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Anatomy & Physiology II > Chapter 19 Blood > Flashcards

Chapter 19 Blood Flashcards

1
Q

About 5 liters of ___________, a fluid connective tissue that makes up about 8% of total body weight, circulates through the blood vessels at all times.

A

Blood

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2
Q

One of the two major components of blood, _____________, is the liquid extracellular matrix of blood.

A

Plasma

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3
Q

The ____________ of blood include the cells and cell fragments found suspended in plasma.

A

Formed elements.

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4
Q

What are the 3 types of formed elements in the blood?

A

Erythrocytes- Red blood cells (RBCs)
Leukocytes- White blood cells (WBCs)
Platelets- small cellular fragments.

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5
Q

List the functions performed by blood

A
  1. Exchanging gases - both oxygen and carbon dioxide are transported by blood.
  2. Distributing solutes-plasma transports ions, nutrients, hormones and wastes, and plays a role in regulating ion concentrations in tissues.
  3. Performing immune functions-both leukocytes and immune system proteins are transported throughout body in blood.
  4. Maintaining body temperature- blood carries away heat generated as byproduct of many chemical reactions in body.
  5. Sealing damaged vessels by forming blood clots-platelets and certain proteins from blood clot; seals damaged blood vessels to prevent blood loss.
  6. Preserving acid-base homeostasis- pH of blood is maintained between 7.35 and 7.45; remains relatively constant as blood contains several important buffering systems.
  7. Stabilizing blood pressure- blood volume is major factor in determining blood pressure.
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6
Q

Three distinct layers form when a blood sample is spun rapidly in a centrifuge, these three layers include what?

A

Top layer- plasma (55% of total blood volume)
The middle layer- Buffy coat (1% of total blood volume)
Bottom layer- erythrocytes/hematocrit (44%)

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7
Q

____________ is a pale yellow liquid whose volume is 90% water.

A

Plasma

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8
Q

Define viscosity

A

Refers to the thickness of blood.

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9
Q

Less water in plasma leads to ___________ viscosity and _______________ blood flow.

A

Greater

sluggish/slow

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10
Q

__________________ forms colloid that makes up about 9% of plasma volume and include albumin, immune proteins (g-globulins), transport proteins and clotting proteins.

A

Plasma Proteins

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11
Q

Define albumin

A

A large protein synthesized in the liver. Responsible for blood’s colloid osmotic pressure; draws water into blood by osmosis.

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12
Q

Immune proteins, g-globulins, also known as _______________, are made by leukocytes, components of the immune system.

A

Antibodies.

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13
Q

_________________ binds to lipid-based molecules that otherwise are incompatible with the mostly water-based plasma, which allows these molecules to use blood as a transportation system.

A

Transport Proteins

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14
Q

These proteins stop bleeding from injured blood vessels by forming a blood clot with assistance from platelets.

A

Clotting Proteins.

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15
Q

What enables erythrocytes to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide?

A

Erythrocytes structure.

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16
Q

Describe the structure of a erythrocyte

A

The typical erythrocyte is a biconcave disc or a flattened donut-shaped cell that is concave on both sides. This shape increases the surface area of the cell, which is vital to their role in gas exchange.

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17
Q

Mature RBCs are ____________, having lost the nucleus during maturation, and lack most of the other typical cellular organelles.

A

Anucleate

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18
Q

What is a large protein that consists of 4 polypeptide subunits: two alpha chains and two beta chains?

A

Hemoglobin

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19
Q

An iron-containing compound in which polypeptides are bound.

A

Heme group

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20
Q

An iron ion in each heme group is oxidized when it binds to oxygen in regions of high oxygen concentrations which forms a red-colored molecule called what?

A

Oxyhemoglobin

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21
Q

Hemoglobin releases oxygen into regions, such as tissues surrounding systemic capillary beds, where oxygen concentration is ___________.

A

Low

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22
Q

In tissues where oxygen levels are low, hemoglobin binds to carbon dioxide forming ______________, which accounts for about 23% of the CO2 transportation in blood.

A

Carbaminohemoglobin

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23
Q

What is the life span of an erythrocyte?

A

About 100-120 days

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24
Q

What is the process that takes place in red bone marrow where the formed elements in blood are produced

A

Hematopoiesis

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25
Q

Formed elements in the blood are formed by _________________ stem cells.

