Chapter 15 - Translation Flashcards

1
Q

At what speed does translation take place

A

20 amino acid per second.

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2
Q

What is the composition of the ribosome? What are the functions of those subunits?

A

A large subunit that contain the peptide transferase centre, which is responsible for the formation of peptide bonds. The small subunit contains the decoding centre in which charged tRNAs read to “decode” the codon units of the mRNA.

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3
Q

What is the sedimentation velocity of the ribosomal subunits?

A

In bacteria, 70 & 30 Svedbergs. The intact ribosomes is referred to as 70S. In eukaryotic ribosomes, 60S and 40s that together form 80S.

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4
Q

What are the rRNA called in the different subunits?

A

In bacteria, the 50S contains a 5S rRNA and a 23S rRNA, whereas the 30S subunit contains a single 16S rRNA. In eukaryotic ribosome, the 60S subunit is composed of 5.8S, 5S and 28S rRNA. The 40S subunit is composed of 18S rRNA.

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5
Q

What is the ribosome cycle?

A

The small and large subunit of the ribosome associate with each other and the mRNA, translate the target mRNA, and then dissociates after completing synthesis of the protein.

Translation begins with the binding of the mRNA and initiation tRNA to a free, small subunit of the ribosome. The small subunit-mRNA-initiatior-tRNA complex the recruits a large subunit to create an intact ribosome with the mRNA sandwiched between the two subunits. Protein synthesis is initiated in the next step, connecting at the start codon at the 5’ end of the message and progressing towards the 3’ end of the mRNA. As the ribosome translocate from the codon to codon, one charged tRNA after another is slotted into the decoding and peptidyl transferase centers of the ribosome. When the elongating ribosome encounters a stop codon, the now completed polypeptide chain is released, and the ribosome dissociates from the mRNA as separate large and small subunits.

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6
Q

What is a polyribosome or a polysome?

A

A mRNA bearing multiple ribosomes. Although a ribosome can synthesise only one polypeptide at a time, each mRNA can be translated simultaneously by multiple ribosomes.

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7
Q

Which chemical reaction does a ribosome catalyse? And where does it occur?

A

The formation of a peptide bond. This occurs between the amino acid residue at the carboxyl-terminal end of the growing polypeptide and the incoming amino acid added to the chain. Both the growing chain and the incoming amino acid are attached to tRNAs; as a result, during peptide-bond formation, the growing polypeptide is continuously attached to a tRNA.

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8
Q

What is the substrate for each round of amino acid addition? And where are they attached?

A

Two charged species of tRNAs –> an aminoacyl-tRNA and a peptidyl-tRNA. The aminoacyl-tRNA is attached at its 3’end to the carboxyl group of the amino acid. The peptidyl-tRNA is attached in exactly the same manner (at it’s 3’ end) to the carboxyl terminus if the growing polypeptide chain.

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9
Q

Which bond is broken during the formation of the next peptide bond?

A

The bond between the peptidyl-tRNA and the growing polypeptide chain is broken as the growing chain is attached tot he amino group of the amino acid attached to the aminoacyl-tRNA to form a new peptide bond.

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10
Q

Explain the peptidyl transferase reaction.

A

The 3’ end of these two tRNA are brought into close proximity by the ribosome. The resulting tRNA positioning allows the amino group of the amino acid attached to aminoacyl-tRNA to attack the carbonyl group of the most terminal amino acid attached to the peptidyl-tRNA. The result of this nucleophilic attack is the formation of a new peptide bond between the amino acids attached to the tRNAs and the release of the polypeptide chain from the peptidyl tRNA.

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11
Q

What are the three binding site of the ribosome? And what are their function?

A

the A-, P- and E-site. The A-site is the binding site for the amincoacylated-tRNA, the P-site is the binding site for the peptidyl-tRNA, and the E-site is the binding site for the tRNA that is released after the growing polypeptide chain has been transferred to the aminoacyl-tRNA.

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12
Q

How does mRNA enter and exit (polypeptide chain) the ribosome?

