Chapter 19

Question 1

Almost all of the oxygen (O2) one consumes in breathing is converted to:

A) acetyl-CoA.
B) carbon dioxide (CO2).
C) carbon monoxide and then to carbon dioxide.
D) none of the above.
E) water.

Answer 1

E) water.

Question 2

A new compound isolated from mitochondria is claimed to represent a previously unrecognized
carrier in the electron transfer chain. It is given the name coenzyme Z. Which line of evidence do
you feel is the least conclusive in assigning this compound a position in the electron transfer chain?

A) Alternate oxidation and reduction of the mitochondrion-bound coenzyme Z can be readily
demonstrated.
B) Removal of coenzyme Z from the mitochondria results in a decreased rate of oxygen
consumption.
C) The rate of oxidation and reduction of mitochondrion-bound coenzyme is of the same order of
magnitude as the overall rate of electron transfer in mitochondria as measured by oxygen
consumption.
D) The reduction potential of Z is between that of two compounds known to participate in the
electron transport chain
E) When added to a mitochondrial suspension, coenzyme Z is taken up very rapidly and specifically
by the mitochondria.

Answer 2

E) When added to a mitochondrial suspension, coenzyme Z is taken up very rapidly and specifically
by the mitochondria.

Question 3

Antimycin A blocks electron transfer between cytochromes b and c1. If intact mitochondria were
incubated with antimycin A, excess NADH, and an adequate supply of O2, which of the following
would be found in the oxidized state?

A) Coenzyme Q
B) Cytochrome a3
C) Cytochrome b
D) Cytochrome e
E) Cytochrome f

Answer 3

B) Cytochrome a3

Question 4

Cyanide, oligomycin, and 2,4-dinitrophenol (DNP) are inhibitors of mitochondrial aerobic
phosphorylation. Which of the following statements correctly describes the mode of action of the
three inhibitors?

A) Cyanide and 2,4-dinitrophenol inhibit the respiratory chain, and oligomycin inhibits the
synthesis of ATP.
B) Cyanide inhibits the respiratory chain, whereas oligomycin and 2,4-dinitrophenol inhibit the
synthesis of ATP.
C) Cyanide, oligomycin, and 2,4-dinitrophenol compete with O2 for cytochrome oxidase (Complex
IV).
D) Oligomycin and cyanide inhibit synthesis of ATP; 2,4-dinitrophenol inhibits the respiratory
chain.
E) Oligomycin inhibits the respiratory chain, whereas cyanide and 2,4-dinitrophenol prevent the
synthesis of ATP.

Answer 4

B) Cyanide inhibits the respiratory chain, whereas oligomycin and 2,4-dinitrophenol inhibit the
synthesis of ATP.

Question 5

In the reoxidation of QH2 by purified ubiquinone-cytochrome c reductase (Complex III) from heart
muscle, the overall stoichiometry of the reaction requires 2 mol of cytochrome c per mole of QH2
because:

A) cytochrome c is a one-electron acceptor, whereas QH2 is a two-electron donor.
B) cytochrome c is a two-electron acceptor, whereas QH2 is a one-electron donor.
C) cytochrome c is water soluble and operates between the inner and outer mitochondrial
membranes
D) heart muscle has a high rate of oxidative metabolism, and therefore requires twice as much
cytochrome c as QH2 for electron transfer to proceed normally.
E) two molecules of cytochrome c must first combine physically before they are catalytically active.

Answer 5

B) cytochrome c is a two-electron acceptor, whereas QH2 is a one-electron donor.

Question 6

If electron transfer in tightly coupled mitochondria is blocked (with antimycin A) between
cytochrome b and cytochrome c1, then:

A) all ATP synthesis will stop.
B) ATP synthesis will continue, but the P/O ratio will drop to one.
C) electron transfer from NADH will cease, but O2 uptake will continue.
D) electron transfer from succinate to O2 will continue unabated.
E) energy diverted from the cytochromes will be used to make ATP, and the P/O ratio will rise.

Answer 6

A) all ATP synthesis will stop.

