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Pre Reg 2021 HUDI > Chapter 2: Cardiovascular system > Flashcards

Chapter 2: Cardiovascular system Flashcards

1
Q

Which NOAC has twice daily dosing? Which has once daily dosing?

A

Twice daily: Apixaban (5mg BD), Dabigatran (150mg BD)

Once daily: Rivaroxiban (20mg OD), Edoxaban (30-60mg OD)

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2
Q

Which NOAC requires loading?

A

Apixaban 10mg twice daily for 7 days followed by 5mg BD maintenance (loading not required for prophylaxis)

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3
Q

Which DOAC interacts with verapamil and subsequently requires a dose reduction? What other medication has the same interaction?

A

Dabigatran

Verapamil increases dabigatran levels, so patients also on verapamil need to take a reduced dose of dabigatran (110mg BD as opposed to 150mg BD)

Same with amiodarone- use max dose of 110mg dabigatran with amiodarone

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4
Q

Which one of the NOACs is a DIRECT THROMBIN inhibitor?

A

Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor

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5
Q

An INR within ____ units of the target range is generally satisfactory

A

0.5 units

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6
Q

A target INR of ____ is used for most things! Eg treatment of DVT/PE, AF patients, electrical cardioversion, myocardial infarction…

A

2.5

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7
Q

Do the NOACS have any food interactions?

A

No But remember to take Rivaroxiban with food to increase absorption

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8
Q

Which NOAC may be crushed an mixed with apple purée/ put through an NG tube before administration?

A

Rivaroxaban

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9
Q

Which CCBs need to be avoided in Heart failure?

A

Verapamil and diltiazem

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10
Q

When should a target INR of 3.5 be used? What is the target for most other conditions?

A

If the patient has a VTE whilst on treatment with warfarin (with an INR above 2).

Mechanical heart valve

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11
Q

Warfarin’s time to peak effect ranges from 3-5 days, so it is not good if immediate effects are needed. NOACs have a much faster onset to action, what is this? Which is the fastest?

A

1 - 4 hours

Dabigatran fastest: peak action 0.5-2 hours after oral admin

Edoxaban: 1-2 hours onset of action

Apixaban and rivaroxaban take around 2-4 hours to peak

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12
Q

What is the difference between Phytomenadione and Phenindinone?

A

Phytomenadione (vit k) is the reversal agent for warfarin overdose

Phenindinone is another oral anticoagulant (coumarin) like warfarin!

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13
Q

What baseline tests do patients need before commencing on a NOAC? Which NOAC is least likely to be chosen with renal impairment ?

A

Baseline renal function - dose reduction required in renal impairment

Dabigatran has most caution with renal function: it is CI if CrCl is under 30 ml/min

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14
Q

Which NOACs should not be used in severe liver disease?

A

All

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15
Q

We know that warfarin interacts with a lot of the CYP enzyme inhibitors and inducers, Which NOACs also have a similar problem? Can you think of any interactions?

A

All

CYP3A4 inhibitors (sickfaces.com) effect these: ketoconazole, itraconazole, Inducers effect these: carbamazepine, rifampicin, phenytoin, St. John’s wort

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16
Q

Which NOAC cannot be put in a compliance aid?

A

Dabigatran

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17
Q

Which DOAC needs the warning label “swallow whole, do not chew or crush”

A

Dabigatran

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18
Q

Which is more problematic if a dose is missed, warfarin or the NOACs?

A

NOACs - shorter half life so if dose is missed there is more time without coagulation If miss a dose of a NOAC

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19
Q

What is the reversal agent for LMWHs?

A

Protamine sulfate

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20
Q

Name me three LMWHs

A

Dalteparin Enoxaparin Tinzaparin

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21
Q

When in pregnancy should warfarin be avoided?

A

First trimester

Crosses the placenta especially in the third trimester

Safe in breast feeding

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22
Q

When used for the prophylaxis of stroke in AF what are the 3 characteristics which are used to identify if a dose reduction is required.

A

age 80+
body weight 60kg or less
Serum creatinine of 133 or greater

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23
Q

Which NOAC causes the most GI side effects?

A

Rivaroxaban: constipation, diarrhoea, abdo pain, nausea, vomiting

Also causes: pain in extremities, Pruritis (itching), Rash

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24
Q

What is heparin induced thrombocytopenia and which heparins is it more common with?

A

Development of very low platelet count

It is an immune mediated reaction that can develop after 5-10 days

More common with UFH than LMWHs

Management: stop the heparin, use something else like Heparinoids

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25
Q

Which anticoagulant is indicated in patients with a history of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia?

A

Danaparoid

This is a Heparinoid so won’t cause the Same reaction

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26
Q

What heparin should we choose in patients with renal impairment?

A

UFH (unfractionated heparins).

This is because the LMWHs Dalteparin, enoxaparin and tinzaparin have their risk of causing bleeds increased in renal impairment

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27
Q

Dalteparin vs dabigatran?

A

Dalteparin is LMWH

Dabigatran is a NOAC

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28
Q

What is the treatment for a VTE (DVT or PE)?

A

Warfarin and bridge with LMWH for at least 5 days or until the INR has been over 2 for 24 hours

Apixaban: 10mg BD for 7 days, then 5mg BD

Edoxaban: 30-60mg OD (lower dose for weight <61kg)

Rivaroxaban: 15mg BD for 21 days then 20mg OD with food

Dabigatran: 150mg BD following at least 5 days of treatment with parenteral anticoagulant

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29
Q

What can be used for VTE treatment in pregnant women?

A

Heparins are Safe in pregnancy as they do not cross the placenta.

LMWHs usually preferred as they carry a lower risk of osteoporosis and heparin induced thrombocytopenia. LMWHs unlicensed in pregnancy for the treatment of VTE

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30
Q

What do we need to monitor with heparins?

A

Weight- dose based on weight
Renal function
Platelet count

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31
Q

What is Bivalirudin and when is it used?

A

It’s a thrombin inhibitor, and it used as an anticoagulant for those undergoing PCI and in NSTE-ACS

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32
Q

What is the anticoagulant used in NSTEMI/ unstable angina episode if angiography is NOT planned within the next 24 hours? What kind of drug is this?

A

Fondaparinux

Synthetic pentasaccharide

If angiography is planned: use LMWH as they have a shorter half life

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33
Q

Which beta blocker has been associated with severe liver damage?

A

Labetalol

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34
Q

Sotalol is a beta blocker commonly used in ventricular arrhythmias, different tachycardias and as Rhythm control following cardioversion in AF. There is an important safety warning that comes with Sotalol, do you know what it is?

A

QT prolongation! May cause life threatening ventricular arrhythmias!! Electrolyte disturbance- especially Hypokaleamia and hypomagnesaemia- need to be sure these are corrected before starting Sotalol or there will be even more risk of arrhythmias

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35
Q

What are the nitrates (GTN, isosorbide dinitrate, isosorbide mononitrate) used in?

A

Principle role in ANGINA- they reduce venous return so reduce left ventricular work of the heart

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36
Q

What are some of the undesirable effects of the nitrates? (3)

A

Flushing
Throbbing Headache
Postural hypotension
dizziness

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37
Q

GTN is one of the most effective drugs at providing rapid symptom relief from angina, it’s effects only last for ______

A

20-30 minutes

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38
Q

You know GTN has a short duration of action, what about isosorbide mononitrate/ dinitrate?

A

Much longer- MR has duration of 12 hours, but not as rapid onset so not as effective for rapid symptomatic relief of angina

BD dosing of nitrates should account for a nitrate free period. Therefore give OM and LU

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39
Q

NITRATES can lead to TOLERANCE and reduced therapeutic effects if long-acting preparations used/ transdermal preps used. What can be done to overcome this?

A

Need to reduce blood nitrate concentration for 4-12 hours each day to avoid tolerance. Eg. If transdermal: leave the patch off overnight If MR isosorbide dinitrate: give the second dose after 8 hours rather than 12 hours

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40
Q

What if patients on Statin therapy develop symptoms of Dysponea, cough and weight loss, what should be done?

A

Seek medical attention ASAP as this could indicate interstitial lung disease

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41
Q

Why is brand specific prescribing required with Nifedipine preparations?

A

Different versions of the the MR preparations may not have the same clinical effects

NB: ADALAT - LA and VALNI- XL are both not appropriate in hepatic impairment

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42
Q

Why should adequate urinary output be established before initiating therapy with a Loop diuretic?

