Chapter 16: The Kidney Flashcards

1
Q

What specialized cell types are seen in the glomerulus?

A

Podocytes - epithelial cells covering capillaries. Cover the outer surface of the basement membrane.

Mesangial cells: Modified smooth muscle cells that support the glomerulus

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2
Q

What are the three layers of the glomerular basement membrane?

A

Lamina densa: Central, electron rich zone
Lamina rara interna: Thin inner electron-lucent zone
Lamina rara externa: Thin outer layer

Composed of type IV collagen. GAGs, laminin, entactin, fibronectin. Charge selection-filtration (neutral, cationic), size discrim.

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3
Q

Where are podocytes located?
Where do their foot projections go?
What is between foot processes?
What is the major function of podocytes?

A

Rest on outer aspect of the GBM.
Send cytoplasmic projections, foot processes, into lamina rara externa of GBM.

Slit diaphragm between foot processes, modified adherens junction.

Barrier to protein loss in the urine - proteinuria with mutations in nephrin, podocin, alpha-actinin-4, transient receptor potential cation channel 6 (TRPC6).

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4
Q

What are features and functions of the mesangium?

A

Cellular and matrix network that supports glomerulus. Modified smooth muscle cells in center of glomerular tuft between capillary loops.

  1. Mechanical support of glomerulus
  2. Endocytosis and processing of plasma proteins (immune complexes)
  3. Maintenance of basement membrane/matrix elements
  4. Modulation of glomerular filtration by contraction of mesangial cells
  5. Generation of molecular mediators (prostaglandins, cytokines).
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5
Q

What are the features of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

A

Located at hilus of glomerulus.

Macula densa: Region of TALH, packed with nuclei
Extraglomerular mesangial cells: Between macula densa and hilar arterioles
Terminal afferent arteriole and proximal efferent arteriole.

Afferent arteriole contains granular cells that synthesize renin and angiotensin.

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6
Q

This disease results from insufficienc amniotic fluid.

What are complications?

A

Potter sequence (oligohydramnios sequence). Reduced intrauterine urine production. Fetus compressed by uterus - low set ears, small receding chin, beak like nose, bent lower extremities.

Pulmonary hypoplasia - inadequate maturational stimuli, compression of chest wall.

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7
Q

What is renal agenesis?

A

Complete abscence of renal tissue. Usually stillborn with Potter sequence.

Unilateral agenesis not serious if no other abnormalities. Increased risk for progressive glomerular sclerosis (FSGS).

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8
Q

What defines/characterizes renal hypoplasia?

A

Congenital reduction in renal mass. Histologically normal with six or fewer renal lobes (medullary pyramids with overlying cortex).

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9
Q

What term defines enlargement of the too few glomeruli seen in renal hypoplasia?

A

Oligomeganephronia.

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10
Q

What is the term for a normal kidney in an abnormal location?

A

Renal ectopia. Usually in pelvis.
Simple: Ureters drain into appropriate side of bladder
Crossed: Ectopic kidney on same side as normal mate, drains into contralateral side of bladder.

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11
Q

What is a horseshoe kidney?

A

Single large midline organ, kidneys fused usually at lower poles. Increased risk for obstruction and infection (pyelonephritis) because ureters must cross over junction where organ is fused.

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12
Q

What characterizes renal dysplasia?

A

Disorder of development. Undifferentiated tubular structures lined by cuboidal or columnar epithelium surrounded by primitive mesenchyme. Cartilage? Cysts.

Genetics, obstruction of urine flow. Ureteral agenesis, ureteral atresia, uretopelvic junction obstruction, uretovesical stenosis/posterior urethral valves.

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13
Q

Subtypes of renal dysplasia include..

A

Aplastic renal dysplasia: Small misshapen dysplastic kidneys

Multicystic renal dysplasia: Unilateral, multiple cysts.

Diffuse cystic renal dysplasia: More uniformly sized cysts, preservation of kidney shape

Obstructive renal dysplasia: Intrauterine obstruction to urine flow.

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14
Q

What occurs in autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease?

A

Kidneys are enlarged and have numerous cysts in renal parenchyma. End stage renal failure in 50%. Mutations in PKD1/2. Polycystin 1 and 2, sense extracellular environment including urine flow, regulate intracellular calcium and tubule epithelial proliferation and apoptosis.

Defects in these proteins disrupt calcium signaling from cilia that normally inhibits renal tubule growth.

**Usually fourth decade of life.

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15
Q

Who is generally affected by autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease?

A

Infants.
Cystic transformation of collecting ducts.
Die due to pulmonary hypoplasia from Potter sequence oligohydramnios.

Mutation in PKHD1 gene - fibrocystin. Found in primary cilia of collecting ducts of kidney, biliary ducts of liver, exocrine ducts of pancreas. Diff, prolif, adhesion.

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16
Q

What is glomerulocystic disease?

