CHAPTER 2 Flashcards

1
Q

FLIGHT DECK DOOR

A
  1. ) the flight deck door must be kept closed and locked at all times during flight except to permit access and egress in accordance with the FOM and this CFM
  2. ) Any time the flight deck door is opened in flight, a challenge and response closing and locking verification must be used to verify that the door is closed and locked.
  3. ) Any time one of the required flight crew leaves the flight deck, another crewmember must be present in the flight deck to ensure that the required crewmember is not locked out of the flight deck
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2
Q

Maneuvering limit load factors

  1. ) Flaps up
  2. ) Falps down
A
  1. ) -1.0g to 2.5g

2. ) 0.0g to 2.0g

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3
Q

Aircraft approach catagory

A

When conducting instrument approach procedures, always use CATEGORY D to determine the applicable approach minimums.

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4
Q

Maximum Ramp Weight (MRW)

A

85,000lbs

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5
Q

Maximum Takeoff weight

A

84,500lbs

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6
Q

Maximum Landing weight (MLW)

A

75,100lbs

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7
Q

Maximum zero fuel weight (MZFW)

A

70,750lbs

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8
Q

Minimum flight weight

A

45,000lb

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9
Q

Baggage Compartment

  1. ) Aft
  2. ) Forward
A
  1. ) 3,650 lbs company

2. ) 1,700lbs

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10
Q

The maximum cruise Mach number during flight in RVSM airspace is?

A

.82 Mach

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11
Q

Max speed Flaps 1 degree

A

230 KIAS

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12
Q

max speed flaps 8 degree

A

230 kias

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13
Q

max speed flaps 20 degree

A

220 kias

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14
Q

max speed flaps 30 degree

A

185 kias

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15
Q

max speed flaps 45 degree

A

170 kias

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16
Q

maximum airspeed for landing gear extension

A

220 kias

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17
Q

maximum airspeed for landing gear retraction

A

200 kias

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18
Q

maximum airspeed for which the airplane may be flown with the landing gear extended and locked

A

220 kias

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19
Q

maximum airspeed for turbulence penetration

A

280 kias or .75, whichever is lower

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20
Q

maximum airspeed for windshield wiper operation

A

250 kias

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21
Q

If the windshield wiper has failed in a non-parked position, this airplane speed must not be exceeded.

A

250 kias

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22
Q

Maximum tire limit speed

A

195 knots ground speed

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23
Q

Maximum speed for ADG operation

A

VMO/MMO

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24
Q

Maximum tailwind component for takoff and landing

A

PIC-10knots

SIC-10knots

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25
Q

Maximum crosswind component for takeoff on a dry runway. (company)

A

PIC-35knots

SIC-35knots

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26
Q

Maximum crosswind component for landing on a dry runway. (company)

A

PIC-32knots

SIC-32knots

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27
Q

Maximum allowable crosswind component for takeoff and landing on a wet runway, (company)

A

PIC-27knots

SIC-27knots

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28
Q

Maximum allowable crosswind component for takeoff and landing on a runway when the braking action is “FAIR” (company)

A

PIC-20knots

SIC-20knots

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29
Q

Maximum allowable crosswind component for takeoff and landing on a runway when the braking action is “POOR”

A

PIC-15knots

SIC-15knots

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30
Q

Maximum allowable crosswind component for takeoff and landing on a dry runway for a crewmember on high minimums status in the CRJ-900 (company)

A

PIC-25knots

SIC-15knots

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31
Q

Maximum airport pressure altitude for takeoff and landing?

A

T/O-9,600’

Landing-9,600’

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32
Q

Maximum operating altitude

A

41,000 ft

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33
Q

Maximum ambient air temperature approved for takoff

Minimum ambient temperature approved for takeoff

A

ISA +35 DEGREE

-40 DEGREE C

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34
Q

Maximum runway slopes approved for takoff and landing are:
Uphill
Downhill

A

Uphill: +2%
Downhill: -2%

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35
Q

Cargo flight must be within __ minutes of a suitable airport if cargo is carried in either cargo compartment.