A

Because loops can result in urinary retention if there if an enlarged prostate/ other disruption of urinary flow…Loops usually stimulate more urine production!

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43
Q

If a loop diuretic (eg. Bumetanide, furosemide, co-amilofruse) is needed twice daily, when should the doses be taken?

A

One in the morning and one before 4pm- no later than this otherwise the patient might have a disturbed sleep (waking up to go to the toilet)

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44
Q

When are ACE inhibitors contra-indicated

A

History of angioedema

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45
Q

What is sodium nitroprusside prescribed for?

A

Hypertensive emergencies

Rapidly reduces blood pressure

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46
Q

What anti-platelet drug can cause a throbbing headache as a side effect?

A

Dipyridamole

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47
Q

What does a positive D-dimer test indicate?

A

High level of cross-linked fibrin by-products, i.e. a clot has formed - DVT/ PE

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48
Q

What is the early management for STEMI

A

Immediate: Aspirin 300mg

If having PCI:
Prasugrel and Aspirin (if not on anticoagulant)
Clopidogrel and Aspirin (if on anticoagulant)

If within 12 hours of onset but PCI cannot be performed within 120 minutes of fibrinolysis:
Fibrinolysis and anti-thrombolytic together

If PCI can not be done:
Ticagrelor + Aspirin if no bleeding risk
Clopidogrel + Aspirin if bleeding risk present

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49
Q

Following admission to hospital when should a VTE risk assessment be carried out?

A

Within 24 hours

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50
Q

What does mechanical prophylaxis involve with VTE prevention?

A

Stockings, IPC sleeve

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51
Q

Can you think of any risk factors for VTE?

NB: Classed as HIGH risk if one or more of these are present!

A 
Active cancer/cancer treatment
Aged > 60
Dehydration
History of DVT/VTE
Obesity: BMI over 30
Comorbidites- Heart disease, endocrine, inflammatory condition
COC's/Tamoxifen/HRT
Varicose veins
Pregnancy
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52
Q

Can you think of any risk factors for bleeding?

A 
HASBLED 
Hypertension
Abnormal liver/renal function 
Stroke
Bleeding tendency 
labile INR 
Elderly (Age >65) 
Drugs/alcohol
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53
Q

For patients treated for DVT, PE and prevention of their re-occurence, who want to switch from warfarin to the NOAC rivaroxiban, at what INR can they do so?

A

Once INR is less than or equal to 2.5

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54
Q

As HIT develops the platelet count typically begins to fall _____ days after starting Heparin.

A

5-10 days

Patients who receive any type of heparin should have a baseline platelet count, but after this platelet monitoring is not usually needed.

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55
Q

Colestyramine is a Bile acid sequesterant used in hypercholesteremia when a statin and ezetimibe have failed. When should patients be advised to take other medicines with this?

A

Take other medicines at least 1 hour before or 4 hours after Colestyramine as it can effect their absorption considering it tampers with bile acid

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56
Q

What medication should be added if a patient has a particularly high level of TRIGLYCERIDES?

A

Fenofibrate

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57
Q 
A patient has suffered muscle pain with three different statins now, and the consultant asks you where to go next. Their Triglycerides are within range. Your options are:
Fenofibrate
Ezetimibe
Nicotinic acid
Colestyramine
A

Usual guidance: Statin&raquo_space; Ezetimibe&raquo_space; Fibrate if TGL is high/ bile aid sequesterant/ nicotinic acid. Ezetimibe may also cause Myalgia so rule this out. Patients TGL’s are normal so rule out Fibrates.

Best option if pt has myalgia with ezetimibe: Colestyramine (bile acid sequesterant)

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58
Q

What is the reversal agent for Dabigatran?

A

Idarucizumab- a monoclonal Antibody

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59
Q

Which is more potent Loop: Bumetanide or Furosemide?

A

Bumetanide

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60
Q

Why don’t Afro-carribean patients respond as well to ACE inhibitors/ ARBs?

A

Because these work on the renin-angiotensin system and it has been established that black people have low circulating renin

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61
Q

What kind of drug is Amiloride?

A

Potassium sparing diuretic - hyperkaleamia risk !!

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62
Q

What are the three types of acute coronary syndromes (ACS)

A

STEMI
NSTEMI
UNSTABLE ANGINA

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63
Q

You are a pharmacist on a very busy ward and Mr Jones is suffering from hypertension. The duty doctor wants to give him a medication, but he only wants to prescribe one which is indicated for hypertension only. He is unsure which medication to give. He asks you which medication below would be most suitable for Mr jones?A. AmlodipolineB. FelodiponeC. VerapamilD. Lercanidipine

A

D. Lercanidipine

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64
Q

Is treatment usually required for ectopic beats?

A

No, but can use beta blockers if needed

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65
Q

What two things can you try and control in a patient with AF?

A

Rate and rhythm control

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66
Q

In patients without life-threatening haemodynamic instability, if a patient has onset of AF less than 48 hours ago, what can be offered to the patient?A- rate controlB- rhythm controlC- both

A

C- both

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67
Q

If a patient presents with AF and the onset is more than 48 hours ago or uncertain, is it preferable to control rate or rhythm?

A

Rate

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68
Q

What beta blocker should you not use in rate control for AF?

A

Sotalol because it is known to be proarrhythmic with an increased risk for TdP.

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69
Q
  1. How can ventricular rate be controlled in AF?

2. If this does not work, what can be used?

A
  1. Monotherapy:Standard beta blocker (not sotalol), Rate limiting CCB e.g. verapamil, Diltiazem is used but unlicensed, Digoxin
  2. Combination of beta blocker, digoxin or diltiazem
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70
Q

What group of patients should digoxin monotherapy be used for ventricular control in AF?

A

Only effective for controlling the ventricular rate at rest, so should only be used as monotherapy in sednetary (inactive) patients with non-paroxysmal atrial fibrillation.

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71
Q

What is meant by paroxysmal AF?

A

Episodes come and goEpisodes last from a few seconds - days. In between episodes heart has normal (sinus) rhythm. Most eps convert within 48 hrs

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72
Q

If dual ventricular rate therapy does not control symptoms in AF, what can then be considered?

A

Rhythm control

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73
Q

In patients with AF and diminished ventricular function, what should be used to control rate?

A

Beta blockers that are licensed for use in heart failure and digoxin

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74
Q

Post cardioversion in AF, what is used to maintain sinus rhythm?

A

Beta blocker

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75
Q

What is 1st line for long term rhythm control in AF?

A

Beta blocker (not sotalol)

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76
Q

If amiodarone is needed in an electrical cardioversion patient, how long before and after the procedure can they be on it for?

A

4 weeks before and up to 12 months after

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77
Q

For rhythm control in AF, what group of patients would flecainide acetetate or propafenone NOT be suitable for?

A

Known ischaemic or structural heart disease

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78
Q

When would dronedarone be used in rhythm control for AF?

A

As an option for the maintenance of sinus rhythm after successful cardioversion in people with paroxysmal or persistent atrial fibrillation:- whose atrial fibrillation is not controlled by first‑line therapy (usually including beta‑blockers), that is, as a second‑line treatment option and after alternative options have been considered and who have at least 1 of the following cardiovascular risk factors:-hypertension requiring drugs of at least 2 different classes- diabetes mellitus- previous transient ischaemic attack, stroke or systemic embolism- left atrial diameter of 50 mm or greater or- age 70 years or older andAnd:who do not have left ventricular systolic dysfunction andwho do not have a history of, or current, heart failure.(consider amiodarone in these patients)

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79
Q

What group of patients would you consider amiodarone for rhythm control

A

Left ventricular impairment or heart failure

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80
Q

What 2 drugs can be used for the “pill in the pocket” approach for AF?

A

Flecainide or propafenone

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81
Q

What tool do you use to assess for stroke risk in AF patients?

A

CHADVASC

Congestive heart failure
Hypertension 
Age >75
Diabetes
Vascular disease 
Stroke/TIA previous 
Sex (female)
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82
Q

What tool do you use to assess for bleeding risk?

A

HASBLED

Hypertension 
Abnormal liver/renal 
Stroke
Bleeding tendency 
Labile INR
Elderly (>65) 
Drugs and alcohol
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83
Q

At what CHADVASC score in men would you consider anticoagulation in AF?At what score should you offer (taking into account bleeding risk)?

