Chapter 17 Flashcards
Which of the following variations on translation would be most disadvantageous for a cell?
A) translating polypeptides directly from DNA
B) using fewer kinds of tRNA
C) having only one stop codon
D) lengthening the half-life of mRNA
E) having a second codon (besides AUG) as a start codon
translating polypeptides directly from DNA
Garrod hypothesized that “inborn errors of metabolism” such as alkaptonuria occur because
A) metabolic enzymes require vitamin cofactors, and affected individuals have significant nutritional deficiencies.
B) enzymes are made of DNA, and affected individuals lack DNA polymerase.
C) many metabolic enzymes use DNA as a cofactor, and affected individuals have mutations that prevent their enzymes from interacting efficiently with DNA.
D) certain metabolic reactions are carried out by ribozymes, and affected individuals lack key splicing factors.
E) genes dictate the production of specific enzymes, and affected individuals have genetic defects that cause them to lack certain enzymes.
metabolic enzymes require vitamin cofactors, and affected individuals have significant nutritional deficiencies.
Garrod’s information about the enzyme alteration resulting in alkaptonuria led to further elucidation of the same pathway in humans. Phenylketonuria (PKU) occurs when another enzyme in the pathway is altered or missing, resulting in a failure of phenylalanine (phe) to be metabolized to another amino acid: tyrosine. Tyrosine is an earlier substrate in the pathway altered in alkaptonuria. How might PKU affect the presence or absence of alkaptonuria?
A) It would have no effect, because PKU occurs several steps away in the pathway.
B) It would have no effect, because tyrosine is also available from the diet.
C) Anyone with PKU must also have alkaptonuria.
D) Anyone with PKU is born with a predisposition to later alkaptonuria.
E) Anyone with PKU has mild symptoms of alkaptonuria.
It would have no effect, because tyrosine is also available from the diet.
The nitrogenous base adenine is found in all members of which group?
A) proteins, triglycerides, and testosterone
B) proteins, ATP, and DNA
C) ATP, RNA, and DNA
D) α glucose, ATP, and DNA
E) proteins, carbohydrates, and ATP
ATP, RNA, and DNA
A particular triplet of bases in the template strand of DNA is 5’ AGT 3’. The corresponding codon for the mRNA transcribed is
A) 3’ UCA 5’.
B) 3’ UGA 5’.
C) 5’ TCA 3’.
D) 3’ ACU 5’.
E) either UCA or TCA, depending on wobble in the first base.
3’ UCA 5’.
The genetic code is essentially the same for all organisms. From this, one can logically assume which of the following?
A) A gene from an organism can theoretically be expressed by any other organism.
B) All organisms have experienced convergent evolution.
C) DNA was the first genetic material.
D) The same codons in different organisms translate into the different amino acids.
E) Different organisms have different numbers of different types of amino acids.
A gene from an organism can theoretically be expressed by any other organism.
The “universal” genetic code is now known to have exceptions. Evidence for this can be found if which of the following is true?
A) If UGA, usually a stop codon, is found to code for an amino acid such as tryptophan (usually coded for by UGG only).
B) If one stop codon, such as UGA, is found to have a different effect on translation than another stop codon, such as UAA.
C) If prokaryotic organisms are able to translate a eukaryotic mRNA and produce the same polypeptide.
D) If several codons are found to translate to the same amino acid, such as serine.
E) If a single mRNA molecule is found to translate to more than one polypeptide when there are two or more AUG sites.
If UGA, usually a stop codon, is found to code for an amino acid such as tryptophan (usually coded for by UGG only).
Which of the following nucleotide triplets best represents a codon?
A) a triplet separated spatially from other triplets
B) a triplet that has no corresponding amino acid
C) a triplet at the opposite end of tRNA from the attachment site of the amino acid
D) a triplet in the same reading frame as an upstream AUG
E) a sequence in tRNA at the 3’ end
a triplet in the same reading frame as an upstream AUG
Which of the following provides some evidence that RNA probably evolved before DNA?
A) RNA polymerase uses DNA as a template.
B) RNA polymerase makes a single-stranded molecule.
C) RNA polymerase does not require localized unwinding of the DNA.
D) DNA polymerase uses primer, usually made of RNA.
E) DNA polymerase has proofreading function.
DNA polymerase uses primer, usually made of RNA.
Which of the following statements best describes the termination of transcription in prokaryotes?
A) RNA polymerase transcribes through the polyadenylation signal, causing proteins to associate with the transcript and cut it free from the polymerase.
B) RNA polymerase transcribes through the terminator sequence, causing the polymerase to separate from the DNA and release the transcript.
C) RNA polymerase transcribes through an intron, and the snRNPs cause the polymerase to let go of the transcript.
D) Once transcription has initiated, RNA polymerase transcribes until it reaches the end of the chromosome.
E) RNA polymerase transcribes through a stop codon, causing the polymerase to stop advancing through the gene and release the mRNA.
RNA polymerase transcribes through the terminator sequence, causing the polymerase to separate from the DNA and release the transcript.
