Chapter 17 - Nutrition Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What is nutrition?

A
  • The process by which a living organism assimilates food and uses it for growth and repair of tissues.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Give some examples of nutrition topics of discussion for the fitness professional.

A
  • Food preparation methods
  • Food guidance systems (food guide pyramid, MyPlate)
  • Healthy snacks
  • Carbohydrate, protein, and fat basics
  • Statistical information on the relationship between chronic disease and the excesses or deficiencies of specific nutrients
  • Nutrients contained in foods or supplements
  • Vitamins and minerals as essential nutrients
    Importance of water and hydration status
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a Registered Dietician (RD)?

A
  • A specialized food and nutrition expert with extensive training who meets specified criteria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the educational and professional requirements for a registered dietician?

A
  • Bachelor’s Degree from accredited college or university with coursework approved from the Commission on Accreditation for Dietetics Education (CADE)
  • Supervised practice program: complete a CADE-accredited program (6-12 months in length) with focused practice and study in clinical and community nutrition, and food-service management (graduate study often combined)
  • National examination: Must pass the exam in order to receive RD credential
  • Continuing education: must complete CE requirements to maintain active RD credential
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a calorie (with a lowercased “c”)?

A
  • The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water 1℃
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a Calorie (with an uppercased “C”)?

A
  • A unit of expression of energy equal to 1,000 calories. The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 kilogram or liter of water 1℃
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a kilocalorie?

A
  • A unit of expression of energy equal to 1,000 calories. - The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 kilogram or liter of water 1℃
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is total energy expenditure (TEE) / total daily energy expenditure (TDEE)?

A
  • The amount of energy (calories) spent, on average, in a typical day
  • TEE is the sum total of three different energy components:
    1. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)
    2. Thermic effect of food (TEF)
    3. Energy expended during physical activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is resting metabolic rate (RMR)? How much of TEE does it account for?

A
  • The amount of energy expended while at rest; represents the minimal amount of energy required to sustain vital bodily functions such as blood circulation, respiration, and temperature regulation. (relative and constant)
  • 70% of TEE in sedentary adults, but varies from person to person.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are some factors that affect/determine RMR?

A
  1. Age
    • Maintaining muscle mass is important during aging because some of the decline in RMR associated with age is caused by a decline of muscle
  2. Sex
  3. Genetics
  4. Hormonal changes
    • Example: thyroid hormones influence many metabolic functions throughout the body including fat and carbohydrate metabolism and growth
    • High concentrations tend to cause an increase in RMR
  5. Body size
  6. Body composition
  7. Temperature
  8. Altitude
  9. Illness
  10. Medication
  11. Food
  12. Caffeine take
  13. Cigarette smoking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What types of medication can affect RMR? Give examples.

A
  1. Certain cardiovascular medications can reduce RMR from 4% to 13%
  2. Chemotherapy can reduce RMR 6% to 11%,
  3. Long-term use of growth hormone increase RMR by 12%
  4. Thyroid medications used in hypothyroidism can increase RMR as much as 17%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is basal metabolic rate? What can be interchangeably used with? How does it differ?

A
  • A term used when the measurements are taken after the subject has spent the night in a metabolic ward or chambers and has fasted for 12 hours.
  • Often used interchangeably with RMR, but RMR is measured after the subject spends the night at home and has to drive to the research lab for measurement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the thermic effect of food (TEF)? How much of the TEE does it account for? Give an example of how energy is expended via TEF.

A
  • The amount of energy expended above RMR as a result of the processing of food (digestion) for storage and use.
  • TEF typically accounts for approx. 6-10% of TEE
  • Increased energy expenditure after a meal required to mechanically digest and move food through the digestive tract, transport nutrients from gut to blood, and distribute throughout body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe energy expended during physical activity. How much of TEE does it account for? What varies the results?

A
  • The amount of energy expended above the RMR and TEF associated with physical activity
  • Can be influenced more dramatically than RMR and TEF
  • Physical activity accounts for ~20% of TEE.
  • Varies based on an individual’s current fitness levels and the type, intensity and duration of physical activity or exercise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the most common way to Estimate Total Daily Energy Expenditure?

A

Step 1: Estimate RMR
Weight (lbs) x 10 = RMR
110 (lbs) x 10 = 1,100 RMR

Step 2: Multiply RMR by appropriate activity factor
RMR x activity factor = TEE
1,100 x 1.5 (activity factor) = 1,650 calories expended per day (TEE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Even most commonly used formulas can have up to a __% variance in overestimating or underestimating RMR and TEE. US Department of Agriculture has online calculators to help estimate TEE.

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe physical activity factors for adults of average size 19 years or older who’s activity factor (range) is 1.2-1.3 (Sedentary Lifestyle).

