Chapter 16

Question 1

Which of the following can be considered a purpose of the interview the RT performs?
1. To collect diagnostic information
2. To establish a rapport with the patient
3. To identify plans for payment
4. To identify the effect of therapy
a. 1 and 4 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 2, and 4 only
d. 2, 3, and 4 only

Question 2

The patient interview conducted by the clinician is done in which space?
a. Social space
b. Personal space
c. Intimate space
d. Critical space

Answer 2

ANS: B
Move to the personal space (2 to 4 feet from the patient) to begin the interview.

Question 3

Which of the following is an example of a leading question?
a. Is your breathing better now?
b. How is your breathing now?
c. When did your breathing change?
d. Where is your pain located?

Answer 3

ANS: A
Asking the patient, “Is your breathing better now?” leads the patient toward a desired response and may elicit false information.

Question 4

Which of the following are common causes of an increase in the drive to breathe, which would increase the sensation of dyspnea?
1. Hypoxemia
2. Acidosis
3. High fever
4. Hypocapnia
a. 1 and 4 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 2, and 3 only
d. 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer 4

ANS: D
Increases in the drive to breathe occur with hypoxemia, acidosis, fever, exercise, or anxiety.

Question 5

What term is used to describe difficult breathing in the reclining position?
a. Orthopnea
b. Platypnea
c. Eupnea
d. Apnea

Answer 5

ANS: A
Dyspnea may be present only when the patient assumes the reclining position, in which case it is referred to as orthopnea.

Question 6

What term is used to describe shortness of breath in the upright position?
a. Orthopnea
b. Platypnea
c. Eupnea
d. Apnea

Answer 6

ANS: B
Shortness of breath in the upright position is known as platypnea.

Question 7

Which of the following factors has minimal or no impact on the effectiveness of the patient’s cough?
a. Lung recoil
b. Airways resistance
c. Lung volume
d. Pulmonary vascular resistance

Answer 7

ANS: D
The effectiveness of a cough depends on the individual’s ability to take a deep breath, his or her lung recoil, the strength of his or her expiratory muscles,
and the level of airway resistance.

Question 8

Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause a dry, nonproductive cough?
a. Chronic bronchitis
b. Cystic fibrosis
c. Pulmonary fibrosis
d. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Answer 8

ANS: C
For example, a dry, nonproductive cough is typical for restrictive lung diseases such as congestive heart failure or pulmonary fibrosis.

Question 9

What is the technical term for secretions from the tracheobronchial tree that have not been contaminated by the mouth?
a. Sputum
b. Phlegm
c. Mucus
d. Pus

Answer 9

ANS: B
Technically, mucus from the tracheobronchial tree that has not been contaminated by oral secretions is called phlegm.

Question 10

What term is used to describe sputum that has pus in it?
a. Fetid
b. Mucoid
c. Purulent
d. Tenacious

Answer 10

ANS: C
Sputum that contains pus cells is said to be purulent, suggesting a bacterial infection.

Question 11

Which of the following terms is used to describe coughing up blood-streaked sputum?
a. Hematemesis
b. Hemoptysis
c. Hemolysis
d. Hemostasis

Answer 11

ANS: B
Coughing up blood or blood-streaked sputum from the lungs is referred to as hemoptysis.

Question 12

Which of the following characteristics are typical for pleuritic chest pain?
1. Located laterally.
2. Sharp and stabbing in nature.
3. Increases with breathing.
4. Radiates to the arm.
a. 3 and 4 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 1, 2, and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 4 only

Answer 12

ANS: C
Pleuritic chest pain usually is located laterally or posteriorly. It worsens when the patient takes a deep breath and is described as a sharp, stabbing type of
pain.