A

Hematopoietic

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26
Q

__________________ is the specific hematopoietic process that produces erythrocytes from HSCs. This process takes approximately 5-7 days to complete.

A

Erythropoiesis

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27
Q

Eryhropoiesis begins when Hematopoietic stem cells differentiate into progenitor cells called _______________ (CFUs), which have committed to forming only one single cell type.

A

Erythrocyte colony forming units.

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28
Q

When erythropoietin, which is secreted by the kidneys, is present, erythrocyte CFUs differentiate into __________________.

A

Proerythroblasts.

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29
Q

Proerythroblasts develop into ______________, which rapidly synthesize Hb and other proteins.

A

Erythroblasts

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30
Q

As a erythroblast matures what happens to the nucleus?

A

It shrinks and is eventually ejected resulting in a reticulocyte

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31
Q

__________________ enters the bloodstream by exiting through pores in the sinusoidal capillaries of the bone marrow.

A

Reticulocytes

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32
Q

Describe how regulation of erythropoiesis is accomplished

A

It is accomplished by erythropoietin that triggers a negative feedback loop which maintains the hematocrit within a normal range.

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33
Q

Describe the regulation feedback loop

A
  1. Stimulus- Blood levels of oxygen fall below normal
  2. Receptor- kidney cells detect falling organ levels
  3. Control Center- kidneys produce erythropoietin and releases hormones into the bloodstream
  4. Effector/Response- production of erythrocytes increases
  5. Homeostasis- blood levels of oxygen rise to normal
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34
Q

Describe the death of an erythrocyte

A

Cells become less flexible as the age and get trapped in the sinusoids of the spleen.

  1. Spleen macrophages digest erythrocytes.
  2. Hemoglobin is broken down into amino acids, iron ions, and heme.
  3. Heme is first converted into waste product biliverdin; can then be converted further to yellowish waste product called bilirubin.
  4. Iron ions and amino acids are recycled; used to make new hemoglobin in red bone marrow.
  5. Iron ions are transported back to red bone marrow in bloodstream by protein called transferrin.
  6. Bilirubin is sent to liver for excretion.
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35
Q

Define Anemia

A

A common condition defined as decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.

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36
Q

What are the three primary causes of anemia

A

Decreased hemoglobin, decreased hematocrit and abnormal hemoglobin

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37
Q

What are the general symptoms of anemia

A

Pallor (pale skin), fatigue, weakness and shortness of breath

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38
Q

In response to the diminished oxygen-carrying capacity, the body boosts the production of ______________ as the number of circulating reticulocytes increases in the blood, which is caused by different types of anemia.

A

EPO (erythropoietin)

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39
Q

Severe anemia can cause the heart rate to ___________ in response to the body’s attempt to __________cardiac output to match the demand of oxygen from the oxygen-deprived tissues

A

Elevate

Increase

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40
Q

What is the most common form of anemia ?

A

Iron-deficiency anemia

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41
Q

What can cause iron-deficiency anemia?

A

Caused by inadequate dietary iron intake, reduced intestinal absorption of iron, or slow blood loss. Vitamin B6 deficiency, malnutrition poisoning with certain drugs or heavy metal like lead, and pregnancy can all cause this

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42
Q

This results from vitamin B12 deficiency, which interferes with DNA synthesis of rapidly dividing cells.

A

Pernicious Anemia

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43
Q

Certain medications or exposure to ionizing radiation can inhibit or stop the production of erythrocytes in the red bone marrow, a condition called _______________ anemia.

A

Aplastic Anemia

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44
Q

What is the most common cause of abnormal hemoglobin is

A

Sickle-cell disease

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45
Q

______________ or _____________ are larger than erythrocytes and have a prominent nucleus. This group of cells uses the bloodstream, as transportation, as they generally dont perform their functions within the blood.

A

Leukocytes or White blood cells

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46
Q

These cells adhere to the walls of blood vessels then squeeze between the endothelial cells to enter the surrounding tissue.

A

Leukocytes

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47
Q

What two basic categories are leukocytes divided into?

A

Granulocytes and agranulocytes

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48
Q

Describe Granulocytes

A

Are readily distinguished by their unusual nuclei, which is a single nucleus composed multiple connected lobes. All cells in this group contain general lysosomal granules as well as granules unique to each type of granulocyte.