A

60

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36
Q

Taxi lights

A

The taxi lights must be switched OFF whenever the airplane is stationary in excess of 10 minutes.

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37
Q

Wheel brake cooling

A

Brake cooling times must be observed between a landing or a low-energy rejected takeoff (RTO) and a subsequent takeoff to ensure that sufficient brake energy is available to bring the airplane to a complete stop if the subsequent takeoff is rejected.

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38
Q

Pressure Cabin, Maximum relief differential pressure

A

8.7 PSI

39
Q

The maximum negative differential pressure

A

-.5 PSI

40
Q

During taxi, takeoff, and landing, the differential pressure must not exceed

A

.1 PSI

41
Q

The maximum altitude for single pack operation

A

25,000 feet

42
Q

The airplane must be completely depressurized prior to ….

A

opening any of the airplane doors

43
Q

To preclude possible crew and/or passenger ear damage use of the….

A

EMER DEPRESS switch ablove 15,000 feet is prohibited.

44
Q

Operation with the autopilot engaged is prohibited at altitudes below 600 ft. AGL, except when performing the following:

A
  • For visual and non-precision approaches, the minimum autopilot use height is 400’ AGL
  • For precision approaches (ILS), with both engines operating, the minimum autopilot use height is 80’ AGL.
  • For precision approaches (ILS), with one engine inoperative, the minimum autopilot height is 110’ AGL.
  • Operations with an ILS glidepath angle that exceeds 3.5 degrees are prohibited.
45
Q

RVSM Airspace

A

The ADC source coupled to the active autopilot must be the same as that coupled to the ATC transponder during flight in RVSM airspace.

46
Q

Individual AC generator loading must not exceed the following values.
0-41,000

A

Load Limitation
Main Generator (each)-40
APU Generator- 40

47
Q

Permissible Loads on DC system in flight?

A

The maximum permissible continuous load on each TRU is 120 amps

48
Q

Permissible loads on DC system:
To protect the flight compartment CRT displays, the maximum permissible time for ground operations with DC power only is…..

A

5 minutes

49
Q

Circuit breaker reset (in flight)

A

A circuit breaker must not be reset or cycled (i.e. opened or closed) unless doing so is consistent with explicit procedures specified in this manual or unless, in the judgment of the pilot in command, that resetting or cycling of the circuit breaker is necessary for the safe completion of the flight.

50
Q

Minimum Descent Altitude

A

When setting the MDA marker on the barometric altimiter using the DH/MDA knob on the air data reference panel, the next highest 10 foot increment must be selected if the altitude is not at a 10 foot increment.

51
Q

Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System(TCAS)

A

Pilots are authorized to deviate from their ATC clearance in order to comply with a traffic alert and collision avoidance system (TCAS) resolution advisoy (RA) command.

52
Q

Cowl Anti-Ice System, Ground Operations

A

The cowl anti-ice system must be ON when the OAT is 10 degrees C (50 F) or below and visible moisture in any form is present (such as fog with a visibility of 1 mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, and ice crystals)
The cowl anti-ice system must also be ON when the OAT is 10 C or below when operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush is present.
Note: if the use of cowl anti-ice and the continuous ignition are required at the same time, select the cowl anti-ice on prior to selecting continuous ignition on.

53
Q

Cowl Anti Ice system in Flight
Note: Icing conditions exist in flight at a TAT of 10 degree C or below and visible moisture in any form is encountered ( such as clouds, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals) except when the SAT is -40C or below.

A

The cowl anti-ice system must be on:
when in icing conditions, or
When ICE is annunciated by the ice detection system.

54
Q

Wing Anti-Ice (ground ops)
Wing anti-ice system must be ON for takeoff when the OAT is __ or below and visible moisture in any form is present (such as fog with a visibility of 1 mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, and ice crystals.)