Question 13

What term is used to describe the chest pain associated with blockage of the coronary arteries?
a. Angina
b. Myocarditis
c. Myalgia
d. Infarction

Answer 13

ANS: A
A common cause of nonpleuritic chest pain is angina, which classically is a pressure sensation with exertion or stress and results from coronary artery

Question 14

What change in the patient’s respiratory breathing pattern is commonly seen with significant fever?
a. Slower rate
b. More rapid rate
c. More prolonged expiratory time
d. More prolonged inspiratory time

Answer 14

ANS: B
The increased need for oxygen intake and carbon dioxide removal may cause tachypnea.

Question 15

What is the most common cause of pedal edema?
a. Liver failure
b. Kidney failure
c. Heart failure
d. Electrolyte imbalances

Answer 15

ANS: C
Swelling of the lower extremities is known as pedal edema. It most often occurs with heart failure, which causes an increase in the hydrostatic pressure of
the blood vessels in the lower extremities.

Question 16

Which of the following are critical elements of a patient’s past medical history?
1. Childhood diseases
2. Prior major illnesses or surgery
3. Marital status
4. Drugs and immunizations
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 1, 2, and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 4 only

Question 17

Which of the following are elements of a patient’s social and environmental history?
1. Occupation and employment history
2. Drugs and medications
3. Recent travel
4. Living arrangements
a. 1, 3, and 4 only
b. 1 and 4 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 2, 3, and 4 only

Question 18

Which of the following are associated with diaphoresis?
1. Fever
2. Severe stress
3. Acute anxiety
4. Hemoptysis
a. 2 and 3 only
b. 1 and 4 only
c. 1, 2, and 3 only
d. 2, 3, and 4 only

Question 19

Which of the following is most commonly associated with tripodding?
a. Severe pulmonary hyperinflation
b. Congestive heart disease
c. Pneumonia
d. Pulmonary fibrosis

Question 20

Your patient has an abnormal sensorium. Which of the following is most likely true?
a. The patient knows his or her name.
b. The patient is confused about where he or she is.
c. The patient is aware of the correct day.
d. The patient knows the name of the hospital he or she has been taken to.

Question 21

What structure in the body is responsible for regulating the body temperature?
a. Pituitary gland
b. Thyroid gland
c. Hypothalamus
d. Thymus gland

Question 22

What is the most common cause of hypothermia?
a. Exposure to cold environment
b. Head injury
c. Stroke
d. Thyroid gland dysfunction

Question 23

Which of the following sites is closest to core body temperature?
a. Axillary
b. Oral
c. Rectal
d. Forehead

Question 24

Which of the following is least likely to cause tachycardia?
a. Fever
b. Severe pain
c. Hypotension
d. Hypothermia

Question 25

Which of the following is a term used to describe a list of all possible causes of a symptom or sign?
a. Environmental factors
b. Differential diagnosis
c. Dyspnea
d. Subjective information

Question 26

Which of the following is a common cause of pulsus paradoxus?
a. Acute asthma attack
b. Severe pneumonia
c. Congestive heart failure
d. Myocardial infarction

Question 27

Which of the following are common causes of tachypnea?
1. Hypoxemia
2. Exercise
3. Narcotic overdose
4. Metabolic acidosis
a. 2, 3, and 4 only
b. 1, 2, and 4 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 4 only

Question 28

What is the normal range for systolic blood pressure in the adult patient?
a. 90 to 140 mm Hg
b. 80 to 100 mm Hg
c. 75 to 100 mm Hg
d. 60 to 100 mm Hg

Question 29

What is the normal range for diastolic blood pressure in the adult patient?
a. 40 to 80 mm Hg
b. 60 to 90 mm Hg
c. 80 to 110 mm Hg
d. 60 to 110 mm Hg

Question 30

What is the normal range for pulse pressure?
a. 20 to 35 mm Hg
b. 30 to 60 mm Hg
c. 30 to 40 mm Hg
d. 30 to 60 mm Hg

Question 31

Which of the following is a true statement about the cause of systemic hypertension in adult patients?
a. The cause is often unknown.
b. The cause is often related to poor diet.
c. The cause is often related to a lack of exercise.
d. The cause is often related to sleep apnea.