Which of the following does not occur in prokaryotic gene expression, but does in eukaryotic gene expression?
A) mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA are transcribed.
B) RNA polymerase binds to the promoter.
C) A poly-A tail is added to the 3’ end of an mRNA and a cap is added to the 5’ end.
D) Transcription can begin as soon as translation has begun even a little.
E) RNA polymerase requires a primer to elongate the molecule.
A poly-A tail is added to the 3’ end of an mRNA and a cap is added to the 5’ end.
RNA polymerase in a prokaryote is composed of several subunits. Most of these subunits are the same for the transcription of any gene, but one, known as sigma, varies considerably. Which of the following is the most probable advantage for the organism of such sigma switching?
A) It might allow the transcription process to vary from one cell to another.
B) It might allow the polymerase to recognize different promoters under certain environmental conditions.
C) It could allow the polymerase to react differently to each stop codon.
D) It could allow ribosomal subunits to assemble at faster rates.
E) It could alter the rate of translation and of exon splicing.
It might allow the polymerase to recognize different promoters under certain environmental conditions.
Which of the following is a function of a poly-A signal sequence?
A) It adds the poly-A tail to the 3’ end of the mRNA.
B) It codes for a sequence in eukaryotic transcripts that signals enzymatic cleavage ~1035 nucleotides away.
C) It allows the 3’ end of the mRNA to attach to the ribosome.
D) It is a sequence that codes for the hydrolysis of the RNA polymerase.
E) It adds a 7-methylguanosine cap to the 3’ end of the mRNA.
It codes for a sequence in eukaryotic transcripts that signals enzymatic cleavage ~1035 nucleotides away.
In eukaryotes there are several different types of RNA polymerase. Which type is involved in transcription of mRNA for a globin protein? A) ligase B) RNA polymerase I C) RNA polymerase II D) RNA polymerase III E) primase
RNA polymerase II
Transcription in eukaryotes requires which of the following in addition to RNA polymerase? A) the protein product of the promoter B) start and stop codons C) ribosomes and tRNA D) several transcription factors (TFs) E) aminoacyl synthetase
several transcription factors (TFs)
A part of the promoter, called the TATA box, is said to be highly conserved in evolution. Which of the following might this illustrate?
A) The sequence evolves very rapidly.
B) The sequence does not mutate.
C) Any mutation in the sequence is selected against.
D) The sequence is found in many but not all promoters.
E) The sequence is transcribed at the start of every gene.
Any mutation in the sequence is selected against.
The TATA sequence is found only several nucleotides away from the start site of transcription. This most probably relates to which of the following?
A) the number of hydrogen bonds between A and T in DNA
B) the triplet nature of the codon
C) the ability of this sequence to bind to the start site
D) the supercoiling of the DNA near the start site
E) the 3-D shape of a DNA molecule
the number of hydrogen bonds between A and T in DNA
What is a ribozyme?
A) an enzyme that uses RNA as a substrate
B) an RNA with enzymatic activity
C) an enzyme that catalyzes the association between the large and small ribosomal subunits
D) an enzyme that synthesizes RNA as part of the transcription process
E) an enzyme that synthesizes RNA primers during DNA replication
an RNA with enzymatic activity
A transcription unit that is 8,000 nucleotides long may use 1,200 nucleotides to make a protein consisting of approximately 400 amino acids. This is best explained by the fact that
A) many noncoding stretches of nucleotides are present in mRNA.
B) there is redundancy and ambiguity in the genetic code.
C) many nucleotides are needed to code for each amino acid.
D) nucleotides break off and are lost during the transcription process.
E) there are termination exons near the beginning of mRNA.
many noncoding stretches of nucleotides are present in mRNA.
During splicing, which molecular component of the spliceosome catalyzes the excision reaction? A) protein B) DNA C) RNA D) lipid E) sugar
RNA
Alternative RNA splicing
A) is a mechanism for increasing the rate of transcription.
B) can allow the production of proteins of different sizes from a single mRNA.
C) can allow the production of similar proteins from different RNAs.
D) increases the rate of transcription.
E) is due to the presence or absence of particular snRNPs.
can allow the production of proteins of different sizes from a single mRNA.
In the structural organization of many eukaryotic genes, individual exons may be related to which of the following?
A) the sequence of the intron that immediately precedes each exon
B) the number of polypeptides making up the functional protein
C) the various domains of the polypeptide product
D) the number of restriction enzyme cutting sites
E) the number of start sites for transcription
the various domains of the polypeptide product
In an experimental situation, a student researcher inserts an mRNA molecule into a eukaryotic cell after he has removed its 5’ cap and poly-A tail. Which of the following would you expect him to find?
A) The mRNA could not exit the nucleus to be translated.
B) The cell recognizes the absence of the tail and polyadenylates the mRNA.
C) The molecule is digested by restriction enzymes in the nucleus.
D) The molecule is digested by exonucleases since it is no longer protected at the 5’ end.
E) The molecule attaches to a ribosome and is translated, but more slowly.
The molecule is digested by exonucleases since it is no longer protected at the 5’ end.