A

more than or equal to 1

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84
Q

At what CHADVASC score in females would you consider anticoagulation to in AF?

A

2

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85
Q

Is aspirin monotherapy recommended for stroke prevention in AF?

A

No

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86
Q

What is the MHRA warning associated with amiodarone and hepatitis C antivirals?

A

Increased risk of bradycardia and heart block Needs very close monitoring if used together but ideally use alternatives

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87
Q

What are the key side effects of amiodarone?

A
  1. Corneal microdeposits (reversible upon withdrawal of treatment but can cause blindness)
  2. Thyroid function- amiodarone contains iodine and can cause hyper and hypothyroidism (thyrotoxicosis)
  3. Hepatotoxicity
  4. Pulmonary toxicity- pneumonitis should always be suspected is new or worsening SOB occurs
  5. phototoxicity
  6. Grey skin discolouration
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88
Q

What does amiodarone contain that could cause thryoid problems?

A

Iodine

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89
Q

What is the patient advice regarding amiodarone and the sun?

A

Patients should be instructed to avoid exposure to sun and to use protective measures during therapy as patients taking Amiodarone tablets can become unduly sensitive to sunlight, which may persist after several months of discontinuation of Amiodarone tablets. In most cases symptoms are limited to tingling, burning and erythema of sun-exposed skin but severe phototoxic reactions with blistering may be seen.Patients need to shield their skin from light during treatment and for several months after discontinuing treatment as it has a very long half life

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90
Q

What is the main side effects with dronedarone?

A

Can cause/worsen heart failure so patients should seek help if symptoms of SOB, oedema, weight gainHepatic failure - Seek prompt medical attention if symptoms such as abdominal pain, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, fever occurPulmonary toxicity

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91
Q

What is the important safety information regarding sotalol and what it should be used for?

A

QT prolongation

Need to correct any hypokalaemia before starting

The use of sotalol should be limited to the treatment of ventricular arrhythmias orprophylaxis of supraventricular arrhythmias.

It should no longer be used for angina, hypertension, thyrotoxicosis or for secondary prevention after myocardial infaction

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92
Q

If digoxin is being used alongside amiodarone, dronedarone or quinine, what do you do to the dose of digoxin?

A

Half it

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93
Q

When switching from IV to oral digoxin, how should you convert the dose?

A

Increase by approx 33%

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94
Q

True or false: Hypocalcaemia increases risk of digoxin toxicity

A

False

Hypercalcaemia increases this risk

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95
Q

True or false: Hyperkalaemia increases risk of digoxin toxicity

A

False: Hypokalaemia increases this risk

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96
Q

True or false:Hypomagnesaemia increases risk of digoxin toxicity

A

TRUE

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97
Q

Digoxin toxicity- what colour can your vision go?

A

Yellow

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98
Q

What is nimodipine used for?

A

Used in subarachnoid haemorrhage

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99
Q

What should patients immediately receive if they have a suspected TIA?

If within 4.5 hours of symptom onset, what should be given?

A

300mg Aspirin (2 weeks)

Alteplase

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100
Q

Within how many hours of symptom onset for TIA can a patient receive alteplase?

A

Within 4.5 hours

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101
Q

If a patient has been thromobylsed with alteplase for TIA, when should aspirin be given?

A

24 hours after

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102
Q

Can warfarin be started in the acute phase of TIA?

If they are experiencing symptoms or at high risk of VTE or PE, what should the management be?

A

No

Parenteral anticoagulants can be used - risk vs benefit

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103
Q

Anticoagulation should be considered post stroke if the patient has AF. When should you consider aspirin before considering anticoagulation treatment?

A

If it is a disabling ischaemic stroke, give aspirin 300mg for 2 weeks

Then, consider the value of anticoagulation for prevention of stroke in AF

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104
Q

If a patient experiences a disabling ischaemic stroke but has a prosthetic heart valve (and is on anticoagulation), what should happen to their anticoagulation treatment?

A

Stopped for 7 days and substituted with aspirin

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105
Q

Treatment of hypertension in the acute phase of TIA can result in what?

In what situations would you want to lower the blood pressure?

A

Reduced cerebral perfusion

Only lower the blood pressure if:- Hypertensive emergency (>180/110mmHg)- In patients considered for thrombolysis

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106
Q

Following an ischaemic stroke (not associated with AF), what long term treatment is recommended?

A

Clopidogrel + Statin started 48 hours after stroke symptom onset

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107
Q

Long term management post ischaemic stroke:If clopidogrel is contraindicated or not tolerated, what can patients have instead?

A

Modified-release dipyridamole in combination with aspirin

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108
Q

Is long term aspirin monotherapy recommended post ischaemic stroke?

A

No - only in combination with dipyridamole

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109
Q

Is long term MR dipyridamole monotherapy recommended post ischaemic stroke?

A

No - only in combination with aspirin

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110
Q

When should long term anticoagulation be considered post ischaemic stroke?

A

ONLY if the patient has AF

Should not be used for the general long-term prevention of recurrent stroke

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111
Q

When should a statin be started post ischaemic stroke?

What about if their cholesterol levels are in range?

A

48 hours after symptom onset regardless of their cholesterol levels,

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112
Q

How long should a patient be on high dose aspirin post ischaemic stroke?

A

300mg 2 weeks

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113
Q

How do you manage someone in the acute phase of haemorrhagic stroke?

A

Supportive measures e.g. blood pressure, fluids

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114
Q

If a patient has had a haemorrhagic stroke, at what systolic BP would you initiate antihypertensive treatment?

A

Over 200 mmHg

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115
Q

What are the 3 vitamin K antagonists?

A

Warfarin
Acenocoumarol
Phenindione

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116
Q

When would you have a target INR of 3.5?

A

Recurrent DVT/PE in patients receiving anticoagulation and with an INR > 2
Mechanical prosthetic heart valves

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117
Q

How long should a patient be anticoagulated for following an isolated calf DVT?

A

6 weeks

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118
Q

How long should a patient be anticoagulated for following a VTE provoked by a risk factor e.g. surgery, oral contraceptive?

A

3 months

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119
Q

What is the reversal agent for warfarin?

A

Phytomenadione (vitamin K)

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120
Q

If a patient is on warfarin and needs surgery straight away, what should be given?

A

Phytomenadione and dried prothrombin complex

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121
Q

Is aspirin recommended in primary prevention of cardiovascular disease?

A

No

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122
Q

When is aspirin indicated as cardiovascular disease prevention?

A

Secondary preventionNot primary

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123
Q

What is the cut off point for CrCl in apixaban?

A

Avoid if CrCl < 15 mL/min

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124
Q

When do you reduce dose in apixaban in terms of CrCl?

A

15-29 mL/min - reduce dose to 2.5 mg BD for stroke prophylaxis in AF

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125
Q

When do you reduce dose of apixaban in terms of weight?

A

<60 kg - reduce dose to 2.5 mg BD for stroke prophylaxis in AF

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126
Q

If a patient on warfarin has a major bleed, what do you do?

A

Stop warfarin and give phytomenadione by slow IVGive dried prothrombin complexCan give fresh frozen plasma but this is less effective

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127
Q

Warfarin patient:If their INR > 8 and has minor bleeding, what do you do?When would you restart warfarin?

A

Give phytomenadione (vitamin K1) by slow intravenous injection; repeat dose of phytomenadione if INR still too high after 24 hours

Restart warfarin when INR <5.0

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128
Q

Warfarin patient:If their INR > 8 but no bleeding, what do you do?When would you restart warfarin?

A

Give phytomenadione (vitamin K1) by mouth (using injection solution- unlicensed) Repeat dose of phytomenadione if INR still too high after 24 hours

Restart warfarin when INR <5.0

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129
Q

Warfarin patient:If their INR is 5-8 and has minor bleeding, what do you do?

A

Stop warfarin sodium; give phytomenadione (vitamin K1) by slow intravenous injectionRestart warfarin sodium when INR <5.0

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130
Q

Warfarin patient:If their INR is 5-8 and has no bleeding, what do you do?

A

Withhold 1 or 2 doses of warfarin sodium and reduce subsequent maintenance dose

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131
Q

How many days before is warfarin usually stopped before elective surgery?If they are at high risk of clot e.g. VTE in last 3 months, AF with previous stroke, what would you do?