Question 32

Which of the following are causes of hypotension?
1. Heart failure
2. Hypovolemia
3. Mild tachycardia
4. Peripheral vasoconstriction
a. 2 and 4 only
b. 1, 2, and 4 only
c. 3 and 4 only
d. 2, 3, and 4 only

Question 33

What artery is most often used to assess arterial blood pressure?
a. Femoral
b. Radial
c. Ulnar
d. Brachial

Question 34

Why should the respiratory therapist perform a blood pressure assessment fairly quickly?
a. The procedure is expensive.
b. The procedure cuts off blood flow to the forearm temporarily.
c. The respiratory therapist has other procedures to do.
d. The procedure is billed by the time involved

Question 35

Which of the following is/are advantages of the digital blood pressure measurement devices?
a. They reduce the risk of human error.
b. They reduce the cost.
c. They have an alarm.
d. They measure blood pressure and stroke volume.

Question 36

What is indicated by the presence of central cyanosis?
a. Respiratory failure
b. Circulatory failure
c. Anemia
d. Hypotension

Question 37

What is the advantage of COPD patients breathing through pursed lips during exhalation?
a. Helps the patient focus on breathing.
b. Promotes more complete emptying of the lungs.
c. Reduces the patient’s anxiety level.
d. Improves arterial pH levels

Question 39

What is the most common cause of jugular venous distention (JVD)?
a. Right-sided heart failure
b. Arterial hypoxemia
c. Tension pneumothorax
d. Acute systemic hypertension

Question 40

Which of the following is the least likely cause of lymphadenopathy in the neck?
a. Lymphoma
b. Pulmonary infection
c. Congestive heart failure
d. Lung cancer

Question 41

What disease is associated with a barrel chest?
a. Emphysema
b. Heart failure
c. Pneumonia
d. Pleural effusions

Question 42

What term is used to describe an abnormal anteroposterior curvature of the spine?
a. Scoliosis
b. Pectus excavatum
c. Kyphosis
d. Pectus carinatum

Question 43

You observe a patient’s breathing pattern as very irregular and interspersed with long periods of apnea. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this problem?
a. Central nervous system disorder
b. Congestive heart failure
c. Metabolic acidosis
d. Increased intracranial pressure

Question 44

While observing a patient’s breathing, you note that the depth and rate first increase, then decrease, followed by a period of apnea. Which of the following terms would you use in charting this observation?
a. Apneustic breathing
b. Cheyne-Stokes breathing
c. Biot’s breathing
d. Paradoxical breathing

Question 45

While observing a patient’s breathing, you note that the depth and rate first increase, then decrease, followed by a period of apnea. Which of the following are potential causes of this abnormality?
1. Central nervous system disorder
2. Congestive heart failure
3. Metabolic acidosis
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

Question 46

What is indicated by retractions?
a. An increase in PaCO2
b. An increase in the work of breathing
c. A decrease in blood flow to the lungs
d. Reduction in lung volumes

Question 47

What breathing pattern is associated with severe atelectasis?
a. Rapid and deep
b. Rapid and shallow
c. Slow and shallow
d. Slow and deep

Question 48

A patient with asthma would tend to exhibit which of the following?
a. Prolonged inhalation
b. Slow and shallow breathing
c. Prolonged exhalation
d. Deep and fast breathing

Question 49

What breathing pattern is associated with diabetic ketoacidosis?
a. Kussmaul breathing
b. Apneustic breathing
c. Biot’s breathing
d. Apnea

Question 50

What term is used to describe the breathing pattern seen in COPD patients in whom the lower costal margins of the chest wall draw inward with each inspiration?
a. Hoover’s sign
b. Kussmaul’s sign
c. Abdominal paradox sign
d. Respiratory alternans sign