Chapter 19 Pt 2 Flashcards

1
Q

____ and ___ are peptides that act as ion-conducting antibiotics (ionophores) that allow uncontrolled movement of ions across the cell membrane

A

Valinomycin and gramicidin A

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2
Q

______ is a polypeptide antibiotic derived soil bacterium Bacillus polymyxa that operates within the cell membrane and shows a selective toxicity for bacterial cells over animal cells

A

Polymixin B

causes leakage of small molecules (e.g., nucleosides) from the cell

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3
Q

______ is a new class of antibacterial agents called the cyclic lipopeptides and is a natural product derived from Streptomyces roseosporus

A

Daptomycin

disrupts multiple functions of the bacterial cell membrane

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4
Q

______ act on the plasma membrane and result in the uncontrolled movement of ions across the cell membrane, leading to cell death.

A

Ionophores

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5
Q

______ operates selectively on the plasma membrane of bacteria and causes the uncontrolled movement of small molecules across the membrane.

A

Polymyxin B

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6
Q

True or False: Cyclic peptides are being designed which will self-assemble to form nanotubes in the cell membranes of bacteria.

A

True

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7
Q

What are the 5 actions that antibacterial agents which impair protein synthesis: through translation

A

Oxazolidinones bind to 50s subunit (prevents 70s)

tetracycline blacks tRNA binding

Chloramphenicol blocks peptide chain transfer

macrolides block translocation

aminoglycosides block translocation

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8
Q

______ was isolated from the soil microorganism Streptomyces griseus in 1944

A

streptomycin

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9
Q

True or False: aminoglycosides work best in slightly alkaline conditions

A

True

at pH 7.4 they have a positive charge that is beneficial to activity by aiding absorption through the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria

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10
Q

_____ bind specifically to the 30S ribosomal subunit and prevents the movement of the ribosome along mRNA

A

Aminoglycosides

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11
Q

_____inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 30S subunit of ribosomes and preventing aminoacyl-tRNA from binding

A

Tetracyclines

isolated in 1948 from a mud-growing microorganism in Missouri called Streptomyces aureofaciens

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12
Q

_____ binds to the 50S subunit of ribosomes and appears to act by inhibiting the movement of ribosomes along mRNA, probably by inhibiting the peptidyl transferase reaction

A

Chloramphenicol

isolated from Streptomyces venezuela found in a field near Caracas, Venezuela

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13
Q
\_\_\_\_ binds to the 50S subunit to inhibit translocation
and consists of a 14-membered macrocyclic lactone ring with a sugar and an amino sugar attached and is best-known example of this class of compounds is erythromycin
A

Macrolides

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14
Q

True or False: another method of increasing acid stability is to increase the size of the macrocycle to a 16-membered ring

A

True

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15
Q

____ are similar antibacterial properties to the macrolides and act in the same fashion but chemical modification led to the clinically useful clindamycin with increased activity

A

Lincosamides

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16
Q

____ are a relatively new class of synthetic antibacterial agents that inhibit protein synthesis at an earlier stage than previous agents and do not suffer the same resistance problems and bind to the 50S ribosome and prevent binding to 30S ribosome

A

Oxazolidinones

linezolid was the first of this class of compounds to reach the market in 2000

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17
Q

____ and _____ areuseful in the treatment of urinary tract infections (UTIs) and infections resistant to the more established antibacterial agents because they inhibit DNA gyrase and/or topoisomerase IV, depending on the type of infection

A

Quinolones and fluoroquinolones

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18
Q

True or False: in the 1980s with the development of enoxacin, improved broad-spectrum activity based on the discovery that a single fluorine atom at position 6 greatly increased both activity and cellular uptake
a basic substituent, such as a piperazinyl ring at position 7, was also beneficial for a variety of pharmacokinetic reasons due to the ability of the basic substituent to form a zwitterion with the carboxylic acid group at position 3

A

True

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19
Q

_____ was introduction of a cyclopropyl substituent at position 1 further increased broad-spectrum activity and replacement of the nitrogen at position 8 with carbon reduced adverse reactions and increased activity against S. aureus and the most active of the fluoroquinolones against Gram-negative bacteria

used in 2001 to treat many anthrax-infected patients after letters containing anthrax spores were sent through the U.S. postal service