A

5 days Bridge with LMWH and stop this 24 hours before surgery

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132
Q

If a patient who carries high risk of thromboembolism is on LMWH and is having surgery that carries high risk of bleeding, when should the LMWH be restarted?

A

At least 48 hours after

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133
Q

Does unfractionated or low molecular weight heparin have a shorter duration of action?

A

Unfractionated

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134
Q

What is the only DOAC that has a reversal agent?

A

Dabigatran

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135
Q

Are DOACs recommended in patients with prosthetic heart valves?

A

No- efficacy has not been established

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136
Q

Can apixaban be crushed?

A

Yes- mix with water or apple juice/puree

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137
Q

Is apixaban once or twice daily dosing?

A

Twice daily

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138
Q

Is edoxaban once or twice daily dosing?

A

Once daily

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139
Q

If a patient is taking one of the following drugs:- ciclosporin- dronedarone- erythromycin- ketoconazole And needs to be on edoxaban, what is the maximum daily dose?

A

30mg OD

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140
Q

What DOACs are black triangle drugs?

A

Rivaroxaban and edoxaban

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141
Q

When would you reduce the dose of edoxaban in renal impairments?

A

15-50 mL/min

Max 30mg OD

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142
Q

What is the cut off point for renal impairment for edoxaban?

A

Avoid if < 15mL/min

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143
Q

When do you reduce dose of edoxaban in terms of weight?

A

<61 kg reduce to 30mg OD

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144
Q

What is the cut off point for renal impairment for rivaroxaban?

A

Avoid if < 15mL/min

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145
Q

Can rivaroxaban be crushed?

A

Yes in water/apple juice or puree

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146
Q

What can rivaroxaban be used for in ACS patients?

A

Prophylaxis of atherothrombotic events following an ACS with elevated cardiac biomarkersCombined with aspirin alone or with clopidogrel too

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147
Q

Which DOAC should be taken with food?

A

Rivaroxaban

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148
Q

Which DOAC cannot be put in a blister pack?

A

Dabigatran

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149
Q

What is the cut off point for renal impairment for dabigatran?

A

Avoid if < 30 mL/min

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150
Q

When would you reduce dose of dabigatran in renal impairment?

A

30-50 mL/min

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151
Q

What is the advice around a patient on dabigatran who is taking one of the following:- Verapamil- Amiodarone

A

Reduce dabigatran dose

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152
Q

What are the main side effects of heparins?

A

Thrombocytopenia

Haemorrhage

Hyperkalaemia

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153
Q

When do you take anti factor Xa levels?

A

3-4 hours after dose

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154
Q

Are multidose or single vials of dalteparin and enoxaparin recommended in pregnancy and why?

A

Single vials

Multidose vials contain benzyl alcohol so not recommended

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155
Q

What is the MHRA warning associated with Vit K antagonists and hepatitis C antivirals?

A

Changes in liver function (secondary to antivirals for hep C) may effect efficiacy of Vit K antagonists so INR should be closely monitored

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156
Q

In what trimesters of pregnancy are Vit K antagonists particularly dangerous?

A

1st and 3rd

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157
Q

What is the MHRA warning associated with warfarin?

A

Calciphylaxis - patient should consult doctor if they develop a painful skin rash. (Calcification of the small blood vessels located within the fatty tissue and deeper layers of the skin)Particularly in those with end stage renal failure

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158
Q

Are DOACs licensed in cancer patients?

A

No

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159
Q

Are DOACs licensed in antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

No

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160
Q

When would a warfarin patient need to seek medical help with a nose bleed?

A

> 10 mins or heavy bleeding

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161
Q

When would a warfarin patient need to seek medical help with a cut?

A

Bleeding > 30 mins or heavy bleeding

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162
Q

If a warfarin patient is experiencing heavier periods than usual, what should they do?

A

Seek medical help

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163
Q

If a warfarin patient has hit their head/ had an accident but seem fine, what should they do?

A

Seek medical help, always get it checked out to rule out bleed on brain

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164
Q

Do DOACs interact with alcohol?

A

No

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165
Q

Which DOAC has the least risk of GI bleed?

A

Apixaban

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166
Q

Do DOACs or warfarin carry higher GI bleed risk?

A

DOACs (apart from apixaban which has same risk as warfarin)

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167
Q

What juice interacts with warfarin and should therefore be avoided?

A

Cranberry

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168
Q

What is the max time a warfarin patient should go without having their INR checked?

A

12 weeks

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169
Q

What sort of AF are DOACs licensed in?

A

Non valvular

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170
Q

What is valvular AF?

A

AF + artificial heart valve, Mitral stenosis

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171
Q

What would you use for prophylaxis of stroke in valvular patients?

A

Warfarin

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172
Q

Why is missing a DOAC dose more dangerous than missing a warfarin dose?

A

DOACs have a shorter half life

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173
Q

What is classed as stage 1 hypertension? When would you treat?

A

Clinic 140/90 mmHg or higher
daytime average of 135/85 mmHg or higher

Treat when:
under 80 with: Target organ damage, CKD, retinopathy, QRISK 10% or more, Renal disease
or Diabetes

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174
Q

What is classed as stage 2 hypertension?

Would this need treatment?

A

Clinic 160/100 mmHg or higher and daytime average of 150/95 mmHg or higher

Treat all

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175
Q

What is classed as severe hypertension?

Would this need treatment and how?

A

Clinic systolic of at least 180 mmHg or clinic diastolic of at least 110 mmHg

Yes:Hypertensive emergency (acute target organ damage) - IV drugs to reduce BP slowly (otherwise risk of hypoperfusion)

Hypertensive urgency (without organ damage) Oral BP meds to reduce slowly over 24-48 hours

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176
Q

What is the target blood pressure for patients under 80 years including diabetes with no additional disease?

A

Clinic of below 140/90 mmHg Average home of 135/85 mmHg

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177
Q

What is the target blood pressure in those with established atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease/diabetes (with related disease e.g. kidney, eye)?

A

Clinic blood pressure of 135/85

178
Q

What is step 1 in a patient under 55 years with hypertension?

If these are not tolerated or contraindicated, what would be an alternative?

A

ACEi if not tolerated ARB

179
Q

What is step 2 in a patient under 55 years with hypertension?

A

CCB or thiazide diuretic

180
Q

What is step 3 in a patient under 55 years with hypertension?

A

ACEi/ARB combined with CCB and thiazide like diuretic

181
Q

What is step 4 (resistant) in a patient under 55 years with hypertension?

A

Add in alpha blocker/further diuretic/Spironolactone

182
Q

What is step 1 in a patient over 55 years/Black or Carribbean with hypertension?

A

CCB

183
Q

What is step 2 in a patient over 55 years/Black or Carribbean with hypertension?

A

CCB and ACEi/ARB or Thiazide diuretic

184
Q

What is step 3 and 4 in a patient over 55 years/Black or Carribbean with hypertension?

A

Same as under 55 years

ACEi/ARB combined with CCB and thiazide like diuretic

185
Q

What antihypertensive drugs are safe to use in pregnancy?

A 
Labetalol
Methyldopa
MR nifedipine (unlicensed)
186
Q

If a woman (who previously had hypertension) was switched to methyldopa during pregnancy, when should she resume her original antihypertensive treatment?

A

Within 2 days of birth

187
Q

What is a hypertensive emergency?

A

Severe hypertension with acute organ damage

188
Q

How do you treat a hypertensive emergency?

A

IV nicardipine, labetolol

189
Q

When can minoxidil be used in hypertension?

What is the problem with this and what other drugs must the patient be on?

A

Resistant- when other drugs have failed
Tachycardia and fluid retention
Addition of beta blocker to counteract tachycardia and duretic (usually furosemide in high dosage) to help with fluid and electrolyte balance = mandatory

190
Q

Systemic minoxidil is unsuitable for what gender and why?

A

Females as it causes XS hair growth (hypertrichosis)

191
Q

What are the 3 centrally acting antihypertensive drugs?

A

Methyldopa
Clonidine
Moxonidine

192
Q

What kind of drug is prazosin and what is the associated problem with it after the first dose?

A

Alpha blocker and vasodilator

Can reduce BP rapidly after the first dose, so needs to be introduced with caution

193
Q

What should you monitor if patient is on ACEi/ARB and potassium sparing diuretic?