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49
Q

Granules are divided into three categories, they are

A

Neutrophils, Eosinophils and Basophils

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50
Q

Describe Neutrophils

A

The most common leukocyte, have cytoplasmic granules that absorb both dyes, which stains their cytoplasm a light lilac color. The function of it is - Active phagocytes that ingest and destroy bacterial cells.

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51
Q

Cells that have a uniquely shaped nucleus composed of 3 to 5 lobes

A

Polymorphonuleocytes (polys or PMNs)

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52
Q

Describe the process of Chemotaxis

A

Injured cells release chemicals that attract neutrophils, the neutrophils exit the bloodstream and release their granules in the damaged tissue.

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53
Q

Describe the structure of Eosinophils

A

They have a Bilobed nucleus and appear red due to the uptake of eosin dye

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54
Q

What is the function of eosinophils

A

They are phagocytes that ingest foreign molecules; they respond to infections with parasitic worms and allergic reactions; they contain chemicals to mediate inflammation

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55
Q

These are the least common of the leukocytes, they have an S-shaped nucleus and appear dark purple due to the uptake of methylene blue dye.

A

Basophils

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56
Q

What are the functions of basophils

A

Chemicals in granule mediate inflammation

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57
Q

What is the second most common leukocyte in blood, and contains large spherical nuclei and a light blue rim of cytoplasm when stained?

A

Lymphocytes

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58
Q

The two basic types of lymphocytes, ______________ and ________________ have similar appearances but different functions, although both cell types are activated by cellular markers found on all cells called _______________.

A

B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
Antigens

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59
Q

When activated these cells produce antibodies in which bind to and remove antigens from tissues.

A

B lymphocytes (B cells)

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60
Q

These cells are activated by specific antigens, do not produce antibodies. These cells have membrane-bound receptors for individual antigens. These cells activate other immune system components and directly destroy abnormal body cells, such as cancer cells or virally infected cells.

A

T lymphocytes (T cells)

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61
Q

These are the largest cells in the leukocyte family, have a U-shaped nuclei surrounded by light blue or purple stained cytoplasm. These cells only circulate in the blood briefly before they exit the capillaries to enter the tissues where some mature.

A

Monocytes

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62
Q

What do monocytes mature into ?

A

Macrophages

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63
Q

What is the role of macrophages?

A

Phagocytic cells that ingest dead and dying cells, bacteria, antigens and other cellular debris

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64
Q

Define Leukopoiesis

A

The process in the bone marrow that uses hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) to form new Leukocytes. HSCs divide and spilt into two cell lines.

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65
Q

Define the myeloid cell lines

A

Produces most of the formed elements, including erythrocytes and platelets. This cell line differentiates into blast cells, committed to becoming monocytes, called monoblasts and precursor cells called promonoblasts. Granulocytyes are derived from myeloblasts that differentiate into precursor cells called promyelocytes. Band cells, or stab cells, are the final stage, which developed into mature granulocytes that enter the bloodstream.

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66
Q

Describe the lymphoid cell line

A

Produces lymphoblasts, committed to becoming B and T lymphocytes, which then develop into prolymphocyte precursor cells. B and T lymphocytes mature in different locations, B for bone marrow and T for thymus.

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67
Q

B lymphocytes remain in the ______________, during their maturation

A

Bone marrow

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68
Q

T lymphocytes migrate from the bone marrow to the ____________ gland in the mediastinum to complete their maturation.

A

Thymus

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69
Q

Describe the characteristics of Platelets

A

Small cell fragments surrounded by a plasma membrane. The smallest of formed elements. Do not have a nuclei or organelles which are found in most whole cells. Contain several types of granules that contain clotting factors, enzymes, some mitochondria, and glycogen deposits that enable them to carry out oxidative catabolism. These cells also contain cytoskeleton elements, which include micro tubules associated with actin and myosin filaments.

70
Q

What is the function of platelets?

A

Involved in hemostasis; process that stops blood loss from injured blood vessel; carry out oxidative catabolism.

71
Q

Platelet formation begins as HSCs differentiate into committed precursor cells called ______________ from the myeloid cell line.

A

Megakaryoblasts

72
Q

Megakaryoblasts develop into _______________ that go through repeated cycles of mitosis without cytokinesis. The cell itself never divides, which results in a massive cell with multiple copies of DNA within a single nucleus.