A

ciprofloxacin

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20
Q

_____, ______, and ______ are third- and fourth-generation fluoroquinolones

A

ofloxacin, levofloxacin, moxifloxacin and besifloxacin

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21
Q

______ fluoroquinolones is active against streptococci

______ fluoroquinolones act at DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV, this dual action slows development of resistance

A

third-generation

fourth-generation

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22
Q

______ inhibits Gram-positive bacteria and works by binding non-covalently to DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and inhibiting the start of RNA synthesis and its DNA-dependent RNA polymerases in eukaryotic cells are unaffected because the drug binds to a peptide chain not present in the mammalian RNA polymerase

A

rifampicin

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23
Q

In _____, a nitroimidazole structure which was introduced in 1959 as an antiprotozoal agent
began to be used as an antibacterial agent in the 1970s
the nitro group is reduced when the drug enters the bacterial cell, which lowers the concentration of metronidazole within the cell and sets up a concentration gradient down which more drug can flow

A

Nitroimidazoles and nitrofurantoin

metronidazole

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24
Q

_____ is a macrocycle, natural product obtained from a Dactylosporangium Gram-positive bacterial strain approved in 2011
and there’s a narrow spectrum bactericidal agent for the treatment of C. difficile infections in the gastrointestinal tract

A

Fidaxomicin

25
_____ is used to treat urinary tract infections where it degrades in acid conditions to give formaldehyde as the active agent
Methenamine
26
____ is a steroid structure derived from the fungus Fusidium coccineum that is used as a topical antibacterial agent
Fusidic acid
27
______ the most widely used drug for the treatment of tuberculosis (TB) inhibits mycolic acid production, a constituent of mycobacterial cell walls
Isoniazid
28
_____ and ____ are synthetic compounds that are front-line drugs in the treatment of TB ethambutol inhibits arabinosyl transferase enzymes that are involved in the biosynthesis of the mycobacterial cell wall
Ethambutol and pyrazinamide
29
_______ inhibit the enzyme RNA polymerase and prevent RNA synthesis. In turn, this prevents protein synthesis. Rifampicin is used to treat tuberculosis and staphylococcus infections.
Rifamycins
30
True or False: Antibiotic resistance is one of the biggest threats to global health, food security and development today.
True
31
What are the 3 critical bacteria resistant too?
carbapenem
32
What is the discovery void?
Period in time where no new antibiotics were developed, from 1987-88
33
______ is a major antibiotic resistant bacterial strain that important pathogen implicated in nosocomial (hospital) infections and ha the capability to acquire antimicrobial-resistance genes extremely rapidly
Acinetobacter baumannii Gram-negative coccobacillus that is most commonly found associated with healthcare environments
34
_____ are a major antibiotic resistant bacterial strain that is a large family of Gram-negative bacteria, many found in the gut
Enterobacteriaceae
35
Two carbapenemase subclasses are especially problematic and they are?
KPC (Klebsiella pneumoniae carbapenemase) - has become endemic in many areas of the world NDM (New Delhi Metallo-β-lactamase) - most patients have an epidemiologic link to the Indian subcontinent,
36
How are antibiotics resistant based on MRSA?
Beta-lactam antibiotics permanently inactivate PBP enzymes, which are essential for bacterial life, by permanently binding to their active sites. MRSA, however, expresses a PBP that does not allow the antibiotic into its active site.
37
_____ is a major antibiotic resistant bacterial strain that is extremely adaptable to antibiotic pressure (penicillin resitant 4 years after developed)
Staphylococcus aureus
38
True or False: half of all S. aureus infections in USA are resistant to penicillin, methicillin, tetracycline and erythromycin
True
39
_____ was then the most effective antibiotic against MRSA
vancomycin
40
_____ is a highly prevalent opportunistic pathogen and has low antibiotic susceptibility due to a multidrug efflux pumps and the low permeability of the bacterial cellular envelope
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
41
_____ is a nosocomial pathogen that causes diarrheal disease in hospitals clindamycin-resistant C. difficile was reported as the causative agent of large outbreaks of diarrheal disease in hospitals in USA between 1989 and 1992
Clostridium difficile resistance to fluoroquinolone antibiotics, such as ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin, were also reported in North America in 2005
42
