Chapter 17: Stomach Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What differentiates Acute Gastritis from Gastropathy?

Causes of each?

A
  • Acute gastritis: when neutrophils are present; autoimmune or H.pylori
  • Gastropathy: absence of inflammatory cells; NSAIDs, EtOH, Bile, Stress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ulcers associated with acute and chronic gastritis may include layers of what type of injury? (hint: mnemonic to remember layers)

A
  • Necrotic debris
  • Inflammation
  • Granulation tissue
  • Scar (fibrosis)

*NIGS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

NSAIDs contribute to gastritis by inhibiting what?

A

COX dependent synthesis of prostaglandin E2 and I2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Presence of _________ above the basement membrane in direct contact w/ epithelial cells is abnormal in all parts of the GI tract and signifies active inflammation (gastritis)

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the charactestic profile of foveolar cells and the epithelium in acute gastritis?

A
  • Foveolar cell hyperplasia w/ corkscrew profiles
  • Epithelial proliferation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Can gastropathy and acute gastritis be distinguished clinically?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is the response to PPI’s different if the patient is suffering from NSAID-induced gastropathy vs. pain associated w/ bile reflux?

A
  • NSAID-induced may be asymptomatic or have persistent epigastric pain that responds to antacids or PPI’s
  • Bile reflux is typically unresponsive to such therapies and may have occasional bilious vomiting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Stress ulcers are most common in individuals with what 3 things?

A

1) Shock
2) Sepsis
3) Severe trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Ulcers occuring in the prox. duodenum and associated with burns or trauma are called?

A

Curling ulcers

*Think curling irons will burn you!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Gastric, duodenal, and esophageal ulcers arising in persons w/ intracranial disease are termed?

These lesions are caused by direct stimulation of?

Carry a high incidence of?

A
  • Cushing ulcers
  • Direct stimulation of vagal nuclei –> hypersecretion of gastric acid

*Carry a high incidence of perforation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does ischemia play a role in the pathogenesis of stress-related gastric mucosal injury?

A
  • Systemic hypotension –> decreased blood flow due to stress-induced splanchnic vasoconstriction
  • Upregulation of inducible NOS
  • Increased release of vasoconstictor endothelin-1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Absence of what morphologically in stress-related gastric mucosal injury differs it from chronic peptic ulcers?

A

Absence of scarring and blood vessel thickening (characteristic of chronic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a Dieulafoy lesion caused by and what can it lead to?

Where are they most often seen?

Bleeding is often associated with?

A
  • Improper branching of submucosal artery w/i wall of stomach
  • Mucosal artery 10x normal size
  • Most commonly along lesser curvature, near GE junction
  • May erode overlying epi and cause gastric bleeding, often assoc. w/ NSAIDs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Gastric antral vascular ectasia (GAVE) can be recognized endoscopically how?

A
  • Longitudinal stripes of edematous erythematous mucosa alternating w/ less severely injured, paler mucosa
  • “Watermelon stomach”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

While often idiopathic, gastric antral vascular ectasia (GAVE) can be associated with what underlying pathologies?

Patients may present how?

A
  • Cirrhosis and Systemic Sclerosis
  • Present w/ occult fecal blood and iron deficiency anemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Most common cause of chronic gastritis?

Morphology of this organism?

A
  • H. pylori
  • Spiral-shaped, curved bacilli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does atrophic gastritis caused by H. pylori differ from chronic gastritis?

A

Has a mutlifocal pattern of injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Who is the primary carrier of H. pylori and how is it transmitted?

A
  • Humans
  • Fecal-oral
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

H. pylori infection most often presents predominantly as a?

Acid production?

A
  • Antral gastritis
  • Normal or increases acid production
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When inflammation caused by H. pylori is limited to the antrum there is an increased risk of?

A

Duodenal peptic ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If gastritis progresses to invovle the gastric body or fundus, it’s known as?

What is seen morphologically?

Increases risk for?

A
  • Multifocal atrophic gastritis
  • Patchy mucosal atrophy
  • Reduced parietal cell mass –> Decreased acid secretion
  • Increased risk of gastric adenocarcinoma (intestinal metaplasia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The virulence of H. pylori is related to which 4 charactersitc features of the organism?