A
  • 1.2 - 1.3 activity Factor
  • Very Light
  • Seated and standing activities, office work, driving, cooking, no vigorous activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe physical activity factors for adults of average size 19 years or older who’s activity factor (range) is 1.5-1.6 (Low-Active Lifestyle).

A
  • 1.5 - 1.6 activity Factor
  • Low Activity
  • In addition to sedentary lifestyle activities, 30 minutes of moderate activity equivalent to walking 2 miles in 30 minutes
  • Includes most office workers with additional planned exercise routines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe physical activity factors for adults of average size 19 years or older who’s activity factor (range) is 1.6-1.7.

A
  1. 6 - 1.7 activity Factor
    - Active
    - In addition to low active lifestyle activities, an additional 3 hours of activity such as bicycle 10-12 miles an hour, walk 4.5 miles an hour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe physical activity factors for adults of average size 19 years or older who’s activity factor (range) is 1.9-2.1.

A
  • 1.9 - 2.1 activity Factor
  • Heavy
  • Planned vigorous activities, physical labor, full-time athletes, hard-labor professions such as steel or road workers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define protein.

A

Amino acids linked by peptide bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is protein’s primary function? What else is protein involved in?

A
  • Primary function: to build and repair body tissues and structures
  • Involved in the synthesis of hormones, enzymes, and other regulatory peptides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

1 gram of protein yields how many calories?

A

4 calories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The structure of protein is approximately __ different amino acids linked together by peptide bonds to build many different proteins.

A

20 amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Can essential amino acids be manufactured in the body in sufficient amounts? Where is it obtained?

A
  • Cannot be manufactured in the body (or are manufactured in insufficient amounts)
  • Must be obtained from the food supply or other exogenous source
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How many essential amino acids are there?

A
  • 8 essential amino acids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How does the body manufacture nonessential amino acids?

A
  • The body is able to manufacture them from dietary nitrogen and fragments of carbs and fats
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

List the two semi-essential amino acids that cannot be manufactured by the body at a rate that will support growth, especially in children.

A
  • Arginine

- Histidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

List the 8 essential amino acids.

A
  • Isoleucine
  • Leucine
  • Lysine
  • Methionine
  • Phenylalanine
  • Threonine
  • Tryptophan
  • Valine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

List the nonessential amino acids.

A
  • Alanine
  • Asparagine
  • Aspartic acid
  • Cysteine
  • Glutamic acid
  • Glutamine
  • Glycine
  • Proline
  • Serine
  • Tyrosine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Proteins must be broken down into the constituent amino acids before the body can use them to build or repairs tissue or as an energy source.

The fate of proteins depends on the homeostatic needs of 3 major processes. What are they?

A
  1. Tissue replacement
  2. Tissue addition
  3. Need for energy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What happens to proteins once they reach the stomach?

A

Opens up ingested proteins strands (denatures or uncoils) with hydrochloric acid (HCI) and cleaves (with enzyme pepsin) strands into peptide chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What happens to proteins once they reach the small intestines and interact with pancreatic and intestinal proteases (protein enzymes)?

A

Further splits peptide chains into
- Tripeptides
- Dipeptides
- Amino acids
Small intestine’s lining (absorptive cells)
- Splits tripeptides and dipeptides into amino acids
- Absorbs amino acids through the intestinal wall into the enterocytes and released into the bloodstream by the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Once in the bloodstream, the free-form amino acids can be used for what?

A
  • Protein synthesis (building and repairing tissues or structures)
  • Immediate energy or potential energy (fat storage)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

If carbohydrate or total energy intake is too low, the body has the ability to use amino acids (from dietary or body proteins) to provide energy. Describe the process.

A
  • Amino acids are first deaminated (or stripped of the amine group) allowing the remaining carbon skeleton to be used for the production of glucose or ketones to be used for energy
  • The removed amine group produces ammonia (toxic) - Ammonia is converted to urea in the liver and excreted as urine by kidneys
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is considered a complete protein?

A
  • If a food supplies all of the essential amino acids in appropriate ratios
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is considered an incomplete protein?

A
  • If a food source is low or lacking in one or more essential amino acids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the limiting factor of an incomplete protein?

A
  • The essential amino acids missing or present in the smallest amounts within a food source
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Describe the process of protein synthesis regarding the limiting factor of protein absorption.

A
  • All amino acids must be present at the site of protein manufacture or synthesis will be reduced to the point at which the cell runs out of the limiting amino acid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

List the three terms used to rate dietary protein.

A
  1. Protein efficiency ratio (PER)
  2. Net protein utilization (NPU)
  3. Biologic value (BV)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is biologic value (BV)?