Use the following model of a eukaryotic transcript to answer the next few questions.
5’ UTR E₁ I₁ E₂ I₂ E₃ I₃ E₄ UTR 3’
24) Which components of the previous molecule will also be found in mRNA in the cytosol? A) 5' UTR I₁ I₂ I₃ UTR 3' B) 5' E₁ E₂ E₃ E₄ 3' C) 5' UTR E₁ E₂ E₃ E₄ UTR 3' D) 5' I₁ I₂ I₃ 3' E) 5' E₁ I₁ E₂ I₂ E₃ I₃ E₄ 3'
5’ UTR E₁ E₂ E₃ E₄ UTR 3’
Use the following model of a eukaryotic transcript to answer the next few questions.
5’ UTR E₁ I₁ E₂ I₂ E₃ I₃ E₄ UTR 3’
25) When the spliceosome binds to elements of this structure, where can it attach? A) to the exons B) to the 5' UTR C) to the 3' UTR D) to an adjacent intron and exon E) to the end of an intron
to the end of an intron
Use the following model of a eukaryotic transcript to answer the next few questions.
5’ UTR E₁ I₁ E₂ I₂ E₃ I₃ E₄ UTR 3’
26) Which of the following is a useful feature of introns for this model?
A) They are translated into small polypeptides.
B) They become parts of snRNPs.
C) Each intron has enzymatic properties.
D) Introns allow exon shuffling.
E) Introns protect exon structure.
Introns allow exon shuffling.
Use the following model of a eukaryotic transcript to answer the next few questions.
5’ UTR E₁ I₁ E₂ I₂ E₃ I₃ E₄ UTR 3’
27) Suppose that exposure to a chemical mutagen results in a change in the sequence that alters the 5' end of intron 1 (I₁). What might occur? A) loss of the gene product B) loss of E₁ C) premature stop to the mRNA D) inclusion of I₁ in the mRNA E) exclusion of E₂
inclusion of I₁ in the mRNA
Use the following model of a eukaryotic transcript to answer the next few questions.
5’ UTR E₁ I₁ E₂ I₂ E₃ I₃ E₄ UTR 3’
28) Suppose that an induced mutation removes most of the 5’ end of the 5’ UTR. What might result?
A) Removal of the 5’ UTR has no effect because the exons are still maintained.
B) Removal of the 5’ UTR also removes the 5’ cap and the mRNA will quickly degrade.
C) The 3’ UTR will duplicate and one copy will replace the 5’ end.
D) The first exon will not be read because I₁ will now serve as the UTR.
E) Removal of the 5’ UTR will result in the strand not binding to tRNAs.
Removal of the 5’ UTR also removes the 5’ cap and the mRNA will quickly degrade.
A particular triplet of bases in the coding sequence of DNA is AAA. The anticodon on the tRNA that binds the mRNA codon is
A) TTT.
B) UUA.
C) UUU.
D) AAA.
E) either UAA or TAA, depending on first base wobble.
UUU.
Accuracy in the translation of mRNA into the primary structure of a polypeptide depends on specificity in the
A) binding of ribosomes to mRNA.
B) shape of the A and P sites of ribosomes.
C) bonding of the anticodon to the codon.
D) attachment of amino acids to tRNAs.
E) bonding of the anticodon to the codon and the attachment of amino acids to tRNAs.
bonding of the anticodon to the codon and the attachment of amino acids to tRNAs.
What is the function of GTP in translation?
A) GTP energizes the formation of the initiation complex, using initiation factors.
B) GTP hydrolyzes to provide phosphate groups for tRNA binding.
C) GTP hydrolyzes to provide energy for making peptide bonds.
D) GTP supplies phosphates and energy to make ATP from ADP.
E) GTP separates the small and large subunits of the ribosome at the stop codon.
GTP energizes the formation of the initiation complex, using initiation factors.
A mutant bacterial cell has a defective aminoacyl synthetase that attaches a lysine to tRNAs with the anticodon AAA instead of the normal phenylalanine. The consequence of this for the cell will be that
A) none of the proteins in the cell will contain phenylalanine.
B) proteins in the cell will include lysine instead of phenylalanine at amino acid positions specified by the codon UUU.
C) the cell will compensate for the defect by attaching phenylalanine to tRNAs with lysine-specifying anticodons.
D) the ribosome will skip a codon every time a UUU is encountered.
E) none of the options will occur; the cell will recognize the error and destroy the tRNA.
proteins in the cell will include lysine instead of phenylalanine at amino acid positions specified by the codon UUU.
There are 61 mRNA codons that specify an amino acid, but only 45 tRNAs. This is best explained by the fact that
A) some tRNAs have anticodons that recognize four or more different codons.
B) the rules for base pairing between the third base of a codon and tRNA are flexible.
C) many codons are never used, so the tRNAs that recognize them are dispensable.
D) the DNA codes for all 61 tRNAs but some are then destroyed.
E) competitive exclusion forces some tRNAs to be destroyed by nucleases.
the rules for base pairing between the third base of a codon and tRNA are flexible.