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AS 121 Section 2 Review > Chapter 2 > Flashcards

Chapter 2 Flashcards

1
Q

One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to?
A. Decrease the AOA without increasing the airspeed
B. Permit a touchdown at a higher indicated airspeed
C. Increase the AOA of descent without increasing the airspeed

A

C. Increase the AOA of descent without increasing the airspeed

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2
Q

What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?
A. To control yaw
B. To control over banking tendency
C. To control roll

A

A. To control yaw

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3
Q

Which is not a primary flight control surface?
A. Flaps
B. Stabilator
C. Ailerons

A

A. Flaps

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4
Q

The elevator controls movement around which axis?
A. Longitudinal
B. Lateral
C. Vertical

A

B. Lateral

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5
Q

Which statement is true concerning primary flight controls?
A. The effectiveness of each control surface increases with speed because there is more airflow over them.
B. Only when all three primary flight controls move in sequence do the airflow and pressure distribution change over and around the airfoil
C. Primary flight controls include ailerons, rudder, elevator, and trim systems

A

A. The effectiveness of each control surface increases with the speed because there is more airflow over them

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6
Q

Which of the following is true concerning flaps?
A. Flaps are attached to the leading edge of the wing and are used to increase wing lift
B. Flaps allow an increase in the angle of descent without increasing airspeed
C. Flaps are high drag devices deployed fro, the wings to reduce lift

A

B. Flaps allow an increase in the angle of descent without increasing airspeed

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7
Q

Which device is secondary flight control?
A. Spoilers
B. Ailerons
C. Stabilators

A

A. Spoilers

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8
Q

Trim systems are designed to do what?
A. They relieve the pilot of the need to maintain constant back pressure on the flight controls
B. They are used during approach and landing to increase wing lift
C. The move in the opposite direction from one another to control roll

A

A. They relieve the pilot of the need to maintain constant back pressure on the flight controls

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9
Q

When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium?
A. During unaccelerated level flight
B. When the aircraft is accelerating
C. When the aircraft is at rest on the ground?

A

A. During unaccelerated level flight

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10
Q

What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust, and weight when the airplane is in straight and level flight?
A. Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag
B. Lift, drag, and weight equal thrust
C. Lift and weight equal thrust and drag

A

A. Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag

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11
Q

Which statement relates to Bernoulli’s principle?
A. For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction
B. An additional upward force is generated as the lower surface of the wing deflects air downward
C. Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface

A

C. Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface

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12
Q

The term of “angle of attack” is defined as the angle?
A. Between the wing chord line and the relative wind
B. Between the airplanes climb angle and the horizon
C. Formed by the longitudinal axis of the airplane and the chord line of the wing

A

A. Between the wing chord line and the relative wind

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13
Q

Angle of attack is defined as the angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the?
A. Direction of the relative wind
B. Pitch angle of an airfoil
C. Rotor plane of rotation

A

A. Direction of the relative wind

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14
Q

The acute angle A is the angle of?
A. Incidence
B. Attack
C. Dihedral

A

B. Attack

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15
Q

The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind is known as the angle of?
A. Lift
B. Attack
C. Incidence

A

B. Attack

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16
Q

The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls?
A. Increase if the CG is moved forward
B. Change with an increase in gross weight
C. Remain the same regardless of gross weight

A

C. Remain the same regardless of gross weight

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17
Q

As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will?
A. Decrease as the true airspeed decreases
B. Decrease as the true airspeed increases
C. Remain the same regardless of altitude

A

C. Remain the same regardless of altitude

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18
Q

In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?
A. Partially stalled with one wing low
B. In a steep diving spiral
C. Stalled

A

C. Stalled

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19
Q

During a spin to the left, which wings is/are stalled?
A. Both wings are stalled
B. Neither wing is stalled
C. Only the left wing is stalled

A

A. Both wings are stalled

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20
Q

How will frost on the winds of an airplane affect takeoff performance?