A

Potassium levels- increased risk of hyperkalaemia

194
Q

Are ACEis recommended in people with renal artery stenosis?

A

No

195
Q

What should you monitor if patient is on ACEi and loop diuretic?

A

Blood pressure

ACEi can cause a rapid fall in BP, and so can loops if high dose

196
Q

Under specialist supervision, what two ARBs are licensed alongside ACEi and what for?

A

Candesartan and valsartan for management of heart failure when other treatments are unsuitable

197
Q

When are beta blockers contraindicated?

A

2nd or 3rd degree heart block
Asthma
uncontrolled heart failure
Severe hypotension or bradycardia

198
Q

If a beta blocker is needed in asthma, what type of beta blocker should be used?

A

Cardioselective

199
Q

What are the cardioselective beta blockers?

A 
Atenolol 
Acetabutol 
Bisoprolol 
Nebivolol 
Metoprolol
200
Q

What is the advantage of water soluble beta blockers over lipid soluble ones?

A

Does not cross BBB so less likely to cause sleep disturbances and nightmares

201
Q

What are the side effects of beta blockers?

A

Fatigue Coldness of extremities (Raynaud’s phenomenon) Sleep disturbances (if lipid soluble) Bradycardia Bronchospasm Symptoms of hypoglycaemia can be masked

202
Q

which beta blocker is used for thyrotoxicosis

A

Propranolol 10-40mg TDS-QDS

203
Q

What beta blockers have additional vasodilatory effects?

A

Labetlol Nebivolol Celiprolol Carvedilol Can lower peripheral resistance

204
Q

What is the advice surrounding treatment cessation of beta blockers?

A

Patients are advised to not stop abruptly Can cause rebound myocardial ischaemia Gradual reduction is recommended

205
Q

Is carvedilol a cardioselective beta blocker?

A

No

206
Q

What is the main organ (and related function tests) that should be monitored if on labetalol therapy?

A

Liver

Can cause severe liver injury even after short term treatment

207
Q

What is a disadvantage of water soluble beta blockers in renal impairment?

A

Excreted via the kidneys so requires dose reduction in renal impairment

208
Q

What two CCBs are contraindicated in heart failure?

A

Verapamil and diltiazem

209
Q

What group of cardiac drugs commonly causes peripheral oedema?

A

CCBs

210
Q

Hypokalaemia is associated with what types of diuretics?

A

Loop and thiazide

211
Q

In hepatic failure, hypokalaemia caused by diuretics can result in what?

A

Encephalopathy

212
Q

Thiazide diuretics can exacerbate what conditions?

A

Diabetes
Gout
Systemic lupus erythematosus

213
Q

What is the cut off point regarding renal impairment in thiazides and why?

A

Below 30 mL/min as they are no longer effective

need good kidney function for them to be effective

214
Q

What are the main side effects of ACEis?

A 
Angioedema 
Hyperkalaemia
Hypotension
renal impairment 
Dry cough
215
Q

For ACEis, when should the first dose be given?

A

Bedtime

216
Q

Aliskren is what type of drug and what is it licensed for?

A

Renin inhibitor Essential hypertension

217
Q

What is essential hypertension?

A

Otherwise known as primary hypertension

When there is no clear cause behind the hypertension

218
Q

When is aliskren contraindicated in combination with ACEi/ARB?

A

If eGFR <60 Or in patients with diabetes However, this combination is generally not recommended due to increased risk of hypotension, hyperkalaemia etc

219
Q

What kind of drug is hydralazine?

A

Vasodilator

220
Q

What drugs are used in pulmonary hypertension?

A 
Epoprostenol
Sildenafil
Tadalafil
SelexipagIloprost
Ambrisentan
Bosentan
Macitentan
221
Q

What is the MHRA warning regarding riociguat for pulmonary hypertension?

A

Idiopathic interstitial pneumonias

222
Q

What is first line for heart failure?

A

ACEi and beta blocker

(ARB if ACEi not tolerated)

Loop diuretics to treat fluid overload

223
Q

If a heart failure patient remains symptomatic on ACEi and beta blocker, what can be added?

A

However if showing signs of breathlessness and fluid overload, loop diuretics should be used If symptomatic despite optimal first line treatment, an aldosterone antagonist e.g. spironolactone can be added

224
Q

When would eplerenone be used over spironolactone?

A

In males getting oestrogen-like side effects Or in chronic heart failure after acute myocardial infarction

225
Q

When can you add in ivabradine to heart failure treatment?

A

After ACEi, beta blocker and aldosterone antagonist (on this for at least 4 weeks)

In sinus rhythm with heart rate of 75 bpm or more

226
Q

When can you add in digoxin to heart failure treatment?

A

If it is worsening heart failure and other combinations have not worked

Patient needs to be in sinus rhythm

Routine monitoring of serum levels is not recommended in patients with heart failure

227
Q

For heart failure patients who are fluid overloaded, what can be added?

A

Loop or thiazide

228
Q

Is sacubitril valsartan a black triangle drug?

A

Yes

229
Q

When should you use sacubitril valsartan?

A

Chronic heart failure that LEVF <35% (can already be taking stable dose of ACE or ARB) However, need to stop any ACEis or ARBs

230
Q

Are there established guidelines for preserved (right sided) heart failure?

A

No- existing guidelines are for left sided (reduced ejection fraction) heart failure

231
Q

What vaccines are recommended in heart failure patients?

A

Flu vaccine annually

Pneumococcal (once only)

232
Q

What assessment tool is used for determining if someone needs to go on a statin for primary prevention?

A

QRISK3 Measures 10 year risk of cardiovascular disease

233
Q

What QRISK2 % would indicate someone should go on a statin?

A

10%

234
Q

What are the high intensity statins and what doses?

A

Atorvastatin 20mg OD or higher
Rosuvastatin 10mg OD or higher
Simvastatin 80mg OD

235
Q

What is the highest intensity statin (and dose)?

A

Atorvastatin 80mg OD

236
Q

What statin recommended for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease?

A

Atorvastatin 20mg OD (unlicensed at this starting dose)Dose can be increased if necessary

237
Q

What statin recommended for secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease?

A

Atorvastatin (unlicensed)

238
Q

True or false:All patients with diabetes should be considered for a statin

A

Should be considered in all type 1 diabetics. Based on other risk factors will be started

239
Q

If a patient still has high cholesterol after max dose of statin, what should be added?

A

Another lipid regulating drug e.g. ezetimibe

240
Q

Which of the following are most effective at reducing triglycerides:
Fibrates
Statins
Ezetimibe

A

Fibrates

241
Q

What group of lipid regulating drugs are the most effective at reducing LDL cholesterol?

A

Statins

242
Q

When would you add a fibrate to statin therapy?

A

If triglycerides remain high even after the LDL-cholesterol concentration has been reduced adequately.

243
Q

What is the MHRA advice regarding high dose (80mg) simvastatin?

A

Increased risk of myopathy

244
Q

What is 1st line for familial hypercholesterolaemia?

A

High intensity statin

245
Q

Patients with primary heterozygous familial hypercholesterolaemia who have contra-indications to, or are intolerant of statins, can be considered for treatment with what?

A

Ezetimibe as monotherapy

246
Q

The combination of a statin and fibrate carries the risk of what?

A

Muscle related side effects

247
Q

What is the problem with bile acid sequestrants in lowering cholesterol?

A

Even though they effectively reduce LDL, they can aggravate hypertriglyceridaemia

248
Q

What type of drug is colesevelam and colestipol?

A

Bile acid sequesterant

249
Q

What is the advice surrounding bile acid sequesterants if a patient is on other medication?

A

Avoid taking other drugs at the same time

250
Q

What is the caution surrounding statins and thyroid function?

A

Hypothyroidism needs to be appropriately managed before starting Hypothyroidism may cause high cholesterol and treating this will lower cholesterol without the need for statins

251
Q

What are the side effects of statins?

A

Muscle myopathyInterstitial lung disease - if patient develops SOB, cough, weight loss, seek medical attentionHepatic disorders- LFTs needed before starting treatmentCan cause diabetes in those at risk- but should not be discontinued if blood glucose is high as benefit outweighs risk

252
Q

What creatine kinase level is concerning in a statin patient?

A

If it is 5 x upper limit of normal

253
Q

What is the max dose of atorvastatin if a patient is on ciclosporin?

A

10mg OD

254
Q

What kind of stroke is atorvastatin cautioned in?