A
  • The measure of protein quality or how well it satisfies the body’s essential amino acid needs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the main sources for Complete Proteins? Give an example.

A

Animal sources:

  • Dairy
  • Meats
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the main sources for incomplete proteins? Give an example.

A

Incomplete proteins:

  • Grains
  • Legumes
  • Nuts: cashews, pumpkin seeds and other nuts
  • Seeds
  • Beans
  • Lentils
  • Barley, cornmeal, oats, buckwheat, pasta, rye, wheat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How can an individual who is vegetarian/vegan still put complete proteins in their body?

A
  • Incomplete proteins can be combined to make available all of the essential amino acids and form a complete protein
    Example: mixing grains, legumes, and seeds can create a complete protein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is gluconeogenesis? How does it relate to a negative energy balance?

A
  • When amino acids are used to assist in energy production
  • Gluconeogenesis occurs during a negative energy balance
  • Body-fat reduction requires caloric deficit creating a negative energy balance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The amount of lean body mass lost in a person in a negative energy balance can be reduced by increasing the amount of _______ in the diet, leading to a more rapid return to nitrogen balance.

A
  • Increasing the amount of protein in the diet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Protein and the bodybuilder:
To reach competitive body-fat levels, calorie intake is continually _______ while exercise (such as cardiorespiratory training, weight training and posing) is _________.

A
  • Lowered

- Increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Protein and the bodybuilder:
True or False:
Competitive levels of body fat are generally unhealthy and impossible to maintain for prolonged periods of time

A
  • True
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

After heavy resistance training, how can a client inhibit muscle-protein breakdown, resulting in a positive protein balance?

A
  • Carbohydrate (1 g/kg or 0.5 gram per pound), not protein, consumed within an hour after heavy resistance training inhibits muscle-protein breakdown, resulting in a positive protein balance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Skeletal muscle is approx.
__% water
__% protein
_% fat, glycogen and other minerals

A

Skeletal muscle is approx.

  • 72% water
  • 22% protein
  • 6% fat, glycogen and other minerals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

1 pound of muscle tissue contains approximately ___ grams of protein

A
  • 100 grams of protein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How much protein is required to build muscle?

A
  • Additional 200-400 calories daily
    (3-5 calories per kg or 1.5-2.5 calories per pound per day) above maintenance requirements
  • In addition to consuming a little extra protein (2 ounces of lean meat)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is satiety?

A
  • The feeling of fullness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How many grams of protein is recommended per kg of body weight per day for sedentary adults?

A
  • 0.8 (0.4 g/lb)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How many grams of protein is recommended per kg of body weight per day for strength athletes?

A
  • 1.2-1.7 (0.5-0.8 g/lb)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How many grams of protein is recommended per kg of body weight per day for endurance athletes?

A
  • 1.2-1.4 (0.5-0.6 g/lb)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for protein in grams? In percentage of caloric intake?

A
  • 0.8 g/kg/day

- 10 to 35% of total caloric intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the negative side effects associated with chronic use of high-protein diets?

A
  • Associated with higher intake of saturated fat and low fiber intake (risk factors for heart disease and some types of cancer)
  • Kidneys are required to work harder to eliminate increase urea produced
  • Requires 7x the water for metabolism than carbohydrate or fat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

List some vegetarian complete protein foods sources.

A
  • Milk and milk products
  • Rice and beans
  • Peanut butter on whole-wheat bread
  • Sunflower seeds and peanuts
  • Yogurt and granola
  • Oatmeal with milk
  • Lentils and bread
  • Tortillas with beans or bean burritos
  • Macaroni and cheese
  • Hummus (chickpeas and sesame paste) with bread
  • Bean soup with whole-grain crackers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

List some vegan complete protein foods sources.

A
  • Rice and beans
  • Peanut butter on whole-wheat bread
  • Sunflower seeds and peanuts
  • Lentils and bread
  • Tortillas with beans or bean burritos
  • Hummus (chickpeas and sesame paste) with bread
  • Bean soup with whole-grain crackers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

List some animal based complete protein foods sources.

A
  • Whole egg
  • Meat, poultry, fish
  • Milk and milk products
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are carbohydrates?

A
  • Neutral compounds containing carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen and are generally classified as sugars (simple), starches (complex), and fiber (celluloses) which make up a large portion of animal foods
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How is sugar written on a food label?

A
  • Any monosaccharide or disaccharide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are monosaccharides?

A
  • Single sugar unit, many of which are connected to make starches (the storage form of carbs in plants) and glycogen (the storage form of carbohydrates in humans)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

List three types of monosaccharides.

A
  1. Glucose (blood sugar)
  2. Fructose (fruit sugar)
  3. Galactose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are disaccharides?