A
  • Flagella -> allows for motility
  • Urease -> generates ammonia and increases pH (for survival)
  • Adhesins -> enhance bacterial adherence to surface foveolar cells
  • Toxins -> such as CagA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which virulence factor of H. pylori is associated w/ elevated gastric cancer risk and allows for colonization of gastric body causing multifocal atrophic gastritis?

A

CagA gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Polymorphisms of which immunologic mediators are associated w/ development of pangastritis, atrophy, and gastric cancer associated w/ H. pylori?

A
  • Increased: TNF and IL-1β
  • Decreased: IL-10 (anti-inflammatory)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which vitamin deficiency is a risk factor for H.pylori-associated gastric cancer?

A

Iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Intraepithelial ___________ and subepithelial _________ are characteristic of H. pylori gastritis.

A

Intraepithelial neutrophils and subepithelial plasma cells are characteristic of H. pylori gastritis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

H. pylori displays trophism for which cells and part of stomach?

A

Gastric epithelia –> antrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Intense H. pylori infection can lead to inflammatory infiltrates producing what finding that mimics appearance of early cancer?

A

Thickened rugal folds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Lymphoid aggregates, some with germinal centers are frequently present in H. pylori gastritis and represent an induced form of?

Potential to transform into?

A
  • Induced form of MALT
  • Lymphoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Pit abscesses often seen with H. pylori gastritis is due to a buildup of?

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

H. pylori can be stained with?

A

Warthin-Starry silver stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which characteristics of this image are distinguishing features of H. pylori gastritis?

A
  • Lymphoid aggregates w/ germinal centers
  • Abundant subepithelial plasma cells in superficial lamina propria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which tests can be used in the diagnosis of H. pylori infection?

A
  • anti-H.pylori Abs test
  • Fecal bacterial detection
  • Urease breath test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Effective treatment for H. pylori infection includes combinations of?

A

Antibiotics and PPIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How does the location of autoimmune gastritis differ from that of H. pylori?

A

Typically spares the antrum and affects the body

  • Associated w/ hypergastrinemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Autoimmune gastritis is characterized by 5 findings (i.e., Abs and deficiencies)?

A
  • Abs to parietal cells and IF
  • Reduced serum [pepsinogen I]
  • Endocrine cell hyperplasia
  • Vit B12 deficiency (due to Abs against IF)
  • Defective gastric acid secretion (achlorhydria) –> hypergastrinemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What type of anemia is associated with autoimmune gastritis?

A
  • Pernicious (megaloblastic) anemia
  • Due to loss of IF and decreased absorption of B12
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How is the atrophy of autoimmune gastritis different from that of H. pylori-mediated?

A
  • Autoimmune causes DIFFUSE atrophy = achlorhydria
  • H. pylori causes mulitfocal (patchy) = NO achlorhydria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Destruction of parietal cell components, including H+,K+-ATPase by what are considered to be the principal agents of injury in autoimmune gastritis?

A

CD4+ T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Autoantibodies to which parietal cell components are most prominently seen in autoimmune gastritis?

Do they cause damage?

A
  • H+, K+-ATPase
  • Proton pumps
  • IF

*Not pathogenic, because neither secreted IF or proton pumps are accessible to circulating antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Diffuse mucosal damage of the oxyntic (acid-producing) mucosa within the body and fundus of the stomach are characteristic of?

A

Autoimmune gastritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are some of the characteristic findings morphologically in autoimmune gastritis?

i.e., mucosa, inflammatory rxn, suface changes, and presence of which cells?

A
  • Thinned mucosa and loss of rugal folds 2’ to atrophy
  • Deeper inflammatory rxn and centered on the gastric glands
  • Small surface elevations representing intestinal metaplasia, presence of goblet cells and columnar absorptive cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which stain can allow for visualization of endocrine hyperplasia associated w/ autoimmune gastritis?

A

Immunostains for chromogrannin A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the main inflammatory infiltrates seen with autoimmune gastritis?

A

Lymphocytes, macrophages, and plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the progression of autoimmune gastritis like and what is the median age of diagnosis?

Which sex is more affected?