A

Bowman capsule dilated in many glomeruli.
Isolated or secondary to ADPKD, nephronophthisis, medullary cystic disease complex, diffuse cystic dysplasia.

Autosomal dominant form: Mutations in hepatocyte nuclear factor -1beta.

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17
Q

What are two diseases causing tubulointerstitial injury and medullary cysts?

Defining features?

A

Nephronophthisis and medullary cystic disease.

Small kidneys, cysts at corticomedullary junction. Sclerosis and fibrosis late. Deteriorating tubular function.

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18
Q

What causes nephronophthisis?

A

Autosomal recessive, childhood, mutations in NPHP genes (nephrocystins) located in primary cilia.

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19
Q

What causes medullary cystic disease?

A

Autosomal dominant, adolescence, renal failure in adulthood with defects in MCKD1 or 2 genes.

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20
Q

What disease is distinguished by cysts in the papillae?

A

Medullary sponge kidney. Arise from collecting ducts, lined by cuboidal or columnar epithelium.

Symptomatic between 30-60. Flank pain, dysuria, hematuria, gravel in urine.

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21
Q

Describe simple cysts.

A

Acquired cysts, asymptomatic, incidental finding unless very large. Half of people over 50.

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22
Q

What are complications of long-term dialysis?

A

Acquired cystic disease - cortical and medullary cysts. Renal cell carcinoma develops in 5% of patients with acquired cystic disease.

23
Q

What is nephrotic syndrome?

A
Severe proteinuria (>3.5g/day). 
Hypoalbuminemia, edema, hyperlipidemia, lipiduria.

Can result from primary glomerular disease or secondary to a systemic disease.

24
Q

The most common causes of nephrotic syndrome caused by primary glomerular diseases in children in order are:

A

Minimal-change glomerulopathy (75%), focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (10%), membranous glomerulopathy, type I membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, other glomerular diseases (5% each).

25
Q

The most common causes of nephrotic syndrome caused by primary glomerular diseases in adults in order are:

A

Membranous glomerulopathy (30%), focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (30%), other glomerular diseases (20%), minimal-change glomerulopathy (15%), type I membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (5%).

26
Q

What is nephritic syndrome?

A

AKA glomerulonephritis.
Inflammatory disease. Hematuria, variable proteinuria, decreased glomerular filtration rate.

Elevated BUN, creatinine, oliguria, salt + water retention, hypertension, edema.

27
Q

What tends to cause nephritic syndrome?

A

Immunologic mecahnisms.
In situ immune complex formation
Deposition of circulating immune complexes
Antineutrophil cytoplasmic autoantibodies (ANCA).

28
Q

Immunofluorescence detects anti-GBM antibodies in a _____ pattern, and other immune complexes in a ____ pattern.

ANCA?

A

Anti-GBM: Linear staining. Alpha-4 chain of type IV collagen
Other immune complexes: Granular staining

ANCA: No immunofluorescent staining for autoantibodies.

29
Q

Glomerular crescent formation indicates…

A

More rapidly progressive inflammation - extensive rupture of capillary wall. Epithelial proliferation in bowman’s space.

30
Q

Minimal change glomerulopathy causes what disease and is characterized by what changes?

A

Nephrotic syndrome.
Effacement of podocyte foot processes. Proteinuria. Treat with corticosteroids.

No changes by light microscopy. Electron microscopy shows diffuse obliteration of podocyte foot processes. Hyperlipidemia secondary to hypoalbuminemia, glassy (hyaline) droplets in tubular epithelial ceytoplasm.

Albumin > globulins in urine.

31
Q

What are the characteristics of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis?

A

Glomerular consolidation in some glomeruli
Initially involves only part of an affected glomerular tuft.

Increases in collagenous matrix.

32
Q

What are some features of HIV-1-Associated Nephropathy?

A

Severe rapidly progressive collapsing form of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis. More common in black people.

33
Q

What is the pathogenesis of membranous glomerulopathy?

A

Immune complex disease. Causes nephrotic syndrome. Complexes accumulate in subepithelial zone of glomerular capillaries. (between podocyte and GBM).

Primary disease: Autoantibody against podocyte transmembrane receptor PLA2R. Anti-neural endopeptidase.

Secondary: Autoimmune disease, infectious, therapeutic agents, neoplasms.

34
Q

What are pathologic findings in membranous glomerulopathy?

A

Glomeruli normocellular.
Capillary walls normal or thickened
Silver stain reveal mutliple projections/spikes of argyrophilic material on epithelial side of basement membrane.
Eventual glomerular sclerosis, capillary lumen narrow

35
Q

Features of diabetic glomerulosclerosis?

A
  1. Glomerular enlargement, GBM thickening, mesangial matrix expansion, decline in podocyte number.
  2. Sclerotic Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules. Capsular drops or hyaline caps.
36
Q

What types of amyloid lead to nephrotic syndrome?

A

AA (Serum amyloid A protein, increases during inflammation. Rheumatoid arthritis, TB, mediterranean fever.