A

The mRNA enters and exits the decoding center through two narrow channels in the small subunit. The channel is only wide enough for the unpaired RNA to pay through. In between the two channels is a region that is accessible to tRNA and where adjacent condons can bind to the aminoacyl-tRNA and peptidyl-tRNA in the A-and P-site, respectively.

The second channel provides an exit path for the newly synthesised polypeptide chain.

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13
Q

Which 3 events must occur for translation to be successful?

A
  1. The ribosome must be recruited.
  2. A charged tRNA must be be placed into the P-site of the ribosome.
  3. The ribosome must be precisely positioned over the start codon.
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14
Q

What mediates the association between the small subunit and the mRNA?

A

Base-pairing interaction between the RBS and the 16S rRNA.

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15
Q

What is the role of initiator tRNA?

A

Binds to the P-site without previously occupying the A-site. Initiator tRNA base-pairs usually with AUG or GUG.

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16
Q

Which charged group is aded to initiator tRNA?

A

Initiator tRNA is first charged with a methionine, then a formyl group is rapidly added to the methionine amino group by a separate enzyme (Met-tRNA transformylase) –> coupled to N-formyl methionine. The charged initiator tRNA is referred to as fMet-tRNA.

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17
Q

What is the task of deformylase?

A

This enzyme removes the formyl group from he amino terminus during or after synthesis of the polypeptide chain.

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18
Q

Which three factors catalyses the initiation prokaryotic translation? And what are their function and where do they bind?

A

IF1 - Assists in binding of IF3 to the 30S subunit. Prevents tRNA from binding to the portion of the small subunit that will become part of the A-site.

IF2 - Is a GTPase that interacts with three key components of the initiation machinery: the small subunit, IF1, and the charged initiator tRNA. By interacting with the small subunit and prevents other charged tRNAs from associating with the small subunit.

IF3 - bind the small subunit and blocks it from reassociating with the large subunit. Because initiation requires a free small subunit, the binding of IF3 is crucial for a new cycle of translation. IF3 becomes associated with the small subunit at the end of a previous round of translation when it help to dissociate the 70S ribosome into its large and small subunit.

IF1 binds directly to the portion of the small subunit that will become the A-site. IF2 binds to IF1 and reaches over the A-site into the P-site to contact the fMet-tRNA. IF3 occupies the part of the small subunit that will become the E-site.

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19
Q

How does the large subunit bind to create the 70S initiation complex?

A

When the start codon and fMet-tRNA altered conformation results in the release of IF3. In absence of IF3, the large subunit is free to bind to the small subunit with its cargo of IF1, IF2, mRNA and fMet-tRNA. In particular, IF2 acts as an initial docking site of the large subunit, and this interaction subsequently, stimulates the GTPase activity of IF2-GTP.IF2 bound to GDP has reduced affinity for the ribosome and the initiator tRNA, leading to the release of IF2-GDP as well as IF1 from the ribosome.

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20
Q

How does initiation in eukaryotes differ from prokaryotes?

A

Eukaryotes use a fundamentally distinct method to recognise the mRNA and the start codon. In eukaryotes the small subunit is already associated with an initiator tRNA when it is recruited to the capped 5’ end of the mRNA. It then “scans” along the mRNA in a 5’–> 3’ direction until it reaches the first 5’-AUG-3’, which it recognises as the start codon.

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21
Q

What are the 4 steps of initiation in eukaryotes?

A
  1. Binding of the initiator tRNA to the small subunit always precedes association with the mRNA.
  2. A separate set of auxiliary factors mediates the recognition of the mRNA.
  3. The small ribosomal subunit bound to the initiator tRNA scans the mRNA for the first AUG sequence.
  4. The large subunit of the ribosome is recruited after initiator tRNA base-pairs with the start codon
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22
Q

Describe the assembly of the eukaryotic small ribosomal subunit and initiator tRNA on the mRNA.