A
  • Two sugar units
67
Q

List three types of disaccharides.

A
  • Sucrose (common sugar)
  • Lactose (milk sugar)
  • Maltose
68
Q

What are polysaccharides? What else are they known as?

A
  • Long chains of monosaccharide units linked together and found in foods that contain starch and fiber, includes starch found in plants, seed, and roots
  • aka. “complex carbohydrates”
69
Q

What is the glycemic index?

A
  • The rate at which ingested carbohydrate raises blood sugar and its accompanying effect on insulin release.
70
Q

List some simple sugars and how they are digested.

A
  • Honey and fruits

- Easily digested

71
Q

List some “double sugars” and how they are digested.

A
  • Table sugar
  • Lactose
  • Require some digestive action but not as complex as starches
72
Q

What type of food compound requires prolonged enzymatic action to be broken down into simple sugars (glucose) for utilization?

A
  • Starches
73
Q

Where is cellulose found? How is it digested / how does it aid with digestion?

A
  • Found in the skins of fruits and vegetables
  • Largely indigestible by humans and contributes little energy value to the diet
  • Provides bulk necessary for intestinal motility and aids in elimination
74
Q

True or False:
Foods lower on the glycemic index are good sources of complex carbohydrates and high in fiber and overall nutritional value

A

True

75
Q

How is the glycemic index of foods determined? How can it be altered?

A
  • Determined when a particular food is consumed by itself on an empty stomach
  • Mixed meals of protein, carbs and fat can alter the glycemic index of single foods
76
Q

What is considered “high” on the glycemic index?

A

High = >70

77
Q

What is considered “moderate” on the glycemic index?

A

Moderate = 56-59

78
Q

What is considered “low” on the glycemic index?

A

Low = <55

79
Q

What is the role of fiber in health? What is fiber? How many types are there?

A
  • Associated with a lower incidence of heart disease and certain types of cancer
  • Indigestible carbohydrate
  • Two types: soluble and insoluble
80
Q

What is soluble fiber?

A

(Fiber) Dissolved by water and forms a gel-like substance in the digestive tract

81
Q

What are the benefits of soluble fiber?

A

Benefits:

  • Moderating glucose levels
  • Lowering cholesterol
82
Q

What are some sources for soluble fiber?

A

Sources:

  • Oats and oatmeal
  • Legumes (peas, beans, lentils)
  • Barely
  • Many uncooked fruits and vegetables (oranges, apples, and carrots)
83
Q

What is insoluble fiber?

A
  • Does not absorb or dissolve in water
84
Q

What are the benefits of insoluble fiber?

A

Reduces the risk and occurrence of

  • Colorectal cancer
  • Hemorrhoids
  • Constipation
85
Q

What are some sources for insoluble fiber?

A
  • Bran layers of cereal grains
86
Q

List some additional benefits of fiber:

A
  • Provides bulk in diet (increasing satiety value of foods)
  • Some fibers delay the emptying of the stomach (increasing satiety)
  • Prevents constipation
  • Reduce the risk of heart and artery disease by lowering blood cholesterol
  • Regulates body’s absorption of glucose (diabetes included)
  • High fiber meals show to exert regulatory effects on blood glucose levels for up to 5 hours after eating
87
Q

Muscle glycogen and energy needs:
When performing high-intensity, short-duration activity (anaerobic), muscular demand for energy is provided for an dependent on ______ _________.

A
  • Muscle glycogen
88
Q

Muscle glycogen and energy needs:
During endurance exercise (aerobic) performed at a moderate intensity (60% VO2max) muscle glycogen provides approximately __% of energy needs.

A
  • 50%
89
Q

Muscle glycogen and energy needs:

During high-intensity aerobic exercise (>79% of VO2 max) how much energy needs does it yield?

A
  • It yields nearly all of the energy needs
90
Q

What is the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for carbohydrates in grams? In percentage of caloric intake?

A
  • Between 6 and 10 g/kg per day of carbohydrate (2.7 to 4.5 g/lb)
  • Between 45 - 65% of total caloric intake
91
Q

Why should complex carbs be the majority of calories consumed?

A
  • Nutrient dense

provides B vitamins, iron, and fiber

92
Q

1 gram of carbohydrate yields _ calories.

A
  • 4 calories
93
Q

How will a carbohydrate-rich diet benefit an endurance athlete?

A
  • Will build glycogen stores and aid in performance and recovery
94
Q

Before exercise, how and when are carbohydrates recommended?

A
  • Consume a high-carbohydrate meal 2-4 hours before exercising for more than an hour
  • Carb intake of 1-4.5 g/kg between 1-4 hours before exercise
95
Q

For morning workouts when glycogen stores are lowered by as much as __%; what is recommended for carbs if time is an issue? Why?

