)

A
  • Lateral forearm.

- Internal rotation shoulder.

224
Q

Image identification markers should include (3)

A
  • Patient’s name and/or ID number.
  • Date.
  • Right or left marker.
225
Q

To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, exposure(s) must be made with the (3)

A
  • Epicondyles perpendicular to the IR.
  • Hand pronated and supinated as much as possible.
  • Hand lateral and in internal rotation.
226
Q

image The image shown in fig 2-36 was made in what position?

A

Right lateral decubitus

227
Q

Which of the following equipment is required when preparing the examining room for myelography? (4)

A
  • Footboard for fluoro table.
  • Shoulder support for fluoro table.
  • Surgical masks.
  • Water-soluble nonionic contrast.
228
Q

Which of the following positions is most likely to place the right kidney parallel to the IR?

A

LPO

229
Q

Which of the following is/are effective in reducing exposure to sensitive tissues for frontal views during scoliosis examinations? (3)

A
  • Use of PA projection.
  • Use of breast shields.
  • Use of compensating filtration.
230
Q

Which type of articulation is evaluated in arthrography?

A

Diarthrodial

231
Q

With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow resting on the table and flexed 80 degrees, and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?

A

Coronoid process

232
Q

Free air in the abdominal cavity is best demonstrated in which of the following?

A

AP projection, left lateral decubitus position

233
Q

Which of the following examinations most likely would be performed to diagnose Wilms’ tumor?

A

IVU

234
Q

A radiolucent sponge can be placed under the patient’s waist for a lateral projection of the lumbosacral spine to (2)

A
  • Make the vertebral column parallel with the IR.

- Place the intervertebral disk spaces perpendicular to the IR.

235
Q

Which of the following sinus groups is best demonstrated with the patient positioned as for a parietoacanthial projection (Waters’ method) with the CR directed through the patient’s open mouth?

A

Sphenoidal

236
Q

Which of the following women is likely to have the most homogenous glandular breast tissue?

A

A post-pubertal adolescent

237
Q

Standard radiographic protocols may be reduced to include two views, at right angles to each other, in which of the following situations?

A

Emergency and trauma radiography

238
Q

Which of the following structures is/are located in the RUQ? (2)

A
  • GB.

- Hepatic flexure.

239
Q

The facial bones include the (4)

A
  • Palatine.
  • Maxilla.
  • Vomer.
  • Mandible.
240
Q

Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition?

A

AP medial oblique

241
Q

Myelography is a diagnostic examination used to demonstrate (2)

A
  • Postraumatic swelling to the spinal cord.

- Posterior disk herniation.

242
Q

Which of the following blood chemistry levels must the radiographer check prior to excretory urography? (2)

A
  • Creatinine.

- BUN.

243
Q

Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture? (2)

A
  • Fractured lateral malleolus.

- Fractured medial malleolus.

244
Q

Which of the following descriptive terms could be associated with an AP recumbent position? (2)

A
  • Supine.

- Dorsal decubitus.

245
Q

The four major arteries supplying the brain include the (2)

A
  • Common carotid arteries.

- Vertebral arteries.

246
Q

Ingestion of barium sulfate is contraindicated in which of the following situations? (3)

A
  • Suspected perforation of a hallow viscus.
  • Suspected large bowel obstruction.
  • Preoperative patients.
247
Q

The term that refers to parts away from the source or beginning is

A

Distal

248
Q

image Which of the following is/are well demonstrated in the lumbar spine shown in fig 2-37? (2)

A
  • Zygapophyseal articulations.

- Inferior articular processes.

249
Q

Which of the following statements is/are correct, with respect to a left lateral projection of the chest? (3)

A
  • The MSP must be perfectly vertical and parallel to the IR.
  • The right posterior ribs will be projected slightly posterior to the left posterior ribs.
  • Arms must be raised high to prevent upper arm soft tissue superimposition of lung field.
250
Q

image Which of the following is well demonstrated just posterior to the lumbar vertebrae in fig 2-38?

A

Psoas muscle

251
Q

Which of the following can be used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa? (2)

A
  • Prone, knee flexed 40 degrees, CR directed cauded 40 degrees to the popliteal fossa.
  • Supine, IR under flexed knee, CR directed cephalad to knee, perpendicular to tibia.
252
Q

In the lateral projection of the scapula, the

A

Vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed

253
Q

Lateral deviation of the nasal septum may be best demonstrated in the

A

Parietoacanthial projection (Waters’ method) projection

254
Q

The AP trendelenburg position is often used during an UGI exam to demonstrate

A

Hiatal hernia

255
Q

image What is the structure labeled number 2 in fig 2-39?

A

Scaphoid

256
Q

image What is the structure labeled number 3 in fig 2-39?

A

Radial styloid

257
Q

Which of the following positions of the abdomen is obtained with the patient lying supine on the radiographic table and the CR directed horizontally to the iliac crest?

A

Dorsal decubitus position

258
Q

Which of the following is a functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP motion present in the cervical spine?

A

Flexion and extension laterals

259
Q

If a patient’s zygomatic arch has been traumatically depressed or the patient has flat cheek bones, the arch may be demonstrated by modifying the SMV projection and rotating the patient’s head

A

15 degrees toward the side being examined

Lange Rad Exam - V12 (5 decks)

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