A

Megakaryocytes

73
Q

How are platelets formed from mature megakaryocytes?

A

When stimulated by hormones (Thrombopoietin), send cytoplasm extensions through clefts in bone marrow sinusoids into bloodstream; break off into thousands of platelets.

74
Q

When platelets are removed from circulation by the liver and spleen, they have a limited lifespan of?

A

7-10 days

75
Q

_______________ involves a series of five distinct events that form a gelatinous blood clot that plugs the broken vessel. The process employs mechanisms whose primary function is to limit significant blood loss.

A

Hemostasis

76
Q

Describe Part one of Hemostasis (Vascular spasm)

A

Vascular spasm begins immediately when a blood vessel if injured and blood leaks into extracellular fluid with the following two responses: 1. Vasoconstriction and increased tissues pressure both act to decrease vessel diameter. 2. Blood loss is minimized as both blood pressure and blood flow are reduced locally by these responses.

77
Q

Describe part two of Hemostasis (Platelet plug formation)

A

Platelet plug formation forms a patch, consisting mostly of platelets, that adheres only to the injured site, further reducing blood loss. The following factors are involved in plug formation when collagen fibers are exposed and chemicals are released from the damaged vessel’s cells..
1. Injured endothelial cells release von Willebrand factor (vWF), a glycoprotein that binds to receptors on the surface of platelets’ plasma membranes. 2. Exposed collagen plus vWF together make platelets sticky so they adhere to one another and the surrounding vessels walls. Binding of vWF and collagen to platelets triggers a series of events within platelets known collectively as platelet activation. Granule contents attract and activate nearby platelets causing them to clump together or aggregation.

78
Q

What does aggregation mean ? And what is accomplished by platelet aggregation?

A

It means to clump together and it forms platelet plug and seals injured vessels temporarily.

79
Q

Describe part three of Hemostasis (Coagulation)

A

The process that forms the molecular glue that binds platelets, endothelial cells, and other formed elements together. It is a cascade of events that proceeds down two pathways: the intrinsic pathway and the extrinsic pathway. Both pathways of which converge at a common pathway which leads to the activation of fibrin.

80
Q

Define Fibrin

A

The threadlike protein that converts a soft, liquid platelet plug into a more substantial solid mass. It is found circulating in plasma and in platelets in an inactive form called fibrinogen.

81
Q

Fibrinogen is converted into fibrin by a series of reactions that occur at the surface of platelets and/or damaged endothelial cells called the _____________________.

A

Coagulation Cascade.

82
Q

The coagulation cascade depends on ___________ synthesized in the liver that circulates in the blood in an inactive form.

A

Enzyme

83
Q

_____________ are labeled with a Roman numeral in the order they were discovered. II, VII, IX, and X are dependent on _____________ for their synthesis.

A

Clotting factors

Vitamin K

84
Q

Intrinsic/Contact activation pathway so named because all the involved clotting factors are found ___________________.

A

In the blood

85
Q

Once inactive protein clotting factor XII comes in contact with exposed collagen fibers, Pathway activation occurs in the following sequence

A
  1. Exposed collagen fibers activate XII to XIIa
  2. Factors XI and IX become activated; XIIa is enzyme that activates IX, in cascade of events; each factor once activated then activates next factor in pathway.
  3. Factors IXa and VIIIa along with calcium ions from enzyme complex; activates factor X to Xa to complete pathway.
86
Q

Extrinsic/Tissue factor pathway so named because it is initiated by a factor ______________ and occurs simultaneously with the intrinsic pathway in a sequence of events.

A

Outside the blood

87
Q

Summarize the Extrinsic pathways sequence of events.

A
  1. Damaged subendothelial cells display protein called tissue factor
  2. Tissue factor activates factor VII to VIIa
  3. Factor VIIa, tissue factor, and calcium ions form enzyme complex; activates factor X to Xa.
88
Q

Both the Intrinsic and Extrinsic pathways lead to the formation of factor ____, which is involved in the formation of fibrin during common pathway.