A
  • Progression to gastric atrophy occurs over 20-30 years
  • Median age = 60 yo
  • Slightly more women affected (as w/ most autoimmune dz)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Sometimes the clinical presentation of autoimmune gastritis is linked to sx’s of anemia (B12 deficiency), what may the patient present with?

A
  • Atrophic glossitis (smooth and beefy red tongue)
  • Epithelial megaloblastosis
  • Malabsorptive diarrhea
  • Peripheral neuropathy –> paresthesias + numbness
  • Spinal cord lesions –> Subacute combined degeneration (loss of dorsal/lateral spinal tracts)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What can be corrected in regards to B12 deficiency thru B12 replacement therapy?

A
  • ONLY anemia
  • Neuro changes CANNOT be corrected!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Eosinophilic gastritis most commonly affects what part of stomach?

Increased serum levels of?

Associated w/ allergic rxns in children to what?

A
  • Antral or pyloric regions
  • Increased serum IgE levels
  • Cow’s milk or soy protein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Lymphocytic gastritis (Varioliform Gastritis) is sometimes associated w/ what underlying disease?

Most often in which gender presenting with what sx’s?

A
  • Celiac Disease
  • Women presenting w/ non-specific abdominal sx’s
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the distinctive endoscopic appearance of Lymphocytic gastritis (Varioliform Gastritis)?

Histologically there is an increase in the # of which immune cells?

A

- Thickened folds covered by small nodules w/ central apthous ulceration

- Intraepithelial T lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the most common specific cause of Granulomatous Gastritis in Western populations?

Other causes?

A
  • Chron disease (most common) –> noncaseating granulomas
  • Sarcoidosis
  • Infections (mycobacteria, fungi, CMV, and H. pylori)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the risk factors for PUD (10 of them from table)?

A
  • H.pylori infection
  • Cigarette use (synergizes w/ H.pylori )
  • COPD
  • Illicit drugs
  • NSAIDs
  • Alcoholic cirrhosis
  • Psychological stress
  • Endocrine cell hyperplasia
  • ZE syndrome
  • Viral infection (CMV, herpes simplex)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Nearly all peptic ulcers are associated w/ what 3 risk factors?

A

1) H. pylori
2) NSAIDs
3) Cigarette smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Most common form of PUD occurs where in stomach and is associated with what?

Levels of what will be increased and decreased?

A
  • Gastric antrum or duodenum as result of chronic H. pylori-induced antral gastritis
  • Increased gastric acid secretion
  • Decreased duodenal HCO3- secretion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

A new group of duodenal PUD patients >60 yo have emerged recently as a result of what?

Presence of what can increase risk?

A
  • Increased NSAID use
  • Especially when low-dose aspirin (for CV benefit) is combined w/ other NSAIDs
  • Facilitated if concurrent H. pylori infection is also present
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How can cigarette use and CV disease contribute to PUD?

A

Reduced mucosal blood flow, oxygenation, and healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Where in the duodenum are peptic ulcers most commonly seen?

Involve what part of the wall?

A
  • Prox. duodenum near the pyloric valve
  • Anterior duodenal wall
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Grossly how does the classic peptic ulcer appear?

A

Sharply punched-out defect w/ hemorrhage and fibrosis

*Is virtually diagnostic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Perforation of a peptic ulcer into the peritoneal cavity is considered what?

How may this be detected clinically?

A
  • Surgical emergency
  • Detection of free air under the diaphragm on upright radiographs of abomen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is a possible complication due to the scarred vessel walls and thickening of vessels seen in PUD?

A

Life-threatening hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the most frequent complication associated with PUD?

A

Bleeding

*May be first indication of an ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which complication of PUD is most often associated w/ chronic ulcers and more often assoicated w/ pyloric channel ulcers?

Causes what symptoms?

A
  • Obstruction 2° to edema or scarring
  • Incapacitating, crampy abdominal pain
63
Q

Which complication associated w/ PUD accounts for 2/3 of ulcer deaths?

A

Perforations

64
Q

What are the major clinical signs and symptoms of PUD?

A
  • Epigastric burning or aching pain
  • Pain is worse 1-3 hrs after meal and worse at night; relieved by alkali foods
65
Q

How does a meal affect the experience of pain in someone with a gastric ulcer vs. duodenal ulcer?