Question 7

In normal mitochondria, the rate of NADH consumption (oxidation) will:

A) be increased in active muscle, decreased in inactive muscle.
B) be very low if the ATP synthase is inhibited, but increase when an uncoupler is added.
C) decrease if mitochondrial ADP is depleted.
D) decrease when cyanide is used to prevent electron transfer through the cytochrome a + a3
complex.
E) All of the above are true.

Answer 7

E) All of the above are true.

Question 8

Which of the following statements about the chemiosmotic theory is correct?

A) Electron transfer in mitochondria is accompanied by an asymmetric release of protons on one
side of the inner mitochondrial membrane.
B) It predicts that oxidative phosphorylation can occur even in the absence of an intact inner
mitochondrial membrance.
C) The effect of uncoupling reagents is a consequence of their ability to carry electrons through
membranes.
D) The membrane ATP synthase has no significant role in the chemiosmotic theory.
E) All of the above are correct.

Answer 8

A) Electron transfer in mitochondria is accompanied by an asymmetric release of protons on one
side of the inner mitochondrial membrane.

Question 9

Which of the following statements about the chemiosmotic theory is false?

A) Electron transfer in mitochondria is accompanied by an asymmetric release of protons on one
side of the inner mitochondrial membrane.
B) Energy is conserved as a transmembrane pH gradient.
C) Oxidative phosphorylation cannot occur in membrane-free preparations.
D) The effect of uncoupling reagents is a consequence of their ability to carry protons through
membranes.
E) The membrane ATPase, which plays an important role in other hypotheses for energy coupling,
has no significant role in the chemiosmotic theory.

Answer 9

E) The membrane ATPase, which plays an important role in other hypotheses for energy coupling,
has no significant role in the chemiosmotic theory.

Question 10

Upon the addition of 2,4-dinitrophenol (DNP) to a suspension of mitochondria carrying out oxidative
phosphorylation linked to the oxidation of malate, all of the following occur except:

A) oxygen consumption decreases.
B) oxygen consumption increases.
C) the P/O ratio drops from a value of approximately 2.5 to 0.
D) the proton gradient dissipates.
E) the rate of transport of electrons from NADH to O2 becomes maximal.

Answer 10

A) oxygen consumption decreases.

Question 11

Uncoupling of mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation:

A) allows continued mitochondrial ATP formation, but halts O2 consumption.
B) halts all mitochondrial metabolism.
C) halts mitochondrial ATP formation, but allows continued O2 consumption.
D) slows down the citric acid cycle.
E) slows the conversion of glucose to pyruvate by glycolysis

Answer 11

C) halts mitochondrial ATP formation, but allows continued O2 consumption.

Question 12

2,4-Dinitrophenol and oligomycin inhibit mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation. 2,4- Dinitrophenol is an uncoupling agent; oligomycin blocks the ATP synthesis reaction itself. Therefore, 2,4-dinitrophenol will:

A) allow electron transfer in the presence of oligomycin.
B) allow oxidative phosphorylation in the presence of oligomycin.
C) block electron transfer in the presence of oligomycin.
D) diminish O2 consumption in the presence of oligomycin
E) do none of the above.

Answer 12

A) allow electron transfer in the presence of oligomycin.

Question 13

Which of the following statements about energy conservation in the mitochondrion is false?

A) Drug that inhibits the ATP synthase will also inhibit the flow of electrons down the chain of
carriers.
B) For oxidative phosphorylation to occur, it is essential to have a closed membranous structure
with an inside and an outside.
C) The yield of ATP per mole of oxidizable substrate depends on the substrate.
D) Uncouplers (such as dinitrophenol) have exactly the same effect on electron transfer as inhibitors
such as cyanide; both block further electron transfer to oxygen.
E) Uncouplers “short circuit” the proton gradient, thereby dissipating the proton motive force as
heat.

Answer 13

D) Uncouplers (such as dinitrophenol) have exactly the same effect on electron transfer as inhibitors
such as cyanide; both block further electron transfer to oxygen.

Question 14

Which of the following is correct concerning the mitochondrial ATP synthase?