A

Xa

89
Q

Summarize the common pathway

A
  1. Produce factor Xa- goal of both intrinsic and extrinsic pathways is to produce active enzyme factor Xa; reactions of pathways different but end is the same.
  2. Produce thrombin- product of both intrinsic and extrinsic pathways, factor Xa, accomplishes 2nd goal of coagulation by producing thrombin.
90
Q

Describe part four of Hemostasis (Clot Retraction)

A

Occurs as the coagulation cascade nears its completion. Actin and myosin fibers in the involved platelets contract, which beings the edges of the wounded vessel close together.

91
Q

What is Serum?

A

Fluid consisting of plasma without clotting proteins; forced out of clot during clot retraction.

92
Q

Describe part five of Hemostasis (Thrombolysis)

A

Process that begins after injury has healed and blood clotting is no longer necessary.

93
Q

What occurs during fibrinolysis?

A

A fibrin clot, the product of coagulation, is broken down. It’s main enzyme plasmin cuts the fibrin mesh at various places, leading to the production of circulating fragments that are cleared by other proteases or by the kidney and liver. Process that breaks down fibrin glue.

94
Q

Antithrombin III (AT-III)

A

A protein that binds and inhibits the activity of both factor Xa and thrombin. This protein also prevents the activation of new thrombin

95
Q

_______________ is a polysaccharide that enhances antithrombin activity.

A

Heparin Sulfate.

96
Q

Describe clotting disorders

A

A condition in which clotting is not regulated properly that can create drastic consequences for maintaining homeostasis.

97
Q

______________ disorders can increase blood loss from even minor because the blood is unable to clot usually due to a clotting protein deficiency such as hemophilia.

A

Bleeding

98
Q

Hypercoagulable conditions result in the formation of an inappropriate clot, called ____________. The clot is dangerous as it can obstruct blood flow through a vessel.

A

Thrombosis

99
Q

A ________________ may break off of a thrombus and occlude smaller vessels downstream.

A

Thromboembolism.

100
Q

Thrombin commonly form in deep veins of the legs causing a condition called _____________________.

A

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

101
Q

____________ is a dangerous complication of DVTs, in which emboli break off thrombi in the legs and lodge in small blood vessels in the lungs.

A

Pulmonary embolism

102
Q

Define blood transfusions

A

Process in which blood taken from a donor is given to a recipient, is a commonly used treatment modality in today’s medicine.

103
Q

Two groups of the 30 different antigens found on erythrocytes are particularly used for clinical use: the ____________ blood group and the______________blood group.

A

ABO

Rh

104
Q

The ABO blood group features two antigens the ____ and ______ antigens.

A

A

B

105
Q

In blood type A, only the _______ is present on erythrocytes.

A

A antigen

106
Q

In blood type B, only the _________ is present on erythrocytes.

A

B antigen

107
Q

In blood type AB, both the _____ and ______ are present on erythrocytes.

A

A antigens and B antigens

108
Q

In blood type _____, neither A nor B antigens are present on erythrocytes.

A

O

109
Q

The ______________ features the Rh antigen first discovered in rhesus monkeys.

A

Rh blood group

110
Q

Individuals _____ the Rh on their erythrocytes are Rh-positive (Rh+) and those __________ the Rh antigen are Rh-negative (Rh-).

A

With

Without

111
Q

Type 0+ is the ____________ blood type in the U.S. populations.

A

Most common

112
Q

Blood type AB- is the ___________ blood type in the U.S. population

A

least common

113
Q

When antibodies, sometimes called ___________, bind to surface-bound antigens they cause them to clump together.

A

Agglutinins

114
Q

Agglutination promotes erythrocyte destruction, a reaction called _____________

A

Hemolysis

115
Q

To determine blood type, a blood sample is treated with three separate antibodies. The three antibodies used are

A

Anti-A antibodies
Anti-B antibodies
Anti-Rh antibodies

116
Q

What can we conclude about the blood type is agglutination occurs in response to an antibody?

A

That the antigen is present on erythrocytes

117
Q

________ antibodies bind and agglutinate A antigens.

A

Anti-A

118
Q

_________ antibodies bind and agglutinate B antigens

A

Anti-B

119
Q

Anti-Rh antibodies bind and agglutinate ________

A

Rh antigens

120
Q

Describe blood matching

A

Process in which the blood taken from a donor is screened for compatibility prior to its administration to a recipient.

121
Q

What does a match indicate?

A

That donors blood type is compatible with the recipients blood type.

122
Q

Describe a transfusion reaction

A

Recipients antibodies bind to donors antigens, causes agglutination that destroys donor erythrocytes, possibly leading kidney failure and death.