A

Haemorrhagic Higher incidence of this type of stroke

255
Q

What is the max dose of simvastatin if combined with bezafibrate or ciprofibrate?

A

10mg OD

256
Q

What is the max dose of simvastatin if combined with amiodarone?

A

20mg OD

257
Q

What is the max dose of simvastatin if combined with amlodipine?

A

20mg OD

258
Q

What is the max dose of simvastatin if combined with diltiazem/verapamil?

A

20mg OD

259
Q

What is the max dose of simvastatin if combined with ticagrelor?

A

20mg OD

260
Q

What kind of juice should be avoided in patients on a statin?

A

Grapefruit

261
Q

Acute attacks of stable angina should be managed with what?

A

Sublingual GTN

262
Q

If a patient is on GTN for attacks of stable angina, when is regular drug therapy indicated?

A

If attacks occur more than twice a week

263
Q

After GTN, how is stable angina managed?

A

Beta blocker or CCB. Diltiazem or verapamil are more effective than other CCBs

264
Q

In stable angina, if a beta blocker or CCB monotherapy fails to control symptoms, what should you do?

A

Combination of beta blocker and dihydropyridine CCB e.g. amlodipine (Not diltiazem or verapamil due to increased risk of hypotension and bradycardia with beta blocker)

265
Q

When is a long acting nitrate indicated in stable angina?What can alternatively be added?

A

If the following steps have not controlled symptoms:
1. GTN
2. Add in beta blocker/CCB
3. Combine beta blocker and CCB therapy
Other options:Ivabradine, nicorandil, ranolazine can be added in OR monotherapy if beta blockers and CCBs are not tolerated/contraindicated

266
Q

True or false:Stable angina medication should be titrated according to symptom control to the maximum tolerated dose

A

TRUE

267
Q

How often should response to stable angina treatment be monitored?

A

Every 2-4 weeks

268
Q

What are the requirements for an individual starting on ivabradine for stable angina?

A

Needs to be in normal sinus rhythm and heart rate of 70 bpm or over

269
Q

What interacts with ivabradine?

A

CYP3A4 inhibitors

270
Q

What drugs are contraindicated alongside ivabradine?

A

Diltiazem, clarithromycin, erythromycin, verapamil

271
Q

Does ranolazine prolong QT interval?

A

Yes

272
Q

Does ivabradine prolong QT interval?

A

Yes

273
Q

What is the MHRA alert with nicorandil?

A

Can cause skin/mucosal/eye ulceration including GI ulcers. Stop if this occurs and consider alternative

274
Q

What is the difference between stable and unstable angina?

A

Stable angina (more common) – attacks have a trigger (such as stress or exercise) and stop within a few minutes of restingUnstable angina (more serious) – attacks are more unpredictable (they may not have a trigger) and can continue despite resting

275
Q

ACS is an umbrella term for what 3 conditions?

A

Unstable anginaNSTEMISTEMI

276
Q

What is the difference between STEMI and NSTEMI?

A

STEMI results in irreversible damage of the heart muscleNSTEMI can progress to STEMI

277
Q

Are lower or higher doses of thiazide diuretics preferable in hypertension?

A

Lower doses produce maximal/near maximal BP lowering effect Higher doses have little advantage over BP lowering but causes more biochemical disturbances

278
Q

What are the preferred thiazide like diuretics in hypertension?

A

Indapamide and chlortalidoneSome patients still take bendro although this is no longer considered first line

279
Q

Should potassium supplements be given with potassium sparing diuretics and aldosterone antagonists?

A

No

280
Q

What type of diuretic is mannitol and when is it used?

A

Osmotic that can be used to treat cerebral oedema and raised intra-ocular pressure

281
Q

What group of patients are particularly susceptible to side effects of diuretics?

A

Elderly so lower initial doses used

282
Q

If a patient has an enlarged prostate and is on a loop diuretic, what can occur?

A

Urinary retention

283
Q

Diuretics increase the risk of what in alcoholic cirrhosis?

A

Hypomagnesaemia and therefore arrhythmias

284
Q

Can beta blockers be used with verapamil and diltiazem?

A

No- severe interactionBradycardia and hypotension risk

285
Q

How does atorvastatin interact with diltiazem and verapamil?

A

Increases exposure of atorvastatin so increased risk of myopathyAdjust atorvastatin dose and monitor

286
Q

What is the MHRA advice surrounding ivabradine?

A
  • Monitor for symptoms of bradycardia and do not prescribe with other medicines that causebradycardia, eg, verapamil or diltiazem-If heart rate reduces to less than 50 bpm, a dose reduction can be considered or drug stopped ifthis persists- Monitor regularly for signs of atrial fibrillation- Consider stopping if no or only limited improvement after three months
287
Q

Does ranolazine interact with simvastatin? If so, what should be done?

A

Increases exposure of simvastatin, so statin dose should be adjustedOr Change to atorvastatin (although interaction is still present, manufacturer does not give dose adjustment advice)

288
Q

What is the target blood pressure in a pregnant lady with uncomplicated chronic hypertension?

A

<150/90mmHg

289
Q

What is 1st line for gestational hypertension What are alternatives?

A

LabetalolMethyldopa, MR nifedipine

290
Q

Although labetalol is used in pregnancy for hypertension, in what group of patients should it not be used in it it can be helped?

A

Asthmatics

291
Q

Aspirin is often given to pregnancy who are at a high risk of pre-eclampsia after week 12 of pregnancy. Is this a licensed indication?

A

No

292
Q

What is the difference between hypertensive emergency and hypertensive urgency?

A

A hypertensive emergency is defined as severe hypertension (>180/110mmHg) with acute organ damage

A hypertensive urgency is defined as severe hypertension with NO acute organ damage.

293
Q

Sudden withdrawal of clonidine can result in what?

A

Rebound hypertension

294
Q

What type of drug is chlortalidone?

A

Thiazide like diuretic

295
Q

For step 2 treatment in hypertension in Afro and Caribbean patients, is an ACEi or an ARB preferred?

A

ARB

296
Q

What is the risk of starting a patient on ACEi and diuretic?

A

Electrolyte imbalances

May cause a very quick fall in BP

297
Q

What are examples of water soluble beta blockers? (CANS acronym)

A

Celiprolol, Atenolol, Nadolol, Sotalol

298
Q

What is the most cardioselective CCB?

A

Verapamil

299
Q

What two CCBs should not be used in unstable angina?

A

Amlodipine and nifedipine

300
Q

What CCB should you take 30-60 minutes before food?

A

Lercanidipine

301
Q

What kind of drug is indapamide?

A

Thiazide like diureticUsually used in preference for earlier stages of hypertension over a thiazide diuretic e.g. bendro

302
Q

What kind of drug is metolazone?

A

Thiazide like diuretic

303
Q

What age is nebivolol licensed for in heart failure?

A

70 years and over

304
Q

Thiazides are ineffective in an EGFR of what?What is the exception to this?

A

< 30 Metolazone but this is associated with excessive risk of diuresis

305
Q

Aldosterone antagonists are contraindicated in what condition?

A

Addison’s Disease

306
Q

Should spironolactone be taken with food?

A

Yes- with or just after food

307
Q

What diuretic can cause urine to look blue under certain lights?

A

Triamterene

308
Q

True or false:Statins should be considered for all Type 1 diabetic patients, especially if over 40 years

A

TRUE

309
Q

What is the aim of treatment for statin use in primary and secondary prevention for cholesterol levels?

A

The aim of treatment is to reach a non-HDL concentration of greater than 40% or target non-HDL cholesterol concentration below 2.5 mmol/litreIncrease statin dose if this is not achieved

310
Q

Are fibrates recommended in primary and secondary prevention?

A

No

311
Q

What cholesterol lowering drug class is first line for high cholesterol?

A

Statins

312
Q

What cholesterol lowering drug class is first line for primary and secondary prevention?

A

Statins

313
Q

What is the problem with using gemfibrozil and a statin together?

A

Severe interaction- avoidRisk of rhabdo

314
Q

What is the aim of treatment for statin use in familial hypercholesterolaemia for cholesterol levels?

A

The dose of the statin should be titrated to achieve a reduction in LDL-cholesterol concentration of greater than 50% from baseline.

315
Q

What dose of simvastatin is classed as high intensity?