__ was the first drug against Mycobacterium tuberculosis, how do we stop XDR TB?
Streptomycin requires that all six classes of second-line drugs be available to clinicians who have special expertise in treating such cases
43
_____ is a a sexually transmitted pathogen | by 1970 most strains were penicillin resistant due to two mechanisms
Neisseria gonorrhoeae chromosomally mediated resistance (CMRNG) involves mutations of penA, which codes for the penicillin-binding protein (PBP-2); mtr, which encodes an efflux pump; and penB, which encodes a bacterial cell wall porin penicillinase-mediated resistance (PPNG) involved the acquisition of a plasmid-borne β-lactamase
44
How do you treat Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
the recommended treatment is now a single intramuscular injection of ceftriaxone in combination with azithromycin
45
What are 6 causes of antibiotic resistance?
Over prescribed antibiotics overuse in livestock and fish not finishing treatments poor control in hospitals lack of hygiene/sanitation lack of new antibiotics being developed
46
What are the 5 Mechanisms of antibiotic resistance in bacteria?
target amplification (sulfonamides) antibiotic inactivation decreased influx increased efflux target site alteration
47
True or False: the presence of an antibiotic is required to generate resistance
False, demonstrated by the finding of streptomycin-resistant cells in freeze-dried E. coli cultures that had been preserved before introduction of streptomycin
48
True or False: treatment is stopped prematurely than the bacterial load may be too great for the immune system allowing resistant cells to survive
True
49
Bacteria can acquire resistance genes from genetically distant relatives through _______
horizontal gene transfer
50
Why can the cell wall of Mycobacterium tuberculosis be a new target for antibiotics?
cell wall is thicker than in many other bacteria and is hydrophobic, waxy and rich in mycolic acids the biosynthetic pathways of cell wall components are potential targets for new drugs for tuberculosis
51
_______ can also be a new target identification becauseancient group of enzymes responsible for attaching amino acids to tRNA, so sequence divergence makes selective inhibition possible
Aminoacyl tRNA synthetases
52
______ inhibits a fungal leucine tRNA synthetase
tavaborole
53
How can modifying antibiotics to be resistant to the mechanisms of resistance of resistant bacteria?
kanamycin is an aminoglycoside that is no longer used because resistant bacteria can phosphorylate one of the hydroxyl groups an analogue has been synthesized that replaces the susceptible alcohol with a ketone that is in equilibrium with the gem-diol when phosphorylation occurs on the diol, the phosphate group acts as a good leaving group and the ketone is regenerated
54
_____ would reduce presence of bacteria in environment, once the antibiotic is excreted and exposed to light, the protecting group is lost, allowing the nucleophilic hydrazine moiety to react with the β‑lactam ring and deactivates the molecule
Self-destructing antibiotics
55
What is the hybrid drug made to be effective against Clostridium difficile
cadazolid is an experimental antibioticin Phase III trials combines the pharmacophores of oxazolidinone and fluoroquinolone
56
_____ is the antibacterial agent of last resort in the treatment of resistant bacterial strains.
Vancomycin
57
What are the 7 general steps to the resistance guided discovery platform?
Steps 1–3 Pre-treatment of samples and preparation of serial dilutions Steps 4–12 Selective isolation of strains in the presence of antibiotic Steps 13–15 Purification and phenotypic dereplication of isolates to avoid strain duplication in the collection Steps 15–22 BOX PCR using genomic DNA isolated from each strain to develop signature amplicon patterns for genotypic dereplication and storage of unique isolates Steps 23–27 Development of scaffold-specific fingerprinting primers, standardization of PCR conditions and subsequent PCR-based screening to determine the presence of a biosynthetic cluster in unique isolates Steps 28–29 Sequencing of positive amplicon fingerprints and BLAST analysis to confirm the identity of the hit Steps 30–38 Curation of the analyzed sequences for phylogenetic-tree generation and conversion of the raw output to a visual phylogenetic tree to get an idea about the diversity of putative producers when compared with known ones Analysis of the tree to cherry-pick putative novel producers for further follow-up
58
What is a idea antibiotic from first pronciples?
A prodrug enters the cell, where it is converted into a reactive compound by a bacteria-specific enzyme (E). The reactive moiety covalently attaches to unrelated targets (T1, T2 to Tx), killing both actively dividing and dormant cells, thus sterilizing an infection. Covalent binding to targets provides an irreversible sink, leading to effective accumulation of the active drug over time and ensuring a broad specificity of action. MDR, multidrug-resistant