A. Frost will disrupt the smooth Flow of air over the wing, adversely affecting its lifting capability
B. Frost will change the camber of the wing, increasing its lifting capability
C. Frost will cause the airplane to become airborne with a higher angle of attack, decreasing the stall speed

A

A. Frost will disrupt the smooth flow of air over the wing, adversely affecting its lifting capability

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21
Q

Why is frost considered hazardous to flight?
A. Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoils, thereby increasing lift
B. Frost slows the airflow over the airfoils, thereby increasing control effectiveness
C. Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over wings, thereby decreasing lifting capability

A

C. Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings, thereby decreasing lifting capability

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22
Q

How does frost affect the lifting surfaces of an airplane on takeoff?
A. Frost may prevent the airplane from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed
B. Frost will change the camber of the wing, increasing lift during takeoff
C. Frost may cause the airplane to become airborne with a lower angle of attack at a lower indicated airspeed?

A

A. Frost may prevent the airplane from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed

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23
Q

What is ground effect?
A. The result of the interference of the surface of the earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane
B. The result of an alteration in airflow patterns increasing induced drag about the wings of an airplane
C. The result of the disruption of the airflow patterns about the wings of an airplane to the point where the wings will no longer support the airplane in flight

A

A. The result of the interference of the surface of the earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane

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24
Q

War must a pilot be aware of as a result of ground effect?
A. Wingtip vortices increase creating wake turbulence problems for arriving and departing aircraft
B. Induced drag decreases, therefore, any excess speed at the point of flare may cause considerable floating
C. A full stall landing will require less up elevator deflection than would a full stall when done free of ground effect

A

B. Induced drag decreases, therefore, any excess speed at the point of flare may cause considerable floating

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25
Q

An aircraft leaving ground effect during takeoff will?
A. Experience a reduction in ground friction and require a slight power reduction
B. Experience an increase in induced drag and a decrease in performance
C. Require a lower angle of attack to maintain the same lift coefficient

A

B. Experience an increase in induced drag and a decrease in performance

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26
Q

Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem?
A. Settling to the surface abruptly during landing
B. Becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed
C. Inability to get airborne even though airspeed is sufficient for normal takeoff needs

A

B. Becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed

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27
Q

What force makes an airplane turn?
A. The horizontal component of lift
B. The vertical component of lift
C. Centrifugal force

A

A. The horizontal component of lift

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28
Q

An airplane said to be inherently stable will?
A. Be difficult to stall
B. Require less effort to control
C. Not spin

A

B. Require less effort to control

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29
Q

What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?
A. The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift
B. The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder, and rudder trim tab
C. The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag

A

A. The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift

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30
Q

Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircrafts?
A. Lift/drag ratio
B. Lifting capacity
C. Aerodynamic balance and controllability

A

C. Aerodynamic balance and controllability

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31
Q

An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this airplane would be?
A. A longer takeoff run
B. Difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition
C. Stalling at higher than normal airspeed

A

B. Difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition

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32
Q

What causes an airplane to pitch nose down when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted?
A. The CG shifts forward when thrust and drag are reduced
B. The downward on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced
C. When thrust is reduced to less than weight, lift is also reduced and the wings can no longer support weight

A

B. The downward on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced

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33
Q

Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be?
A. Less stable at all speeds
B. Less stable at slow speeds, but more stable at High speeds
C. Less stable at high speeds, but more stable at low speeds

A

A. Less stable at all speeds

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34
Q

What is the effect of advancing the throttle in flight?
A. Both aircraft ground speed and AOA will increase
B. Airspeed will remain relatively constant but the aircraft will climb
C. The aircraft will accelerate, which will cause a turn to the right

A

A. Both aircraft ground speed and AOA will increase

35
Q

In what flight condition are torque effects more pronounced in a single engine airplane?
A. Low airspeed, high power, high AOA
B. Low airspeed, low power, low AOA
C. High airspeed, high power, High AOA

A

A. Low airspeed, high power, high AOA

36
Q

The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P factor is the result of the?
A. Clockwise rotation of the engine and the propeller turning the airplane counterclockwise
B. Propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than ascending blade on the left
C. Gyroscopic forces applied to the rotating propeller blades acting 90 degrees in advance of the point the force was applied

A

B. Propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than ascending blade on the left

37
Q

When does the p factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left?
A. When at low angles of attack
B. When at high angles of attack
C. When at high airspeeds

A

B. When at high angles of attack

38
Q

The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the?
A. Position of the CG
B. Speed of the airplane
C. Abruptness at which the load is applied

A

B. Speed of the airplane

39
Q

Which basic flight maneuver increase the load factor of an airplane as compared to straight and level flight?
A. Climbs
B. Turns
C. Stalls