A

80mg daily

316
Q

What dose of atorvastatin is classed as high intensity?

A

20mg daily

317
Q

What dose of rosuvastatin is classed as high intensity?

A

10mg daily or more

318
Q

If a patient was prescribed systemic (oral) fusidic acid and was regularly on a statin, what would you do?

A

Suspend statinStatin therapy may be re-introduced seven days after the last dose of fusidic acid.

319
Q

If a patient was prescribed macrolides and was regularly on a statin, what would you do?

A

Suspend statin during antibiotic treatment

320
Q

What is the max dose of simvastatin you can have if taken with amlodipine?

A

20mg daily

321
Q

What is the recommendation with statins during pregnancy or if the patient is wishing to conceive?

A

Statins should be avoided in pregnancy (discontinue 3 months before attempting to conceive) as congenital anomalies have been reported

322
Q

What is a main side effect of nitrates?

A

Headaches and postural hypotension

323
Q

True or false:You can develop tolerance with nitrate use

A

TrueReducing the nitrate concentration in the blood for 4 to 8hours each day usually maintains effectiveness e.g. by giving twice dailypreparations after 8 hours then after 16 hours.

324
Q

On an aspirin prescription, if no strength is stated what does the BP direct to do?

A

Dispense the 300mg

325
Q

What is the antidote for overdose of unfractionated heparin and LMWH?

A

Protamine sulphate

326
Q

When would verapamil be preferred over adenosine in supraventricular arrhythmias?

A

In asthmatics

327
Q

What is the storage requirements for GTN tablets?

A

GTN tablets should be supplied in glass containers of not more than 100 tablets, closed with a foil-lined cap, and containing no cotton wool wadding (i.e. the original container). They should be discarded after 8weeks.

328
Q

What is the the advice regarding how to take GTN spray and when to seek medical attention?

A

400–800 micrograms (1-2 sprays), to be administered under the tongue and then close mouth, dose may be repeated at 5 minute intervals if required; if symptoms have not resolved after 3 doses, medical attention should be sought.

329
Q

What is the oral loading dose regimen for amiodarone in arrhythmias?

A

200mg TDS for 1 weekThen 200mg BD for 1 weekThen 200mg OD maintenance

330
Q

What is the CHADVASC score along with its associated points?

A

Congestive heart failure - 1Hypertension - 1Age (75 years and above) - 2Diabetes - 1Stroke/Thromboembolism - 2Vascular disease - MI, peripheral artery disease - 1Age 65-74 years - 1Sex (female) - 1

331
Q

What does HAS BLAD stand for?

A

Each has 1 point:HypertensionAbnormal renal/liver functionStrokeBleeding tendencyLabile INRAge > 65 Drugs that could cause bleeding or alcohol

332
Q

When should digoxin levels be taken?

A

6 hours or more post dose

333
Q

What is the MHRA warning on hydrochlorothiazide?

A

Risk of non-melanoma skin cancer, particularly in long-term use

334
Q

In what situations would you reassess using warfarin for anticoagulation (INR ranges)?

A

2 INR values higher than 5 in the last 6 months or
1 INR value higher than 8 in the last 6 months

Time in therapeutic range < 65%

335
Q

Amiodarone IV should be put in what fluid and why?

A

Glucose It is incompatible with sodium chloride

336
Q

Warfarin is stopped 5 days before elective surgery. At what INR would you administer phytomenadione the day before?

A

If INR is 1.5 or above, give phytomenadione

337
Q

Post surgery, if a warfarin patient is haemodynamically stable, when can their warfarin be restarted?

A

Evening of surgery or day after

338
Q

When should ACEi and ARBs be stopped before surgery?Why is it recommended that they are stopped?

A

24 hours before - don’t give the morning of Can be associated with severe hypotension after induction of anaesthesia

339
Q

When should potassium sparing diuretics be stopped before surgery and why?

A

The morning of surgery Hyperkalaemia may develop if renal perfusion is impaired or if there is tissue damage

340
Q

When should loop diuretics be stopped before surgery?

A

Don’t give the morning of

341
Q

If a patient is on LMWH and required epidural, how should this be managed?

i) prophylactic dose
ii) treatment dose

A

i) Prophylactic dose - stop at least 12 hours before
ii) Treatment dose- stop at least 24 hours before

due to the risk of neuraxial haematoma

342
Q

In pregnant women with target-organ damage as a result of chronic hypertension, and in women with chronic hypertension who have given birth, what is their target BP?

A

<140/90 mmHg

343
Q

Which cardio drug class can cause gingival hyperplasia (gum overgrowth)?

A

CCBs

344
Q

True or false:Routine digoxin monitoring is recommended in heart failure patients

A

FALSE

345
Q

What monitoring requirements are needed with amiodarone and when?What additional precautions are needed for IV administration?

A
  1. Thyroid function tests before treatment and then every 6 months NB- clinical assessment of thyroid function is unreliable (T4, T3 and TSH should all be measured) 2. LFTs before treatment and then every 6 months 3. Potassium concentration before treatment - hypokalaemia monitoring4. Chest X-Ray before treatment IV use - requires ECG monitoring and resuscitation facilities need to be available
346
Q

How does warfarin and amiodarone interact?

A

Amiodarone inhibits warfarin metabolism - enhanced anticoagulation

347
Q

How does amiodarone interact with beta blockers?

A

Increased risk of bradycardia, AV block and myocardial depression

348
Q

How does amiodarone interact with lithium?

A

Risk of ventricular arrhythmias

349
Q

How does amiodarone interact with digoxin?

A

Plasma concentration of digoxin increased by amiodarone

350
Q

Is digoxin a positive or negative ionotrope?

A

Positive - increases the force of myocardial contraction and reduces conductivity within the AV node

351
Q

What is the desired digoxin level?

A

1-2mcg/L

352
Q

How does digoxin interact with eythromycin?

A

Digoxin concentration increased as erythromycin is an enzyme inhibitor

353
Q

How does digoxin interact with rifampicin?

A

Digoxin concentration decreased as rifampicin is an enzyme inducer

354
Q

How does digoxin interact with St John’s Wort?

A

Digoxin concentration decreased as St John’s Wort is an enzyme inducer

355
Q

How does digoxin interact with loop and thiazide diuretics?

A

Increased toxicity risk - hypokalaemia

356
Q

How does digoxin interact with CCBs?

A

Digoxin concentration increased by CCBs

357
Q

True or false:Warfarin is highly protein bound

A

TRUE

358
Q

Can you use warfarin in severe renal impairment?

A

Yes but need to monitor INR more frequently

359
Q

How does warfarin interact with NSAIDs?

A

Increased anticoagulation effect

360
Q

How does warfarin interact with fluconazole?

A

Increased anticoagulation effect

361
Q

How does warfarin interact with statins?

A

Increased anticoagulation effect

362
Q

How does warfarin interact with ciprofloxacin, metronidazole, erythromycin?

A

Increased anticoagulation effect

363
Q

How does warfarin interact with griseofulvin?

A

Decreased anticoagulation effect

364
Q

How does warfarin interact with St John’s Wort?

A

Decreased anticoagulation effect

365
Q

How does warfarin interact with antiepileptics?

A

Decreased anticoagulation effect

366
Q

How does warfarin interact with cranberry juice?

A

Anticoagulant effect enhanced by cranberry juice

367
Q

Which of these drugs is not associated with ototoxicity?Loop diureticsAminoglycosidesAspirinCalcium channel blockers

A

CCBs

368
Q

In what condition is spironolactone contraindicated in?

A

Addisons it is an aldosterone antagonist

369
Q

Which of these drug classes carries the risk of hypoglycaemia unawareness?Alpha blockersACEisBeta blockers

A

Beta blockersThey can mask the symptoms of hypoglycaemia that would otherwise be detected by the patient

370
Q

What is the MOA of class 1 antiarrythmics?

A

Sodium channel blockers

371
Q

What is the MOA of class 2 antiarrythmics?

A

Beta blockers

372
Q

What is the MOA of class 3 antiarrythmics?

A

Potassium channel blockers

373
Q

What is the MOA of class 4 antiarrythmics?

A

Calcium channel blockers

374
Q

What is the target blood pressure for patients 80 years and older?

A

Clinic - 150/90Home- 145/85 mmHg for people aged 80 years and over.

375
Q

If AF has been present for more than 48 hours, what procedure is preferred?What anticoagulation length is recommended?