A

5 degree C

55
Q

Wing Anti-ice (ground ops)
The Wing anti-ice system must also be ON for takeoff when the OAT is __ or below and the runway is contaminated with surface snow, slush, or standing water

A

5 degree C

56
Q

Wing Anti-ice (ground ops)
When Type II, III, IV anti icing fluids have been applied, the wing anti-ice system must be selected __, if required just prior to thrust increase for takeoff.

A

ON

57
Q

Wing Anti-Ice (Flight ops)
Icing conditions exist in flight at a TAT of __ or below and visible moisture in any form is encountered (such as clouds, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals), except when the SAT is __ or below.

A

10 degree C

-40 degree C

58
Q

Wing Anti-ice (Flight ops)
The wing anti-ice system must be ON:
1.)
2.)

A

1.) when ICE is annunciated by the ice detection system, or
2.) When in icing conditions and the airspeed is less than 230 kias
Do not hold in icing conditions with the flaps/slats extended.

59
Q

Pneumatic System

Wing and/or cowl anti-ice selection is prohibited with the……

A

APU as a bleed source in manual mode.

60
Q

Super cooled Large Droplet icing

A

continued operation in areas where super cooled large droplet (SLD) icing conditions exist is prohibited. SLD icing conditions are indicated by ice accretion on the flight compartment side windows.

61
Q

What two systems must be on when entering SLD

A
  1. ) the wing anti-icing system must be ON in SLD icing conditions.
  2. ) the cowl anti-icing system must be ON in SLD icing conditions.
  3. ) leave icing conditions when side window icing occurs.
62
Q

Cold Operations:

When is Takeoff prohibited

A

takeoff is prohited with frost, ice, snow, or slush adhering to any critical surface (wings, winglets, horizontal stabilizer, vertical stabilizer, control surfaces, and engine inlets).

63
Q

The maximum permissible fuel imbalance between the contents of the main left tank and the main right tank are?

A

During Takeoff-300lbs

all other phases of flight- 800lbs

64
Q

Takeoff with a fuel load in excess of ____lbs in the center tank is not permitted unless each wing tank is above _____lbs

A

500lbs

4,400 lbs

65
Q

The minimum fuel for go-around is ____lbs per wing and assuming a maximum airplane climb attitude of __degrees nose up.

A

600lbs

10 degree nose up

66
Q

Fuel Temperature:

Takeoff with engine fuel temperature indications below ___ is prohibited.

A

5 degree C (41 degree F)

67
Q

Fuel Cross-flow:

Powered cross-flow and gravity cross-flow must be off for _________

A

takeoff

68
Q

APU start:

The minimum ambient temperature for starting a cold soaked APU on the ground is?

A

-40 degree C

69
Q

The APU starter motor duty cycle is as follows:

A

1.) Do not perform more than three starts/start attempts in one hour.
Note: a two minute delay must be observed between cranking attempts to allow for cooling of started and starter contractor and for APU drainage.

70
Q

APU bleed air limitations:

Bleed Air Extraction

A

APU bleed air extraction is not permitted above 25,000’

71
Q

APU bleed air limitations:

Engine start during ground operations?

A

No bleed air extraction limitation.

Each engine may be started using the APU as a bleed air source.

72
Q

APU generator:

The maximum permissible load on the APU generator is?

A

40kVA.

73
Q

Engine warm up:
The engine must remain at _____ until oil pressure reaches normal operating range.
During all starts, do not exceed ____N1 for two minutes after start, or until all operating indications are in the normal range, whichever is longer.

A

IDLE

75% N1

74
Q

Engine HIGH PWR SCHEDULE switch (company)

Use of the HIGH PWR SCHEDULE switch is not permitted for?