A
  • Gastric –> pain = worse 1-3 hrs after meal
  • Duodenal –> pain improves w/ meal
66
Q

Some patients with PUD may present with what complications others than epigastric burning or aching pain (i.e., more serious complications)?

A
  • Iron deficiency anemia
  • Hemorrhage
  • Perforation
67
Q

PUD that is penetrating may cause pain to be referred where and can be misinterpreted as?

A
  • Referred to the back
  • LUQ
  • Chest

*Misinterpreted as cardiac in origin

68
Q

What are the current mainstays of treatment for PUD?

A
  • H. pylori eradication
  • PPI’s to neutralize gastric acid

*Important to withdraw agents such as NSAIDs and selective COX-2 inhibitors

69
Q

Which glands are affected in autoimmune gastritis?

A

Gastric body oxyntic glands

70
Q

Risk of gastric adenocarcinoma is greatest in what type of gastritis?

A

Autoimmune gastritis (chronic)

71
Q

Oxyntic atrophy may be associated with intestinal metaplasia, recognized by the presence of _____________.

A

Goblet cells

72
Q

How can the distinction between dysplasia and regenerative epithelial changes induced by active inflammation be distinguished morphologically?

A
  • Reactive epithelial cells mature as they reach mucosal surface
  • Dysplastic lesions remain cytologically immature
73
Q

Menetrier disease is associated with excess?

Characterized by?

Anatomicaly where is it seen?

A
  • Excess secretion of TGF-α
  • Diffuse hyperplasia of the foveolar mucus cells of the BODY and FUNDUS
  • Hypo-proteinemia
74
Q

Morphologically what is the most characteristic findings in Menetrier Disease?

A
  • Hyperplasia of foveolar mucus cells
  • Glands = elongated w/ a corkscrew-like appearance
75
Q

Which disease is this characteristic of?

A

Menetrier disease

*Markerd hypertrophy of rugal folds

76
Q

2° symptoms of Menetrier disease (3 most common)?

A
  • Weight loss
  • Diarrhea
  • Peripheral edema
77
Q

When does Menetrier disease typically affect children?

A

Often following a respiratory infection

78
Q

Are Zollinger-Ellison syndrome and Menentrier Disease associated w/ increased risk for adenocarcinoma?

A

Menetrier disease ONLY

79
Q

What is the most common gastric location of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

Predominant cell type?

Inflammatory infiltrate?

A
  • Fundus of stomach
  • Parietal > mucous, endocrine = predominant cellt types
  • Neutrophils
80
Q

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is caused by what?

Patients often present how?

A
  • Gastrin-secreting tumor of the pancreas or small intestine
  • Pt present w/ duodenal ulcers and chronic diarrhea
81
Q

What is the most remarkable feature found in the stomach of someone with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

A

2x thickness of oxyntic mucosa due to 5x the # of parietal cells

82
Q

How fast do gastrinomas grow and are they typically benign or malignant?

A
  • Slow growing
  • 60-90% are malignant
83
Q

MEN-1 is associated with what tumor of the GI?

A

Gastrinomas —> Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

84
Q

High levels of gastrin associated w/ ZE syndrome induces what changes?

A
  • Hyperplasia of mucous neck cells
  • Mucin hyperproduction
  • Proliferation of endocrine cells
85
Q

The major type/most common type of gastric polyps are of what type?

A

Inflammatory and Hyperplastic polyps

86
Q

Inflammatory/hyperplastic polyps are most common in what age group?

Develop in association with what underlying disorder?

A
  • 50-60 y/o
  • Develop in association w/ chronic gastritis
87
Q

The risk of dysplasia associated with inflammatory/hyperplastic polyps is correlates with what?

Which polyps should be resected for further examination?

A

Size, polyps larger than 1.5 cm should be resected

88
Q

Microscopically how does inflammatory/hyperplastic polyps look?

A

Irregular, cystically dilated, and elongated foveolar glands (“cork-screw shaped)

89
Q

Fundic Gland Polyps occur in what 2 ways?

Which is associated with a risk of cancer?

A

1) Sporadically
2) Pts w/ familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) –> dysplasia –> adenomcarcinoma

90
Q

Why has the prevalence of Fundic Gland Polyps increased markedly in recent years?