A

Electrical cardioversionNeeds to be orally anticoagulated 3 weeks before and then 4 weeks after cardioversion

376
Q

Before an electrical cardioversion for AF, it is recommended that the patient is orally anticoagulated 3 weeks before and then 4 weeks after the procedure. If this is not possible, what is an alternative?

A

Parenteral anticoagulation Left arterial thrombus needs to be ruled out immediately before the procedure Oral anticoagulation for 4 weeks after

377
Q

What are the two types of cardioversion?

A

Electrical Pharmacological

378
Q

If pharmacological cardioversion is required, what can be used?

A

IV amidarone (preferred if patient has heart disease)Or IV Flecainide

379
Q

Is digoxin rate or rhythm control?

A

Rate

380
Q

What are the class 1 antiarrhythmics?

A

Membrane stabilising drugs - lidocaine, flecainide

381
Q

What are the class 2 antiarrhythmics?

A

Beta blockers

382
Q

What are the class 3 antiarrhythmics?

A

Amiodarone, sotalol Sotalol is also class 2

383
Q

What are the class 4 antiarrhythmics?

A

Non-dihydropyridine CCBs e.g. verapamil

384
Q

What group of patients is adenosine contraindicated in?

A

Asthmatics COPD

385
Q

Can amiodarone cause:a) Hypothyroidismb) Hyperthyroidismc) Both

A

Both

386
Q

What is the effect of amiodarone on potassium levels?

A

Can cause hypokalaemia

387
Q

Does amiodarone have a long or short half life?

A

Long

388
Q

Does digoxin have a long or short half life?

A

Long

389
Q

What are the digoxin interactions? (CRASED) acronym

A 
Calcium channel blockers (verapamil)
Rifampicin
Amiodarone
St Johns Wort
Erythromycin
Diuretics - hypokalaemia risk
390
Q

Is systolic hypertension a bleeding or a VTE risk?

A

Bleeding risk

391
Q

Is fondaparinux a LMWH?

A

NoIt is a synthetic and selective inhibitor of activated Factor X (Xa)

392
Q

What is the safest class of medicine to use for a VTE in pregnancy?

A

LMWH

393
Q

Does unfractionated heparin or LMWH carry a lower risk of osteoporosis?

A

LMWH

394
Q

Does unfractionated heparin or LMWH carry a lower risk of HIT?

A

LMWH

395
Q

What do you need to monitor regularly if a patient is on unfractionated heparin?

A

APTT (activated partial thromboplastin time)

396
Q

What is the antidote for heparin?

A

Protamine

397
Q

What effect can heparins have on potassium levels?

A

Can cause hyperkalaemia

398
Q

What is the treatment dose of dalteparin for VTE or PE?What is the max dose a day?

A

200 units/kg ODMax 18,000 units OD

399
Q

What is the treatment dose of enoxaparin for VTE or PE in low risk patients?

A

1.5mg/kg OD

400
Q

What is the treatment dose of enoxaparin for VTE or PE in high risk patients?What would be classed as high risk?

A

1mg/kg BDObesityCancerRecurrent VTEProximal thrombosis - above the knee

401
Q

What is a proximal thrombosis?

A

Above the knee

402
Q

What is a distal thrombosis?

A

Below the knee

403
Q

White warfarin tablets are what strength?

A

0.5mg

404
Q

Brown warfarin tablets are what strength?

A

1mg

405
Q

Blue warfarin tablets are what strength?

A

3mg

406
Q

Pink warfarin tablets are what strength?

A

5mg

407
Q

If a patient has had a major bleed on warfarin, in addition to IV phytomenadione, is dried prothrombin complex or fresh frozen plasma preferable?

A

Dried prothrombin complex

408
Q

If a warfarin patient is due for surgery but their INR is still too high, what can be given?

A

Oral phytomenadione the day before if INR is 1.5 or above

409
Q

What is the treatment dose of tinzaparin for VTE or PE?

A

175 units/kg ODSame dose in pregnancy and for high risk patients e.g. cancer

410
Q

What is the expiry date of dabigatran capsules in a bottle once opened?

A

4 months (if usual blister packaging, expiry is 4 months)

411
Q

After the acute phase of an ischaemic stroke, what should the blood pressure target be?

A

130/80 max

412
Q

Can beta blockers be used in the management of hypertension following a stroke?

A

No - unless already on for an existing condition

413
Q

What drugs would you avoid in a haemorrhagic stroke that you would normally use in an ischaemic stroke?

A

Avoid aspirin, statins and anticoagulants in a patient with haemorrhagic strokeOnly give if essential eg very high risk of ischaemic event

414
Q

If a hypertensive emergency (acute organ damage), why would you want to reduce the BP slowly?

A

To reduce the risk of reduced organ perfusion

415
Q

When would you treat Stage 1 hypertension (140/90)?

A

If under 80 with:Target organ damage, CKD, retinopathyQRISK 10% or moreRenal diseaseDiabetes

416
Q

When would you refer in Stage 1 hypertension?

A

Patients under 40 years with no overt target organ damage/risk factors To find out if there is a secondary cause of hypertension

417
Q

Which ACEi is a pro drug and conversion to its active drug is reduced by food?

A

Perindopril Better to take 30-60 mins before food

418
Q

Do ARBs cause a dry cough?

A

No (it does not inhibit the breakdown of bradykinin)

419
Q

What are the beta blockers that have intrinsic sympathomimetic activity?What are the advantages of these?

A 
PACO
Pindolol
Acebutol
Celiprolol 
Oxprenolol
Less bradycardia and less coldness of the extremities
420
Q

What are the once daily dosing beta blockers?

A 
BACoN
Bisoprolol
Atenolol
Celiprolol
Nadalol
421
Q

What CCB commonly causes constipation?

A

Verapamil

422
Q

What are the main side effects of CCBs?

A

Ankle swellingFlushingHeadaches

423
Q

What beta blockers are licensed in heart failure?

A

For all grades of HF:BisoprololCarvedilolFor mild-moderate HF and in 70 years + :Nebivolol

424
Q

When can you use nebivolol for HF?

A

For mild-moderate HF and in 70 years +

425
Q

How does sacubitril work?

A

Inhibits breakdown of BNP

426
Q

What role does a combination of hydrazaline and isosorbide dinitrate play in heart failure?

A

Useful if the patient is on an ACEi and BB and remains symptomatic Especially if the patient is Black/Caribbean

427
Q

If a patient on a statin reports feeling short of breath, having a cough and weight loss, what should you do?

A

ReferInterstitial lung disease is a side effect of statins

428
Q

If a patient is on a statin, at what LFT level would you stop the statin?

A

If it is 3 x the upper limit of normal

429
Q

If a patient is on a statin, at what creatine kinase level would you stop the statin?

A

If it is 5 x the upper limit of normal

430
Q

When taking a nitrate, is it recommended the patient stands up or sits down?

A

Sits down - can cause dizziness

431
Q

As patients can develop tolerance with nitrates, what is the recommendation is off a nitrate patch?

A

Leave patch off for 8-12 hours (overnight)

432
Q

Can loop diuretics exacerbate diabetes and gout?

A

Yes

433
Q

Which drug used in heart failure and resistant hypertension can cause menstrual disturbances, such as post menopausal bleeding?

A

Spironolactone

434
Q

In what 3 groups of patients would you offer lipid modification therapy for primary prevention without the need for a formal assessment?

A
  1. Type 1 diabetics
  2. CKD eGFR <60
  3. Familial hypercholesterolaemia
    CONSIDER lipid modification therapy for 85 years and older (as QRISK score is not applicable to this age group)
435
Q

The QRISK tool has an upper age limit of what?

A

84 years

436
Q

True or false:All pravastatin strengths are low intensity

A

TRUE

437
Q

What is the target for total cholesterol?

A

< 5 mmol/L

438
Q

What is the target for LDL?

A

< 3 mmol/L

439
Q

What is the target for HDL?

A

> 1.0 mmol/L

440
Q

What is the target for triglycerides?

A

< 1.7 mmol/L

441
Q

Is amiodarone an enzyme inducer or inhibitor?

A

Enzyme inhibitor

442
Q

What is licensed for the following:Potassium conservation when used as an adjunct to thiazide or loop diuretics for hypertension or congestive heart failure

A

Amiloride

Pre Reg 2021 HUDI (21 decks)

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