A

B. Turns

40
Q

During an approach to a stall, an increased load factor will cause the aircraft to?
A. Stall at a higher airspeed
B. Have a tendency to spin
C. Be more difficult to control

A

A. Stall at a higher airspeed

41
Q

A positive load factor of 2 at 80 mph would cause the airplane to?
A. Stall
B. Break apart
C. Operate normally, as it is within the normal operating range

A

A. Stall

42
Q

In the northern hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if?
A. An aircraft is decelerated while on an east or west heading
B. A left turn is entered from a west heading
C. An aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading

A

C. An aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading

43
Q

During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?
A. Only in straight and level unaccelerated flight
B. As long as the airspeed is constant
C. During turns if the bank does not exceed 18 degrees

A

A. Only in straight and level unaccelerated flight

44
Q

Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by?
A. Presence of flaws in the permanent magnets of the compass
B. Difference in the location between true north and magnetic north
C. Magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force

A

C. Magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force

45
Q

Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by?
A. Northerly turning error
B. Certain metals and electrical systems within aircraft
C. The difference in location of true north and magnetic north

A

B. Certain metals and electrical systems within aircraft

46
Q

The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?
A. Altimeter
B. Vertical speed indicator
C. Airspeed indicator

A

C. Airspeed indicator

47
Q

which system becomes inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged?
A. Altimeter
B. Vertical speed indicator
C. Airspeed indicator

A

C. Airspeed indicator

48
Q

What does IMSAFE stand for?

A 
Illness
Medication 
Stress 
Alcohol 
Fatigue 
Eating and emotion
49
Q

What is the caution range of the airplane?
A. 0 to 60 kts
B. 100 to 165 kts
C. 165 to 208 kts

A

C. 165 to 208 kts

50
Q

The maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air is?
A. 100 kts
B. 165 kts
C. 208 kts

A

C. 208 kts

51
Q

What is the full fall operating range of the airplane?
A. 55 to 100 kts
B. 55 to 208 kts
C. 55 to 165 kts

A

A. 55 to 100 kts

52
Q

Which marking identifies the never exceed speed?
A. Upper limit of the green arc
B. Upper limit of the white arc
C. The red radial line

A

C. The red radial line

53
Q

Which color identifies the power off stalling speed in a specified configuration?
A. Upper limit of the green arc
B. Upper limit of the White arc
C. Lower limit of the green arc

A

C. Lower limit of the green arc

54
Q

What is the maximum flaps extended speed?
A. 65 kts
B. 100 kts
C. 165 kts

A

B. 100 kts

55
Q

Which color identifies the normal flap operating range?
A. Yellow arc
B. Green arc
C. White arc

A

C. White arc

56
Q

Which color identifies the power off stalling speed with wing flaps and landing gear in the landing configuration?
A. Upper limit of the green arc
B. Upper limit of the white arc
C. Lower limit of the white arc

A

C. Lower limit of the white arc

57
Q

What is the maximum structural cruising speed?
A. 100 kts
B. 165 kts
C. 208 kts

A

B. 165 kts

58
Q

What is absolute altitude?
A. The altitude read directly from the altimeter
B. The vertical distance of the air craft above the surface
C. The height above the standard datum plane

A

B. The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface

59
Q

What is true altitude?
A. The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level
B. The vertical distance of the aircraft about the surface
C. The height above the standard datum plane

A

A. The vertical distance of the AC above sea level

60
Q

What is density altitude?
A. The height above the standard datum plane
B. The pressure altitude corrected for no standard temperature
C. The altitude read directly from the altimeter

A

B. The pressure altitude corrected for non standard temperature

61
Q

What is pressure altitude?
A. The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error
B. The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92
C. The indicated altitude corrected for non standard temperature and pressure

A

B. The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92

62
Q

Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates?
A. Calibrated altitude at field elevation
B. Absolute altitude at field elevation
C. True altitude at field elevation

A

C. True altitude at field elevation

63
Q

Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?
A. If he altimeter has no mechanical error
B. When at sea level under standard conditions
C. When at 18,000 feet MSL with the altimeter set at 29.92

A

B. When at sea level under standard conditions

64
Q

Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?
A. At sea level, when the temperature is at 0 degrees f
B. When the altimeter has no installation error
C. At standard temperature

A

C. At standard temperature

65
Q

Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
A. When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92 hg
B. When standard atmospheric conditions exist
C. When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude

A

B. When standard atmospheric conditions exist

66
Q

Coming from low pressure into an area of high pressure with out the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate?
A. The actual altitude above sea level
B. Higher than the actual altitude above sea level
C. Lower than the actual altitude above sea level

A

C. Lower than the actual altitude above sea level

67
Q

Coming from high pressure to an area of Low pressure without adjusting the altimeter, the altitude will?
A. Lower than actual altitude above sea level
B. Higher than the actual altitude above sea level
C. The actual altitude above sea level

A

B. Higher than the actual Altitude above sea level

68
Q

Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?
A. Air temperature lower than standard
B. Atmospheric pressure lower than standard
C. Air temperature warmer the standard

A

C. Air temperature warmer than standard

69
Q

Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?
A. In colder than standard air temperature
B. In warmer than standard air temperature
C. When the density altitude is higher than indicated altitude

A

A. In colder than standard air temperature

70
Q

How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?
A. Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude
B. Higher temperatures expand the pressure levels and the indicate altitude is higher than true altitude
C. Lower temperatures lower the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude

A

C. Lower temperatures lower the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude

71
Q

A turn coordinator provides an indication of the?
A. Movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axes
B. Angle of bank up to but not exceeding 30 degrees
C. Altitude of the AC with reference to the the longitudinal axis

A

A. Movement of the AC about the yaw and roll axes

72
Q

To receive accurate indications during flight from a heading indicator, the instrument must be?
A. Set prior to flight on a known heading
B. Calibrated on a compass rose at regular intervals
C. Periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro processes

A

C. Periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro processes

73
Q

After practicing unusual altitudes, you notice the heading indicator is off by 110 degrees. The heading indicator can be reset by
A. Pushing the cage knob
B. Pulling the cage knob
C. Leaving it alone, because it will be the exact same as the compass heading

A

A. Pushing the cage knob

74
Q

What is a benefit of flying with a glass cockpit?
A. There is no longer a need to carry paper charts in flight
B. Situational awareness is increased
C. Terrain avoidance is guaranteed

A

B. Situational awareness is increased

75
Q

An AC which is equipped with an electronic flight display (EFD) can?
A. Compensate for an airman’s lack of skill or knowledge
B. Offer new capabilities and simplify the basic flying task
C. Improve flight awareness by allowing the pilot to simply watch for alerts

A

B.offer new capabilities and simplify the flying task

76
Q

An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by?
A. The oil level being too low
B. Operating with a too high viscosity
C. Operating with an excessively rich mixture

A

A. The oil level being too low

77
Q

Excessively high engine temperatures will?
A. Cause damage to heat conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fins
B. Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage
C. Not appreciably affect an AC engine

A

B.Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage

78
Q

Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground will?
A. Increase fuel consumption and may increase power due to the increased heat
B. Result in damage to heat conducting hoses and warping of cylinder cooling fans
C. Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage

A

C. Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage

79
Q

For internal cooling, air cooled engines are especially dependent on?
A. A properly functioning thermostat
B. Air flowing over the exhaust manifold
C. The circulation of lubricating oil

A

C. The circulation of lubricating oil

80
Q

How is the engine operation controlled on an Engine equipped with a constant speed propeller?
A. The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine rpm
B. The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates a constant blade angle
C. The throttle controls engine RPM as registered on the tachometer and the mixture control regulates the power output

A

A. The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine rpm

81
Q

If the ignition switch ground wire becomes disconnected, the magneto?
A. Will not operate because the battery is disconnected from the circuit
B. May continue to fire
C. Will not operate

A

B. May continue to fire

82
Q

What condition is more favorable of development to carburetor icing?
A. Any temp below freezing and relative humidity of less than 50 percent
B. Temp between 32 degrees and 52 degrees and low humidity
C. Temp between 20 degrees and 72 degrees and high humidity

A

C. Temp between 20 degrees and 72 degrees and high humidity

83
Q

The operating principle of float type carburetors is based on the?
A. Automatic metering of air at the Venturi as the aircraft gains altitude
B. Difference in air pressure at the Venturi throat and the air inlet
C. Increasing in air velocity in the throat of a Venturi causing an increase in air pressure

A

B. Difference in air pressure at the Venturi throat and the air inlet

AS 121 Section 2 Review (1 decks)

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