A) It can synthesize ATP after it is extracted from broken mitochondria.
B) It catalyzes the formation of ATP even though the reaction has a large positive DG’°.
C) It consists of F0 and F1 subunits, which are transmembrane (integral) polypeptides.
D) It is actually an ATPase and only catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP.
E) When it catalyzes the ATP synthesis reaction, the DG’° is actually close to zero.

Answer 14

E) When it catalyzes the ATP synthesis reaction, the DG’° is actually close to zero.

Question 15

When the DG’° of the ATP synthesis reaction is measured on the surface of the ATP synthase
enzyme, it is found to be close to zero. This is thought to be due to:

A) a very low energy of activation.
B) enzyme-induced oxygen exchange.
C) stabilization of ADP relative to ATP by enzyme binding.
D) stabilization of ATP relative to ADP by enzyme binding.
E) none of the above.

Answer 15

D) stabilization of ATP relative to ADP by enzyme binding.

Question 16

During oxidative phosphorylation, the proton motive force that is generated by electron transport is
used to:

A) create a pore in the inner mitochondrial membrane.
B) generate the substrates (ADP and Pi) for the ATP synthase.
C) induce a conformational change in the ATP synthase.
D) oxidize NADH to NAD+
E) reduce O2 to H2O.

Answer 16

C) induce a conformational change in the ATP synthase.

Question 17

The oxidation of a particular hydroxy substrate to a keto product by mitochondria has a P/O ratio of
less than 2. The initial oxidation step is very likely directly coupled to the:

A) oxidation of a flavoprotein.
B) oxidation of a pyridine nucleotide.
C) reduction of a flavoprotein.
D) reduction of a pyridine nucleotide.
E) reduction of cytochrome a3.

Answer 17

C) reduction of a flavoprotein.

Question 18

The relative concentrations of ATP and ADP control the cellular rates of:

A) glycolysis.
B) oxidative phosphorylation.
C) pyruvate oxidation.
D) the citric acid cycle.
E) all of the above.

Answer 18

E) all of the above.

Question 19

The rate of oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria is controlled primarily by:

A) feedback inhibition by CO2.
B) the availability of NADH from the TCA cycle.
C) the concentration of citrate (or) the glycerol-3-phosphate shuttle.
D) the mass-action ratio of the ATD-ADP system.
E) the presence of thermogenin.

Answer 19

D) the mass-action ratio of the ATD-ADP system.

Question 20

Mammals produce heat by using the endogenous uncoupling agent:

A) the small molecule 2-4-Dinitrophenol synthesized by the cell.
B) the protein thermogenin.
C) the protein thioredoxin.
D) the protein cytochrome c.
E) a modified form of the FoF1 ATPase

Answer 20

B) the protein thermogenin.

Question 21

Which one of the following best describes the role of mitochondria in apoptosis?

A) Escape of cytochrome c into the cytoplasm.
B) Increased rate of fatty acid b-oxidation.
C) Increase in permeability of outer membrane.
D) Uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation.
E) Both A and C are correct.

Answer 21

E) Both A and C are correct.

Question 22

Mutations in mitochondrial genes play a role in each of the following diseases except:

A) adult onset diabetes.
B) cystic fibrosis.
C) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
D) Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy.
E) myoclonic epilepsy.

Answer 22

B) cystic fibrosis.

Question 23

Which one of the following statements about human mitochondria is true?

A) About 900 mitochondrial proteins are encoded by nuclear genes.
B) Mitochondrial genes are inherited from both maternal and paternal sources.
C) rRNA and tRNA are imported from the cytoplasm and used in mitochondrial protein synthesis.
D) The mitochondrial genome codes for all proteins found in mitochondria.
E) The mitochondrial genome is not subject to mutations

Answer 23

A) About 900 mitochondrial proteins are encoded by nuclear genes.

Question 24

In photophosphorylation, absorption of light energy in chloroplast “light reactions” leads to:

A) absorption of CO2 and release of O2.
B) absorption of O2 and release of CO2.
C) hydrolysis of ATP and reduction of NADP+
D) synthesis of ATP and oxidation of NADPH.
E) use of iron-sulfur proteins.

Answer 24

A) absorption of CO2 and release of O2.