A
  • 80%
  • Liquid meal replacements
  • Smaller meals should be consumed closer to the exercise session
  • Liquid meal replacements have a quick gastric emptying time
96
Q

What is carbohydrate loading? What is another name it known as?

A
  • A technique used to increase muscle glycogen before an endurance event
  • “Glycogen supercompensation”
97
Q

What effect does carbohydrate loading have on glycogen stores?

A
  • Can nearly double muscle glycogen stores increasing endurance potential
98
Q

Describe the process of carbohydrate loading.

A
  • 4 days of glycogen depletion (through low-carb diet approx. 10% of calories and exhaustive exercise)
  • Followed by 3 days of rest and a high-carb diet (approx. 90% of calories)
99
Q

What are some drawbacks to carbohydrate loading?

A
  • Periods of hypoglycemia
  • Irritability
  • Increase susceptibility to injury
  • Difficulty in compliance
  • GI distress
  • Athletes may feel heavier and more sluggish due to increase in glycogen and water
    (Study in 1981 reversed the method and had better compliance with fewer side effects)
100
Q

During exercise, how and when are carbohydrates recommended for endurance athletes?

A

Endurance athletes:

  • Consume between 30-60g of carbs every hour to accomplish
  • Sports drinks tend to be a good source of water containing carbs
    • Potassium and sodium in these drinks help replace electrolytes
    • Contain between 6%-8% carbs are recommended for exercise lasting longer than 1 hour
101
Q

What is the purpose/goal of carbohydrate loading during exercise?

A
  • Maintains glucose levels, increasing time to exhausting by 20-60 minutes
  • Can help supply glucose to working muscles whose glycogen store are dwindling (for exercise lasting more than 1 hour)
102
Q

After exercise, how and when are carbohydrates recommended?

A
  • Consuming 1.5 g/kg of carbs within 30 minutes of completing exercise to maximize glycogen replenishment
  • Additional meals of 1.5 g/kg of carbs every 2 hrs are recommended to completely restore muscle glycogen

(Post-workout environment may hasten glycogen replenishment due to increased blood flow to the muscles and increase the sensitivity of the cells to the effects of insulin)

103
Q

Glycogen-loading schedule recommendations:
6 days before an event:
a) What type of exercise intensity and duration should be used?
b) What is the right amount of carbohydrate intake?

A

a) 70-75% of VO2max for 90 minutes

b) 4g/kg of body weight

104
Q

Glycogen-loading schedule recommendations:
4-5 days before an event:
a) What type of exercise intensity and duration should be used?
b) What is the right amount of carbohydrate intake?

A

a) 70-75% of VO2max for 40 minutes

b) 4g/kg of body weight

105
Q

Glycogen-loading schedule recommendations:
2-3 days before an event:
a) What type of exercise intensity and duration should be used?
b) What is the right amount of carbohydrate intake?

A

a) 70-75% of VO2max for 20 minutes

b) 10g/kg of body weight

106
Q

Glycogen-Loading Schedule Recommendations:
1 Day Before an Event:
a) What type of exercise intensity and duration should be used?
b) What is the right amount of carbohydrate intake?

A

a) Rest

b) 10g/kg of body weight

107
Q

True or False:
There is no need to reduce carbohydrate percentage to lose fat.
Explain Your Answer.

A
  • True
  • Carbs should make up the highest percentage of macronutrient calories when attempting fat loss or muscle gain due to satiating value of complex carbs
108
Q

How does a low-carb diet mimic results of dramatic weight loss (but are actually inaccurately portrayed)?

A
  • Reduce carbs = reducing calories = dwindling glycogen stores
  • Every gram of glucose taken out of glycogen brings with it 2.7g of water
  • Loss of muscle glycogen (and water) = dramatic weight loss in a short period, but not healthy, difficult to maintain
109
Q

What are the two primary variables responsible for the dramatic rise of obesity?

A

Energy imbalance:
1. Increase energy intake
- Total fat intake is higher
- Carbohydrate is lower
2. Reduction in energy expenditure
- More than 75% of the American adult
population does not partake in 30 minutes of
low-to-moderate physical activity on a daily
basis

110
Q

What are lipids?

A
  • A group of compounds that includes triglycerides (fats and oils), phospholipids, and sterols
111
Q

Structurally, triglycerides are three fatty acids attached to a glycerol backbone. List the 2 types of fatty acids.

A
  • Saturated

- Unsaturated

112
Q

Describe saturated fatty acids. Are they good or bad? Give examples of the foods they’re found in.