AL: Derived from gamma or kappa immunoglobulin light chains. B or plasma cells. Multiple myeloma.

Apple-green color when stianed with congo red under polarized light. Mesangium -> capillary walls. Effaced podocyte foot processes.

37
Q

What is Alport syndrome?

A

Hereditary nephritis. Abnormal glomerular basement membrane type IV collagen. Associated with a hearing deficit. Most common is X-linked. At risk for developing autoantibodies to GBM in a transplant.

38
Q

What is thin glomerular basement membrane nephropathy?

A

Benign cause of hematuria. Common hereditary GBM disorder. Asymptomatic. Reduced thickness of GBM - autosomal dominant.

Heterozygous COL4A3 and COL4A4 lead to thin GBM disease, homozygous to Alport syndrome.

39
Q

What causes acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis?

A

Acute group A (beta-hemolytic) streptococcal or staphylococcal infection - immune complex deposition. Antibody + bacterial antigens in glomeruli.

Granular immunofluorescence pattern of immune complexes. Ultrastructural appearance (dense deposits).

40
Q

What is the distinctive ultrastructural change seen in acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis?

A

Subepithelial dense deposits shaped like humps.

41
Q

What is Type I Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis?

A

Chronic immune complex disease (MPGN). Hypercellularity and capillary wall thickening. Deposition of mesangial and subendothelial immune complexes causes proliferation and extension into subendothelial zone.

Pathogens involved cause a persistent, indolent infection w/ antigenemia.

42
Q

What is type II membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis?

A

Electron-dense deposits in glomerular basement membrane. Linear deposition of C3 in capillary walls.

Complement activation causes injury. NOT immune complexes. Deficiencyt of alternative pathway complement regulatory factors (factor H) associated.

Most have IgG autoantibody, C3 nephritic factor - stabilizes C3 convertase.

43
Q

What is Lupus glomerulonephritis?

A

Diverse patterns of immune complex deposition.

Class I: Minimal mesangial LG: Immune complexes confined to mesangium, no changes by light micro.

Class II: Mesangial proliferative LG: Immune complexes confined to mesangium, hypercellularity/matrix expansion.

Class III: Focal LG: Immune complexes accumulate in subendothelial zone. Prolif of mesangial and endothelial cells, influx neutrophils and monocytes.

Class IV: Diffuse LG: Involves more than 50% of glomeruli.

Class V: Membranous LG: Immune complexes mostly in eubepithelial zone.

Class VI: Advanced sclerosing LG: Advanced chronic disease.

44
Q

What is Berger Disease?

A

IgA Nephropathy. IgA immune complexes.
Exacerbated by respiratory or gastrointestinal infections.

Young men, 15-30.

45
Q

What is anti-GBM glomerulonephritis associated with?

A

Pulmonary hemorrhage. Goodpasture syndrome.
Autoimmune response against type IV collagen - alpha 3 chain, also in pulmonary alveolar capillary BM.

Diffuse linear GBM immunostaining for IgG. Commonly have glomerular crescents (crescentic glomerulonephritis). Focal fibrinoid necrosis.

46
Q

Describe features of ANCA glomerulonephritis.

A

Aggressive disease mediated by neutrophils. Glomerular necrosis and crescents. Activation of neutrophils to adhere to endothelial cells.

Cytoplasmic antigens to myeloperoxidase or proteinase 3.

47
Q

What are features of hypertensive nephrosclerosis?

A

Sustained systolic pressure over 140mm Hg or 90mm Hg. Kidneys atrophic, cortical surfaces finely granular, cortex thinned. Ischemic changes.

Thickened glomerular capillaries. Deposition of collagen and matrix paterial in Bowman space. Dense eosinophilic globular scar.

48
Q

What causes renovascular hypertension?

A

Narrowing of a renal artery. AKA Goldblatt kidney.

49
Q

What are seen in an atheroembolus?

A

Cholesterol clefts.

50
Q

What is typical hemolytic-uremic syndrome?

A

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia and acute renal failure after a diarrheal disease. E. coli. Vascular disease confined to kidneys.

51
Q

What is thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura?

A

Systermic microvascular thrombosis - thrombocytopenia, purpura, fever, changes in mental status.

52
Q

What is preeclampsia?

A

Hypertension, proteinuria, edema in third trimester of pregnancy. If complicated by convulsions, eclampsia used.

Elevated levels of antiangiogenic factors released by the placenta.

53
Q

Renal infarcts usually result from…

A

Embolization to interlobar or arcuate arteries.
1. Mural thrombi from atrial fibrillation
2. Infected valves (bac endocarditis)
Complicated atherosclerotic plaques in the aorta.

Coagulative necrosis.

54
Q

What is cortical necrosis?

A

Severe secondary ischemia that spares the medulla. Classic presentation is premature placental separation late in pregnancy. Vasa recta supplying arterial blood to medulla arise from juxtamedullary efferent arterioles.

Acute renal failure.