Question 25

Which of the following statements about the light reactions in photosynthetic plants is false?

A) A membrane-bound ATPase couples ATP synthesis to electron transfer.
B) No CO2 is fixed in the light reactions.
C) The ultimate electron acceptor is O2.
D) The ultimate source of electrons for the process is H2O.
E) There are two distinct photosystems, linked together by an electron transfer chain.

Answer 25

B) No CO2 is fixed in the light reactions.

Question 26

The light reactions in photosynthetic higher plants:

A) do not require chlorophyll.
B) produce ATP and consume NADH.
C) require the action of a single reaction center.
D) result in the splitting of H2O, yielding O2
E) serve to produce light so that plants can see underground.

Answer 26

D) result in the splitting of H2O, yielding O2

Question 27

Photosynthetic phosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation appear to be generally similar
processes, both consisting of ATP synthesis coupled to the transfer of electrons along an electron
carrier chain. Which of the following is not true of both processes?

A) Both contain cytochromes and flavins in their electron carrier chains.
B) Both processes are associated with membranous elements of the cell.
C) Both use oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor.
D) Each represents the major route of ATP synthesis in those cells in which it is found.
E) Protons are pumped from the inside to the outside of both mitochondria and chloroplast
membranes

Answer 27

C) Both use oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor.

Question 28

Oxidative phosphorylation and photophosphorylation share all of the following except:

A) chlorophyll.
B) involvement of cytochromes.
C) participation of quinones.
D) proton pumping across a membrane to create electrochemical potential.
E) use of iron-sulfur proteins.

Answer 28

A) chlorophyll.

Question 29

The experimental determination of the effectiveness of light of different colors in promoting
photosynthesis is called the:

A) absorption spectrum.
B) action spectrum.
C) difference spectrum.
D) reflectance spectrum.
E) refraction spectrum.

Answer 29

B) action spectrum.

Question 30

In what order do the following five steps occur in the photochemical reaction centers?

1) Excitation of the chlorophyll a molecule at the reaction center
2) Replacement of the electron in the reaction center chlorophyll
3) Light excitation of antenna chlorophyll molecule
4) Passage of excited electron to electron-transfer chain
5) Exiton transfer to neighboring chlorophyll

A) 1-2-3-4-5
B) 3-2-5-4-1
C) 3-5-1-4-2
D) 4-2-3-5-1
E) 5-4-3-2-1

Answer 30

C) 3-5-1-4-2

Question 31

Which one of the following is true about reaction centers?

A) Cyanobacteria and plants have two reaction centers arranged in tandem.
B) Cyanobacteria contain a single reaction center of the Fe-S type.
C) Green sulfur bacteria have two reaction centers arranged in tandem.
D) Plant photosystems have a single reaction center of the pheophytin-quinone type.
E) Purple bacteria contain a single reaction center of the Fe-S type.

Answer 31

A) Cyanobacteria and plants have two reaction centers arranged in tandem.

Question 32

In the photolytic cleavage of water by the oxygen-evolving complex [2H2O ® 4 H+ + 4e– + O2], how
many photons of light at a wavelength of 680 nm are required?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 6
E) 8

Answer 32

C) 4

Question 33

Which one of the following statements about photophosphorylation is false?

A) It can be uncoupled from electron flow by agents that dissipate the proton gradient.
B) The difference in pH between the luminal and stromal side of the thylakoid membrane is 3 pH
units.
C) The luminal side of the thylakoid membrane has a higher pH than the stromal side.
D) The number of ATPs formed per oxygen molecule is about three.
E) The reaction centers, electron carriers, and ATP-forming enzymes are located in the thylakoid
membrane

Answer 33

C) The luminal side of the thylakoid membrane has a higher pH than the stromal side.

Question 34

Cyclic electron flow in chloroplasts produces:

A) ATP and O2, but not NADPH.
B) ATP, but not NADPH or O2 .
C) NADPH, and ATP, but not O2 .
D) NADPH, but not ATP or O2 .
E) O2, but not ATP or NADPH.

Answer 34

B) ATP, but not NADPH or O2 .