A

Saturated:
- Implicated as a risk factor for heart disease as they raise bad cholesterol levels (LDL: low-density lipoproteins)
Examples:
- Meat, poultry, lard, butter, cheese, cream, eggs, whole milk
- Tropical oils: coconut oil, palm, and palm kernel oil
- Many baked goods

113
Q

Describe unsaturated fatty acids. Are they good or bad? Give examples of the foods they’re found in.

A
  • Increases in good cholesterol (HDL: high-density lipoproteins) and decreased risk of heart disease
  • Two types: Have favorable effects on blood lipid profiles and may play a role in the treatment and prevention of disease (hypertension, arthritis, and cancer)
    • Monounsaturated
    • Polyunsaturated
114
Q

What are monounsaturated fatty acids?

A
  • Fatty acids have one double bond in its carbon chain
    Examples:
  • Olive oil, canola oil, peanut oil, avocados, peanuts, almonds, pistachios
115
Q

What are polyunsaturated fatty acids? Why are they important? Give examples of the foods they are found in.

A
  • Fatty acids have more than one point of unsaturation
  • Provide important essential fatty acids
    Examples:
  • Omega-3 fatty acids: salmon, herring, mackerel, sardines, flaxseeds
  • Vegetable oils: safflower, soy, corn, and sunflower oils
116
Q

What are essential fatty acids? How does one receive essential fatty acids?

A
  • Fats that cannot be manufactured by the body but are essential for proper health and functioning
  • Located in polyunsaturated fatty acids
117
Q

What is hydrogenation?

A
  • The process of adding hydrogen to unsaturated fatty acids to make them harder at room temp and increase food shelf-life
118
Q

Trans-fatty acids are a result of hydrogenation. How do they affect a person’s cholesterol? What kinds of foods are they located in?

A
  • Increases LDL
  • Decreases HDL
    Examples:
  • Stick margarine, shortening
  • Fried foods: fried chicken, donuts
  • Fast foods
  • Many baked goods and pastries
119
Q

One gram of fat yields approximately _ calories when oxidized, furnishing more than _____ the calories per gram of carbs or proteins.

A
  • 9 calories

- Twice

120
Q

What are the main function of lipids?

A
  • Provide energy
  • Carriers for the fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K
  • Vitamin D aids in the absorption of calcium, making it available to body tissues (specifically bone and teeth)
  • Converts carotene to Vitamin A
121
Q

List some other functions lipids (fats) are involved in.

A
  • Cellular membrane structure and function
  • Precursors to hormones
  • Cellular signals
  • Regulation and excretion of nutrients in the cells
  • Surrounding, protecting, and holding in place organs, such as kidneys, heart, and liver
  • Insulating the body from environmental temp changes and preserving body heat
  • Prolonging digestive process by slowing stomach’s secretions of hydrochloric acids, creating a longer sensation if fullness after a meal
  • Initiating the release of the hormone CCK (cholecystokinin) that contributes to satiety
122
Q

What is cholecystokinin (CCK)?

A
  • Hormone that contributes to satiety.
123
Q

Describe the digestive process of lipids once it reaches the intestines.

A

In intestine:
- Fat interacts with bile to become emulsified so that pancreatic enzymes can break the triglycerides down into two fatty acids and a monoglyceride
In the intestinal wall:
- Fatty acids and monoglycerides are reassembled into triglycerides that are then released from lymph in the form of a lipoprotein called “chylomicron”
- Chylomicrons from lymph move to the blood
- Triglyceride content of chylomicron is removed by the action of the enzyme lipoprotein lipase (LPL) and the released fatty acids are taken up by the tissues

124
Q

What is the Daily Recommended Fat Intake for an adult? For an athlete?

A
  • Adults: 20-35% of total caloric intake

- Athletes: 20-25% of total calories from fat

125
Q

Fat has a _____ thermic effect than other macronutrients.

A
  • Lower
126
Q

As fat percentage in the diet increases, the amount of heat given off (TEF) ________.

A
  • Decreases
127
Q

As carbohydrate percentage in the diet increases, the amount of heat given off (TEF) _________.

A
  • Increases
128
Q

Only 3% of the calories in fat (dietary) are required to store it as fat (body). It takes __% of the calories in carbohydrate to convert it to body fat.

A
  • 23%
129
Q

True or False:
Low-volume, high-calorie contribution of fat may not satisfy other peripheral satiation mechanisms (like chewing, swallowing, stomach distention) leading to hyperphagia (overeating).

A

True

130
Q

What is hyperphagia?

A
  • Overeating
131
Q

Describe a few ways fat can contribute positively to satiety.

A
  • Dietary fats stimulate the release of CCK (hormone that signals satiety)
  • Fat slows digestion of food assisting in blood sugar stabilization
  • Reducing blood sugar fluctuations can contribute to satiety
132
Q

Describe long-chain triglycerides (LCT), how many carbons they’re made of, and how they are utilized.