A
  • Use of PPI’s
  • Lead to increased gastrin –> oxyntic gland growth
91
Q

How do Fundic gland polyps appear mophologically?

What are the dominant cell types seen?

A

Cystically dilated glands lined by parietal, chief, and foveolar cells

92
Q

What are 3 risk factors for Gastric Adenomas?

A

1) Chronic gastritis
2) Atrophy
3) Intestinal metaplasia

93
Q

Which age group and sex is most commonly affected by Gastric Adenomas?

A
  • Pts 50-60 yo
  • Males 3x more often
94
Q

Which size lesion in Gastric Adenomas is associated w/ increased risk for adenocarcinoma?

A

>2 cm

95
Q

What are the morphological characteristics of Gastric Adenomas?

A

Intestinal-type columnar epithelium w/ varying degrees of dysplasia

96
Q

Where are Gastric Adenomas most commonly found?

A

Antrum

97
Q

Gastric adenomas are ____________ neoplastic lesions

A

Pre-malignant

98
Q

Which 2 gastric polyp types are associated with familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)?

A

1) Fundic gland polyp
2) Gastric Adenoma

99
Q

What is the most common malignancy of the stomach?

A

Gastric Adenocarcinoma

100
Q

What are the late sx’s associated with Gastric Adenocarcinom, which usually prompt further diagnostic evaluation?

A
  • Weight loss
  • Anorexia
  • Early satiety (primarily in DIFFUSE cancers)
  • Anemia
  • Hemorrhage
101
Q

Which countries have a 20-fold higher incidence of gastric adenocarcinomas?

A
  • Japan
  • Chile
  • Costa Rica
  • Eastern Europe

*More common in low SES groups

102
Q

Where are the most common sites of metastasis for Gastric Adenocarcinoma?

A
  • Supraclavicular sentinel LN (Virchow node)
  • Periumbilical LNs (Sister Mary Joseph nodule)
  • Left axillary LN (Irish node)
  • Ovary (Krukenberg tumor)
  • Recto-uterine pouch (of Douglas)
103
Q

What are 3 recognizable precursor lesions/risk factors for Gastric Adenocarcinoma?

A

1) Gastric dysplasia
2) Adenomas
3) H. pylori infection

104
Q

The cause of overall reduction in gastric cancer is most closely linked to what?

Other factors?

A

Decreases in H. pylori prevalence

105
Q

Prevalence of which type of gastric cancer is actually on the rise?

A

Cancer of the gastric cardia

106
Q

Familial gastric cancer is strongly associated with what genetic mutation?

This gene encodes what?

A
  • Germline loss-of-function mutations in CDH1
  • -* Encodes E-cadherin
107
Q

Loss of which protein is a key step in the development of diffuse gastric cancer?

A

E-cadherin

108
Q

Individuals with what gene mutation related to breast cancer are at an increased risk for developing diffuse gastric cancer?

A

BRCA2

109
Q

Sporadic intestinal-type gastric cancers are strongly associated w/ mutations that result in increased signaling of which pathway?

Which loss of function and gain of function mutations seen in this type of cancer can lead to increased signaling via this pathway?

A
  • WNT pathway
  • G.O.F in gene encoding β-catenin
  • L.O.F. or silencing of APC, TGFβ​, BAX, or CDKN2A
110
Q

In the context of H. pylori infection genetic variants of which immune response genes are associated w/ an elevated risk of gastric cancer?

A
  • IL-1β
  • TNF
  • IL-10
  • IL-8
  • TLR4
111
Q

Persons with FAP and what associated germline mutations have an increased risk for the intestinal-type gastric cancer, especially in high-risk areas such as Japan?

A

APC

112
Q

Gastric tumors with an intestinal morphology tend to form ________ tumors, and are composed of ________ structures

A

Gastric tumors with an intestinal morphology tend to form bulky tumors, and are composed of glandular structures

*Diffuse-type does NOT form glands

113
Q

Gastric cancers with a diffuse infiltrative growth pattern are more often composed of what type of cells?

A

Singlet-ring cells = large mucin vacuoles which expand cytoplasm and push nucleus to periphery

114
Q

Infiltrative diffuse gastric cancers often evoke which reaction that stiffens the gastric wall?