123
Q

What blood type is considered the universal donor and why ?

A

O- , because their erythrocytes do not have A,B , nor Rh surface antigens. This blood type can be given to any other blood type in an emergency when blood matching is not an option.

124
Q

What blood type is considered the universal recipient and why?

A

AB+, because these individuals do not make antibodies against the A,B, or Rh antigens. Individuals with AB+ blood type can generally receive blood from any of the possible blood type donors.

125
Q

What are the basic functions of blood?

A

Transportation, Protection and regulation

126
Q

What does blood transport?

A
  1. O2 from the lungs and nutrients from the gastrointestinal tract to the entire body.
  2. Metabolic wastes from cells to be eliminated from the body via lungs and kidneys.
  3. Hormones from endocrine glands to target organs.
127
Q

These cells contain hemoglobin. They transport oxygen to, and remove carbon dioxide from, the body tissues.

A

Red blood cells.

128
Q

These cells fight infection and disease by producing antibodies and thus destroying foreign materia

A

White blood cells

129
Q

These help blood to clot, if you get a wound for example.

A

platelets

130
Q

This fluid contains salts and various kinds of proteins

A

Plasma

131
Q

Blood types are determined by _______

A

Heredity.

132
Q

____ and ______ antigens are sugars and the ______ antigens are proteins.

A

A and B antigens

Rh antigens

133
Q

Describe blood type A Rh-

A

Antigens: A indicates there are A antigens. (Rh- indicates there are no Rh antigens)
Antibodies: B antibodies , Rh antibodies (If there are A antigens but no B nor Rh antigens, the antibodies in the blood plasma are B and Rh antibodies)

134
Q

Describe Blood type A Rh+

A

Antigens: A indicates there are A antigens. Rh+ indicates there are Rh antigens.
Antibodies: B antibodies; If there are A and Rh antigens but no B antigens, the antibodies in the blood plasma are B antibodies.

135
Q

Describe Blood type B Rh-

A

Antigens: B indicates there are B antigens; Rh- indicates there are no Rh antigens
Antibodies: A antibodies, Rh antibodies; If there are B antigens but no A nor Rh antigens, the antibodies in the blood plasma are A and Rh antibodies.

136
Q

Describe blood type B Rh+

A

Antigens: B indicates there are B antigens, Rh+ indicates there are Rh antigens
Antibodies: A antibodies; If there are B and Rh antigens but no A antigens, the antibodies in the blood plasma are A antibodies.

137
Q

Describe the Blood type AB Rh-

A

Antigens: AB indicates there are both A and B antigens; Rh- indicates there are no Rh antigens
Antibodies: Rh antibodies; If there are A and B antigens but no Rh antigens, the antibodies in the blood plasma are Rh antibodies.

138
Q

Describe blood type AB Rh+

A

Antigens: AB indicates there are both A and B antigens; Rh+ indicates there are Rh antigens
Antibodies: No antibodies; if all possible antigens are present, A, B and Rh antigens, there are no antibodies in the blood plasma.

139
Q

Describe blood type O Rh-

A

Type O blood gets its name because it has neither A nor B antigens! In other languages O is often pronounced “null”

Antigens: No antigens! O indicates there are neither A nor B antigens; Rh- indicates there are no Rh antigens
Antibodies: A antibodies, B antibodies, Rh antibodies; If there are no antigens at all on the surface of the red blood cells, all three possible antibodies are present in the blood plasma: A, B, and Rh antibodies.

140
Q

Describe blood type O Rh+

A

Antigens: O indicates there are neither A nor B antigens; Rh+ indicates there are Rh antigens
Antibodies: A antibodies, B antibodies; If there are Rh antigens but no A nor B antigens, the antibodies present in the blood plasma are A and B antibodies.

141
Q

What does aggulation indicates when blood matching ?

A

It indicates that the blood has reacted with a certain antibody and is therefore not compatible with blood containing that kind of antibody.

142
Q

What are the most commonly transfused part of blood?

A

Red blood cells

143
Q

What occurs when the receiver of a blood transfusion has antibodies that work against the donor blood cells?

A

Immunological reactions occur. The red blood cells from the donated blood will clump . The agglutinated red cells can clog blood vessels and stop the circulation of the blood to various parts of the body. The agglutinated red blood cells can also crack open, leaking toxic contents out in the body, which can have fatal consequences for the patients.