A
  • Make up the majority of dietary fatty acids (16-18 carbons)
  • Must go through the process of digestion and absorption before they can be utilized
133
Q

Describe medium-chain triglycerides (MCT), how many carbons they’re made of, and how they are utilized.

A
  • More rapidly absorbed
  • Do not require incorporation into chylomicrons for transport
  • Can enter the systemic circulation directly through the portal vein providing readily available source of energy
134
Q

How can medium-chain triglycerides (MCT) benefit endurance performance?

A
  • By supplying an exogenous energy source in addition to carbohydrate during exercise and increase plasma free fatty acids (FFA) sparing muscle glycogen.
135
Q

What is metabolic syndrome (syndrome X)?

A
  • Cluster of symptoms characterized by obesity, insulin resistance, hypertension, and dyslipidemia
136
Q

What is metabolic syndrome (syndrome X)?

A
  • Cluster of symptoms characterized by obesity, insulin resistance, hypertension, and dyslipidemia
137
Q

What risks are metabolic syndrome (syndrome X) associated with?

A
  • Leads to increased risk of cardiovascular disease

- Associated with obesity (especially abdominal), high-fat diet, and sedentary lifestyle

138
Q

What happens when there are high levels of free fatty acids (FFA) in the body? What does it result in?

A
  • Body will favor their use as energy
  • Decreasing glucose oxidation and glycogen synthesis
  • Inhibiting glucose transport
    Results:
  • Chronically elevated levels of blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia)
  • Elevated insulin leads to the conversion of the excess blood sugar to other products such as glycoproteins and fatty acids
139
Q

Describe what happens to the body to someone who If someone constantly over-eats:

A
  • Excess calories are stored as fat (causes fat cells to increase in size)
  • Growing fat cells become insulin resistant resulting in the prevalence of FFA causing the body to favor fat for energy instead of glucose
  • As blood sugar rises, so does insulin levels, cholesterol, triglycerides and blood pressure
  • Impaired ability of glucose to enter muscle cells keep glycogen stores lower
  • Increases appetite
  • Increases fat stores
140
Q

What are the basic recommendations for water for

sedentary men?

A
  • Consume on average 3.0 L (13 cups) per day
141
Q

What are the basic recommendations for water for

sedentary women?

A
  • Consume on average 2.2 L (9 cups) per day
142
Q

Describe two types of clients that would need to increase water intake.

A
  • Those participating in fat-loss programs should drink an additional 8 oz for every 25 pounds they carry above the ideal weight
  • Individual is exercising briskly or residing in a hot climate
143
Q

Describe the benefits of having adequate water in the body.

A
  • Endocrine gland function improves
  • Fluid retention is alleviated
  • Liver functions improve, increasing the percentage of fat used for energy
  • Natural thirst returns
  • Metabolic functions improve
  • Nutrients are distributed throughout the body
  • Body-temperature regulation improves
  • Blood volume in maintained
144
Q

Water is approx. __% of adult human body by weight.

A
  • 60%
145
Q

True or False:

The body cannot adapt to dehydration (impairs every physiologic function).

A
  • True
146
Q

Describe how to track accurate water needs for individuals.

A
  • Determine average daily weight (use as standard for the person’s euhydrated [normal] state)
  • Do not begin practice session or endurance competition until body is at or slightly above standard body weight
  • Drink enough water, juice, or sports drinks during exercise to maintain the starting weight.
147
Q

Guidelines for fluid replacement in an athlete:

Consume __ to __ oz (__ to __ cups) of fluid _ hours before exercise

A
  • 14-22 oz (1.75-2.75 cups)

- 2 hours before exercise

148
Q

Guidelines for fluid replacement in an athlete:

Drink _-__ oz of fluid for every __-__ minutes of exercise

A
  • 6-12 oz

- 15-20 minutes

149
Q

True or False:

Fluids should be cold because of more rapid gastric emptying

A

True

150
Q

Guidelines for fluid replacement in an athlete:

If exercise exceeds 60 minutes, what should a client use to replace both fluid and dwindling muscle glycogen stores?

A
  • Sports drinks (containing up to 8% carbs)
151
Q

Guidelines for fluid replacement in an athlete:

When exercising for less than 60 minutes, ____ should be form of fluid replacement.

A
  • Water
152
Q

Guidelines for fluid replacement in an athlete:

What is the goal of water consumption during exercise?

A
  • The goal is to replace sweat and urine losses
153
Q

Guidelines for fluid replacement in an athlete:
Ingest __-__ oz of fluid for every pound of body weight lost after an exercise bout, especially if rapid rehydration is necessary (twice-a-day training).