Why is this important as a diagnostic feature?

A
  • Desmoplastic reaction
  • Stiffening of the gastric wall –> early satiety –> VALUABLE diagnostic clue
115
Q

When there are large areas of infiltration with a gastric cancer, diffuse rugal flattening and a rigid, thickened wall may impart what type of appearance?

Known as?

A
  • Leather bottle appearance
  • Linitis plastica
116
Q

Is this PUD or Gastric cancer; how can you tell?

A
  • Gastric adenocarcinoma (intestinal-type)
  • Elevated mass w/ heaped up border and central ulceration
117
Q

How does Intestinal-type gastric cancer vs. diffuse gastric cancer differ in where they predominate?

Precursor lesions associated with each type?

A
  • Intestinal-type predominates in high-risk areas, while incidence of diffuse-type is relatively uniform across countries
  • Intestinal-type develops from pre-cursor lesions including flat dysplasia and adenomas.
  • NO known precursor lesions for the diffuse type
118
Q

When possible, what is the preferred treatment for gastric adenocarcinoma and if successful what is the prognosis?

A
  • Surgical resection
  • 5-year survival of 90% even w/ metastases
119
Q

What is the overall prognosis of gastric adenocarcinoma in the United States?

A

Poor; <30% due to most being caught at advanced stage

120
Q

In allogenic HSC and organ transplant receipients, the bowel is the most frequent site for?

Due to what factor of the procedure?

A
  • EBV+ B-cell lymphoproliferations
  • Deficits in T-cell function caused by oral immunosuppressive agents (i.e., cyclosporine)
121
Q

Which type of gastritis is associated with the induction of MALT in the stomach?

Caused by what?

A
  • Chronic gastritis
  • H. pylori infection
122
Q

How effective is H. pylori eradication in the treatment of patients with stomach MALToma?

The presence of which translocation/pathway of activation represents an exception to this?

A
  • Durable remission w/ low rates of recurrence
  • Tumors with translocations involving MLT or BCL10 causing NF-kB activation will NOT respond to H. pylori eradication
123
Q

Which 3 translocations are associated w/ gastric MALToma?

Which is most common?

A
  • t(11;18) = most common
  • t(1;14)
  • t(14;18)
124
Q

What does the t(11;18) translocation bring together in the development of gastric MALToma (i.e., fusion product)?

A

Joins API2 gene on cr. 11 w/ the MLT gene on cr. 18

*API2-MLT fusion

125
Q

Which proteins are increased with the t(14;18) and t(1;14) translocations associated w/ gastric MALToma?

A
  • t(14;18) –> MALT1
  • t(1;14) –> BCL-10
126
Q

All three translocations associated with gastric MALToma have the same net effect, which is what?

A

Activation of NF-kB –> B-cell growth and survival

127
Q

Histologically, gastric MALTomas take the form of what and where?

A

Dense lymphocytic infiltrate in the lamina propria

128
Q

Which B-cell markers are expressed by MALTomas and which is only present in 25% of cases but can be a useful diagnostic feature?

A
  • CD19 and CD20
  • CD43 - 25% of cases
129
Q

Carcinoid tumors of the GI tract arise from where and are now called what?

A
  • Endocrine system components
  • Well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumors
130
Q

Where in the GI are the majority (40%) of carcinoid tumors found?

Mean patient age of onset?

A
  • Jejunum and Ileum (throughout)
  • 65 yo

*MOST COMMON malignancy in Small Intestine!

131
Q

What is the major secretory products of carcinoid tumors of the jejunum and ileum?

A

Serotonin

Substance P

Polypeptide YY

132
Q

Which location in the GI is affected by the most aggressive carcinoid tumor?

A

Jejunum and Ileum (most common location of these tumors)

133
Q

Gastric carcinoid tumors are associated with what 4 diseases/syndromes?

Which type of gastritis specifically?

A
  • Endocrine cell hyperplasia
  • Autoimmune atrophic gastritis
  • MEN-1
  • Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
134
Q

What is the most frequently affected location of the stomach seen in carcinoid tumors?

Secretory products of this type?