A

Normal operations

75
Q

Airplane cold soak:
Before the first flight of the day, when the airplane is cold-soaked at an ambient temperature of -30C or below for more than 8 hours:

A
  • Engines must be motored for 6o seconds and the fan rotation must be verified before an engine start is initiated.
  • Thrust reversers must be actuated until the deploy and stow cycles are 5 seconds or less.
76
Q

Continuous Engine Ignition:

Continuous engine ignition must be used during the following:

A

-Takoffs and landings on contaminated runways.
-flight through moderate or heavier intensity rain
-flight through moderate or heavier intensity turbulance.
-Flight in vicinity of thunderstorms.
Note: if the use of cowl anti ice and continuous ingnition are required at the same time, select the cowl anti-ice on prior to selecting continuous ignition on. (company)

77
Q

Reduced (flex) thrust takeoff:

FLEX thrust takoff procedures must not be used:

A
  • if wing and/or cowl anti-icing bleeds are in use.
  • on runways contaminated with standing water, slush, snow, or ice.
  • when warning of windshear or downdrafts have been forecast.
  • when the anti-skid system is inoperative.

The flex thrust procedure may be used on wet runways, provided that wet runway performance data are used.

78
Q

The starter must not be use if indicated __ RPM exceeds __%

A

N2, 45%

79
Q

Engine Starts (ground)
1 &2
3 through 5

A
  • 90 seconds on followed by 10 seconds cool down

- 90 seconds on followed by 5 minutes cool down.

80
Q

Engine start or motoring (flight)

  • 1st start
  • 2nd-5th start
A
  • max time on 120 seconds followed by 10 seconds cool down.

- max time on 60 seconds followed by 5 minutes cool down.

81
Q

Motoring (ground)

  • Start 1
  • start 2-5
A
  • max time on 90 seconds followed by 5 minutes cool down.

- max time on 30 seconds followed by 5 minutes cool down.

82
Q

At initiation of thrust lever movement from SHUT OFF to IDLE…

A
  • ITT must be 120 degree C or less for all ground starts.

- ITT must be 90 degree C or less for all air starts.

83
Q

Thrust reversers:

5 items

A
  • thrust reversers are approved for ground use only; activation of the reverse thrust levers is prohibited in flight.
  • thrust reversers are intended for use during full stop landings. Do not attemt a go-around maneuver after deployment of the thrust reversers.
  • takeoff with thrust reverser icons or EICAS warning and or caution messages displayed is prohibited.
  • during landing, maximum reverse thrust is prohibited below 75 KIAS, and reverse idle should be achieved by 60 KIAS.
  • during preflight check of the thrust reversers with the airplane stationary, reverse thrust must be limited to reverse idle.
84
Q

Reverse taxi ops:

Reverse taxi operations or powerback is?

A

strictly PROHIBITED in all situations.

85
Q

Slats/Flaps

-En-route us of slats/flaps is?

A

prohibited

86
Q

Slats/Flaps

flight with slats/flaps extended at altitudes above______ is prohibited.

A

15,000 feet

87
Q

Flight spoilers:

Flight spoilers must not be extended in flight below an altitude of _____?

A

1000’AGL

88
Q

Flight Spoilers:

To ensure adequate maneuver margins, flight spoilers must not be extended in flight at airspeeds below _________?

A

Vref +10 for the current weight and flap configuration.

89
Q

Stall protection System

A

Both stall protection system switches must remain on for all phases of flight.

90
Q

Required equipment for RVSM

A

Autopilot-must be operational
Altitude alerting system-must be operational
Altitude reporting transponder(2)- 1 operational
ADC-2 must be operational

91
Q

Fuel quantities
Left tank:
Right tank:
Center tank:

A

Left tank:7492
Right tank:7492
Center tank:4610
Total:19594

92
Q

APU type and spec

A

Aligned signal RE 220 (RJ)

Max RPM: 106%

93
Q

Maximum EGT (dependendent upon altitude and temp)

A

0-100% rpm- 692 to 1038