A
  • 16-24 oz
154
Q

Effects of dehydration:

Dehydration decreases what 6 aspects within the body?

A

Decreases:

  • Blood volume
  • Performance
  • Blood pressure
  • Sweat rate
  • Cardiac output
  • Blood flow to skin
155
Q

Effects of dehydration:

Dehydration increases what 6 aspects within the body?

A

Increases:

  • Core temp
  • Water retention
  • Heart rate
  • Sodium retention
  • Perceived exertion
  • Use of muscle glycogen
156
Q

List some basic nutritional guidelines for altering body composition for fat loss clients. Include:

  • Food Intake (types of foods, how to balance, when to eat, etc)
  • Exercise intake
  • Water intake
A
  • Small decreases in food and beverage calories and increase physical activity
  • Distribute protein, carbs, and fat throughout day.
  • Consume less than 10% of calories from saturated fat
  • Choose whole grains and fiber rich fruits and veggies over refined grains and simple sugars
  • Limit alcohol
  • Schedule no fewer than four and as many as six meals a day
  • Avoid empty calories and highly processed foods
  • Drink plenty of water (minimum 9 to 13 cups a day)
  • Have clients weigh and measure food at least 1 week (makes them more aware of caloric values and serving sizes)
157
Q

List some basic nutritional guidelines for altering body composition for lean body mass gain.
Include:
- Food intake (how to balance, how many meals, when to eat after exercising, and what)

A

For lean body mass gain:

  • 4-6 meals a day
  • Spread protein intake throughout the day
  • Post-workout window of opportunity, ingestion of protein and carbs within 90 mins of a workout will increase recovery and protein synthesis, maximizing gains
  • Do not neglect the importance of carbs and fat
158
Q

Basic question clients may ask:

How would you answer the question “do carbohydrates make me fat?” Give examples to support your answer.

A
  • No
  • Carbs are necessary nutrients that provide energy for the body, metabolism of fats, space muscle proteins and provides essential fiber, vitamins and minerals
  • Carbs that are moderate-to-low glycemic foods and are high in fiber can help with satiety, blood sugar regulation, and energy balance
  • To avoid hunger: choose unprocessed, whole-food carbs sources like vegetables, starchy vegetables, whole fruit, and grains to provide fiber, vitamins and minerals for healthy weight loss
  • Carbs are imperative to glycogen repletion before, during, and after exercise for strength, power, aerobic and anaerobic performance and conditioning
  • Recommended carb intake: 45-65% of total caloric intake
159
Q

Basic question clients may ask:

How would you answer the question “does eating at night make me fat?” Give examples to support your answer.

A
  • No

- Weight gain is a result of eating more calories than you burn on a regular basis

160
Q

Basic question clients may ask:
How would you answer the question “which is superior for weight loss, a low-fat and high-carbohydrate or a high-protein and low-carbohydrate diet?” Give examples to support your answer.

A
  • Neither
  • Weight loss is achieved when calories consumed are less than calories expended
  • People initially lose weight faster on a low-carb / high-protein diet when compared to opposite diet, but after 12 months, total weight loss is similar
161
Q

Basic question clients may ask:
How would you answer the question “can I eat whatever I want as long as I exercise?” Give examples to support your answer.

A

It’s all about caloric intake versus how much your body burns/day.
- Approximately 3,500 calories = 1 pound of body fat
- To lose 1 - 2 pounds per week: The client must maintain an average caloric deficit of 500-1,000 calories/day
The simplicity of weight gain and calories:
- 100 extra calories/day over daily maintenance needs could add up to 1 pound of weight gained over 35 days
- 10 extra calories/day over daily maintenance needs could add up to 1 pound of weight gained over 350 days

162
Q

What are the risk factors of an overly restricted very low-calorie diet?

A
  • Increase risk of malnutrition
  • Poor energy and inability to complete the essential fitness program
  • A behavioral “pendulum” swing - an inability to reintroduce “forbidden foods” in a moderate manner
  • Many patients on VLCD for 4-16 weeks report minor side effects such as
    • Fatigue, constipation, nausea, diarrhea
  • Most common serious side effect:
    • gallstone formation especially those who are obese, especially women
163
Q

Basic question clients may ask:
How would you answer the question “is consuming a high-protein diet superior for muscle gain?” Give examples to support your answer.

A
  • Not necessarily
  • Body still needs a balance of carbs, protein and fat to grow, maintain, and repair itself including the growth of lean body mass
  • Resistance training, and to a certain extent all exercise, increases the body’s need for repair material
  • An active individual needs more protein than a sedentary individual
  • The right amount of protein and the obligatory resistance training will support hypertrophy and an excess of protein above total calorie needs will be stored as body fat