Chapter 2 Class Flashcards

1
Q

responsibilities of the PCAOB:

A
  1. oversight of the audits of public entities
  2. registering public accounting firms
  3. establishing standards for audit engagements
  4. inspecting the quality of audits conducted by public accounting firms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

who develops standards for the audits of non-issuers?

A

the AICPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

the pronouncements of the PCAOB and AICPA are referred to as:

A

GAAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

objectives of an audit examination:

A
  1. obtain reasonable assurance about whether the financial statements are free from material misstatements
  2. issue a report on the financial statements
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

audit procedures

A

the actions that auditors take to obtain evidence in a specific audit engagement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

audit standards

A

quality guides to the audit that apply to all audits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

three fundamental principles of GAAS:

A
  1. responsibilities of the audit team
  2. performance of the audit
  3. reporting the results of
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Fundamental Principle: responsibilities (3 aspects)

A
  1. having appropriate competence
  2. complying with ethics
  3. maintaining professional skepticism and exercising professional judgements
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

_________ and _________ are necessary for an auditor to be capable

A

experience and education

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

“independence in fact”

A

auditors must be unbiased and impartial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

“independence in appearance”

A

the auditor must appear to be unbiased (can’t have personal interests in the client)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

the two types of relationships that compromise independence:

A

financial relationships and managerial relationships

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

due care

A

a level of performance that would be exercised by reasonable auditors in similar circumstances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

professional skepticism

A

a state of mind that is characterized by appropriate questioning and a critical assessment of audit evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

3 threats to professional skepticism:

A
  1. financial pressure
  2. time pressure
  3. personal relationships with client
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

professional judgement

A

the application of relevant training, knowledge, and experience in making informed decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

auditors must document their professional judgement in a way that:

A

other auditors can understand their judgements made and conclusions reached

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Fundamental Principle: performance

A

sets forth the quality criteria when conducting an audit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

5 stages of an audit

A
  1. obtain (or retain) engagement
  2. engagement planning
  3. risk assessment
  4. audit evidence
  5. reporting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

which principle states that the auditor must obtain reasonable assurance about whether the financial statements are free from material misstatement?

A

performance principle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

auditors are not _________ regarding the fairness of financial statements

A

guarantors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

in regards to planning and supervision, audit standards address:

A
  1. preparing a written audit plan and supervising the work
  2. obtaining knowledge of the client’s business
  3. dealing with differences of opinion among firm’s personnel
23
Q

materiality

A

an amount or event that has a substantial likelihood to influence financial statement user’s decisions

24
Q

auditors should focus on:

A

matters that are important to financial statement users

25
risk assessment
involves identifying important concerns the auditor faces in the audit
26
internal control
the policies and procedures implemented by an entity to prevent or detect material accounting frauds or errors and provide for their correction on a timely basis
27
risk of material misstatement (RMM)
a combination of inherent risk and control risk - the likelihood that an error will exist in the financial statements prior to the auditor's work
28
inherent risk
the probability that a material misstatement will occur
29
control risk
the probability that a material misstatement will not be prevented or detected on a timely basis by the company's internal controls
30
effective internal control =
lower level of control risk, less evidence or less effective substantiative procedures
31
ineffective internal control =
higher level of control risk, more evidence or more effective substantiative procedures
32
substantiative procedure
procedure used to obtain evidence with respect to the fairness of the account balance (i.e. to "substantiate" the account balance)
33
what is required for auditing public companies but not for non-issuers?
testing and reporting on the effectiveness of internal controls on financial reporting
34
audit evidence
the audit team is required to collect and evaluate sufficient appropriate evidence to provide a reasonable basis for their opinion
35
evidence
the information that auditors use in arriving at the conclusions on which to base the audit opinion - includes underlying data and all available corroborating information
36
appropriateness relates to _______, while sufficiency relates to _________
quality, quantity
37
for evidence to be appropriate, it must be:
reliable and relevant
38
relevant
the nature of information provided by the audit evidence
39
reliable
the level of trust an auditor can have in the evidence
40
detection risk
the risk that the audit procedures will fail to detect a material misstatement
41
higher quality of evidence means a ________ detection risk
lower
42
Fundamental Principle: reporting
the final stage of an audit
43
which principle states that the auditor expresses in the form of a written report, an opinion in accordance with the auditor's findings or states that an opinion cannot be expressed?
reporting principle
44
unmodified (unqualified) opinion
all financial statements present fairly, in all material respects, the results of operations, financial position, and cash flows
45
adverse opinion
the financial statements are not presented in conformity with GAAP
46
qualified opinion
the financial statements are presented in conformity with GAAP except for a relatively isolated departure
47
disclaimer
the auditor chooses not to express an opinion, usually due to a lack of independence or severe scope limitation
48
six elements of quality control established by SOA:
1. leadership responsibilities 2. relevant ethical requirements 3. acceptance and continuance of relationships 4. HR 5. engagement performance 6. monitoring
49
goal of monitoring
to provide reasonable assurance that quality control policies and procedures are operating effectively
50
when does the PCAOB inspect firms auditing more than 100 issuers?
annually
51
when does the PCAOB inspect firms auditing less than 100 issuers?
at least every 3 years
52
who reviews non-public audits?
the AICPA
53
when does the AICPA National Peer Review Committee review non-public audits?
every 3 years