144
Q

What is the task of antibodies ?

A

To attack against foreign substances in the body.

145
Q

O blood type can receive blood from

A

O blood type only

146
Q

A blood type can receive blood from

A

A blood type and O blood type

147
Q

B blood type can receive blood from

A

B blood type and O blood type

148
Q

AB blood type can receive blood from

A

Blood types AB,A,B and O

149
Q

Rh+ can receive blood from

A

Blood types Rh+ and Rh-

150
Q

Rh- blood type can receive blood from

A

Rh- blood type

151
Q

People with O Rh- blood can receive blood from

A

Blood type O Rh- only

152
Q

People with O Rh+ blood type can receive blood from

A

Blood types O Rh+ and O Rh-

153
Q

People with blood type AB Rh+ can receive blood from

A

All blood type and therefore is called Universal receivers.

154
Q

Describe blood type AB Rh+

A

Antigens: A,B and Rh
Antibodies: None
Can donate to : AB Rh+
Can receive from: AB Rh+, AB Rh-, A Rh+, A Rh-, B Rh+, B Rh-, O Rh+, O Rh-

155
Q

Describe blood type AB RH-

A

Antigens: A and B
Antibodies: None
Can donate to: AB Rh- and AB Rh+
Can receive from: AB Rh-, A Rh-, B Rh-, O Rh-

156
Q

Describe blood type A Rh+

A

Antigens: A and Rh
Antibodies: B
Can donate to : A Rh+, AB Rh+
Can receive from: A Rh+, A Rh-, O Rh+, O Rh-

157
Q

Describe blood type A Rh-

A

Antigens: A
Antibodies: B
Can donate to: A Rh-, A Rh+, AB Rh-, AB Rh+
Can receive from: A Rh-, O Rh-

158
Q

Describe blood type B Rh+

A

Antigens: R and Rh
Antibodies: A
Can donate to: B Rh+, AB Rh+
Can receive from: B Rh+, B Rh-, O Rh+, O Rh-

159
Q

Describe blood type B Rh-

A

Antigens: B
Antibodies: A
Can donate to: B Rh-, B Rh+, AB Rh- AB Rh+
Can receive from: B Rh-, O Rh-

160
Q

Describe blood type O Rh+

A

Antigens: Rh
Antibodies: A and B
Can donate to: O Rh+, A Rh+, B Rh+, AB Rh+
Can receive from: O Rh+, O Rh-

161
Q

Describe blood type O Rh-

A

Antigens: None
Antibodies: A and B
Can donate to: AB Rh+, AB Rh-, A Rh+, A Rh-, B Rh+, B Rh-, O Rh+, O Rh-
Can receive from: O Rh-

162
Q

____________ leave the blood stream through the walls of capillaries and venues and enter either connective or lymphoid tissues.

A

Leukocytes

163
Q

What is the oxygen binding protein in erythrocytes?

A

Haemoglobin

164
Q

Where do you look for cells in a blood smear ?

A

Cells will be “heaped and piled” close to the point where the drop of blood was placed on the slide.

165
Q

Due to the biconcave shape of the erythrocytes, their center will look _________ then their periphery on a blood smear

A

Iighter

166
Q

Describe how Leukocytes can be subdivided

A

Leukocytes broken into granular leukocytes and non-granular leukocytes

Granular leukocytes broken into neutrophils, basophils and eosinophils

Non-granular leukocytes broken into monocytes and lymphocytes

167
Q

Leishman’s stain description

A

It is used in microscopy for staining blood smears. It is generally used to differentiate between and identify white blood cells, malaria parasites, and trypanosomas. It is based on a methanolic mixture of “polychromed” methylene blue (i.e. demethylated into various azures) and eosin.

168
Q

What are the normal frequencies of leukocyte counts?

A 
Neutrophils- 50%-70%
Eosinophils- >0%-5%
Basophils- >0%-2%
Monocytes- 1%-9%
Lymphocytes-20%-40%
169
Q

A larger then normal number of neutrophils (neutrophilia) would indicate what

A

An acute or chronic infection

170
Q

Allergic reactions may increase the number of

A

Basophils and eosinophils (eosinophilia or basophilia)

Anatomy & Physiology II (3 decks)

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