A
  • Body and fundus
  • Histamine - Somatostatin - Serotonin
135
Q

Carcinoid tumors may be associated with what clinical syndrome and what are the associated symptoms?

Strongly associated with metastatic disease of which organ?

A
  • Carcinoid syndrome
  • Cutaneous flushing, sweating, bronchospasm, colicky abdominal pain
  • Diarrhea
  • Right-sided cardiac valvular fibrosis

*Strongly associated with metastatic dz of the liver

136
Q

What happens to the vasoactive substances released by carcinoid tumors confined to the intestine?

A

Metabolized to inactive forms by liver, “first-pass” effect

*Liver contains monoamine oxidase

137
Q

What is the prognosis of GI carcinoid tumors arising in foregut (esophagus, stomach, duodenum prox. to lig. of Treitz) structures?

Metastasis?

A
  • Metastasis is RARE
  • Generally cured by resection
138
Q

What is the prognosis of GI carcinoid tumors arising in midgut (jejunum/ileum) structures?

Metastasis?

A
  • Tend to be aggressive
  • Greater depth of invasion, increased size, and overall worse outcome
139
Q

What is the prognosis of GI carcinoid tumors arising in hindgut (appendix, colon, rectum) structures?

Where in the appendix do these occur and age of onset?

Metastasis?

A
  • Almost always BENIGN
  • Appendix –> occur at any age + localize to tip + <2cm + benign
  • Metastasis is uncommon
140
Q

Carcinoid tumors of the proximal 1/3 of the duodenum secrete what products?

Associated with what diseases/syndromes?

A
  • Gastrin, Somatostatin, CCK
  • ZE syndrome and NF-1
141
Q

Carcinoid tumors of the rectum secrete what products?

Associated symptom?

A
  • Serotonin and Polypeptide YY
  • Abdominal pain and weight loss
142
Q

What is the most common mesenchymal tumor of the abdomen and where in the GI do a majority of them occur?

A
  • GI stromal tumor (GIST)
  • Stomach
143
Q

GI stromal tumors (GIST) are mesenchymal and arise from which cells?

A

Interstitial cells of Cajal (ICC)

144
Q

Although rare, GISTs seen in children are associated with what triad?

Primarily seen in which sex?

A
  • Carney triad –> primarily young females
    1) GIST
    2) Paraganglioma
    3) Pulmonary chondroma
145
Q

There is an increased incidence of GIST seen in persons with which underlying genetic condition?

A

NF1

146
Q

Majority of GISTs have oncogenic, gain-of-funciton mutations in what?

Although not as common, what is another mutation associated with GISTs that is overrepresented in the stomach?

A
  • Receptor tyrosine kinase: KIT = majority
  • PDGFRA overrepresented in the stomach
147
Q

Genetic mutations causing a loss of what are associated with an increased risk of GIST and paraganglioma (Carney-Stratakis syndrome)?

A

SDH function (components of mitochondrial succinate dehydrogenase complex)

148
Q

What are the major morphological characteristics of primary gastric GISTs?

Size, histological, and types?

A
  • Large, as much as 30 cm
  • Solitary, well-circumscribed, fleshy mass
  • Whorled appearance
  • Can be spindle cell type and epithelioid type
149
Q

What is the most useful diagnostic marker of GISTs?

Detectable where?

A

KIT which is detectable in Cajal cells via immunohistochemical stain

150
Q

Symptoms of GISTs are sometimes related to what?

Half of patients will present with what underlying problem?

How are these tumors typically discovered?

A
  • Sx’s due to mass effect
  • Half present with anemia and associated sx’s due to mucosal ulceration
  • Often discovered incidentally during XR, endoscopy, or abdominal surgery
151
Q

Which type of GIST is typically less aggressive and which is typically more?

A
  • Gastric GISTs are typically less
  • Intestinal GISTs are typically more
152
Q

What are the treatment options for GISTs and how does genetics play a role in tx?

A
  • Complete surgical resection is primary tx
  • Pt w/ mutation in KIT or PDGFRA often respond to tyrosine kinase inhibitors –> imatinib
153
Q

Granulomatous Gastritis is a term applied to any gastritis that contains well-formed __________ and aggregates of which immune cell type?

A
  • Well-formed granulomas
  • Aggregates of macrophages!