A

Four initiation factors - eIF1, eIF1A, eIF3 and eIF5 - bind to the small subunit. Together, eIF1, eIF1A and eIF5 act in an analogous manner to the prokaryotic initiation factors IF3 and IF1, to prevent both large subunit binding and tRNA binding to the A-site. The initiator tRNA is escorted to the small subunit by the three subunit GTP-binding protein eIF2, that will bind the initiator tRNA only in its GTP-bound state. The complex between the initiator tRNA and EIF2 is called the ternary complex. For eukaryotes, the initiator tRNA is charged with methionine, not N-formyl methionine, and is called Met-tRNA. eIF2 positions the Met-tRNA in the P-site of the initiation factors-bound small subunit resulting in the formation of the 43S preintiation complex (43S PIC).

The mRNA is prepared for recognition by the small subunit. This process begins by the 5’ cap by the cap-binding protein eIF4E and the mRNA, whereas eIF4 bind eIF4G bind both eIF4E and the mRNA. This complex is joined by eIF4B, which activates the RNA helices activity of eIF4A. The helices unwinds any secondary structures that may have formed at the ens of the mRNA. Removal of secondary structures is critical because the 5’ end of the mRNA must be unstructured to bind to the small subunit. Finally, interactions between the eiF4G bound to the unstructured mRNA and the initiation factor bound to the small subunit recruit the 43S preinitiation complex to the mRNA to form the 48S preinitiation complex.

23
Q

How is circularisation of eukaryotic mRNA mediated?

A

By the interactions of eIF4G, the poly-A-binding protein, and the poly-A tail.

24
Q

How is the start codon found in eukaryotes?

A

The small subunit and its associated factors move along the mRNA in a 5’ –> 3’ direction in an ATP-dependent process that is stimulated by the eiF4A/B-associated RNA helice. During this process the small subunit scans the mRNA for the first start codon. The start codon is recognised through base-pairing between the anticodon of the initiator tRNA and the start codon. Correct base-paring changes the conformation of the 48S complex, leading to the release of the eIF1 and a change in conformation of the eIF5. Both these events stimulates eIF2 to hydrolyse it associated GTP. In its GDP-bound state, eIF2 no longer binds the initiator tRNA and is released from the small subunit along with eIF5.

25
Q

Describe how the large subunit is associated with the small ribosomal subunit in eukaryotes.

A

Loss of eIF2 allows the binding of a second GTP-regulated, initiator tRNA-binding protein called eIF5B. Upon binding the initiator tRNA, eIF5B-GTP stimulated the association of the 60S subunit with the correctly positioned 40S subunit. Binding of the large subunits leads to the release of the remaining initiation factors by stimulating GTP hydrolysis by eIF5B.

26
Q

What is polycistonic mRNA

A

Polycistronic mRNA is a mRNA that encodes several proteins and is characteristic of many bacterial and chloroplast mRNAs. Polycistronic mRNAs consist of a leader sequence which precedes the first gene. The gene is followed by an intercistronic region and then another gene.

27
Q

What is a Shine-Dalgarno sequence?

A

The Shine–Dalgarno (SD) sequence is a ribosomal binding site in bacterial and archaeal messenger RNA, generally located around 8 bases upstream of the start codon AUG. The RNA sequence helps recruit the ribosome to the messenger RNA (mRNA) to initiate protein synthesis by aligning the ribosome with the start codon.

28
Q

Which modified bases exist in tRNA?

A

N,N-diemthyl G, dihydro U, pseudouridine, 4-thiouridine, inosine (deamination of G).

29
Q

Explain wobble base-pairing.

A

The third position of tRNA is the wobble position of tRNA and can pair with non-standard base pairs. In position 1 and 2 only conventional Watson-Crick pairing is permitted.

30
Q

What is the role of RNase P?

A

Ribonuclease P (RNase P) is a ribonucleoprotein particle that catalyses maturation of the 5′ end of transfer RNA (tRNA) by cleavage of precursor-specific sequences

31
Q

What is the function of CCA-adding enzymes?

A

CCA-adding enzymes are nucleotidyltransferases that catalyze the posttranscriptional addition of CCA onto the 3′ terminus of immature tRNAs without using a nucleic acid template.

32
Q

What is a ribozyme?

A

It is a RNA with enzymatic activity. For example Rnase P is a ribozyme which leaves off a leader segment from the 5’ end of precursor tRNA by endonuclease activity

33
Q

How is aminoacyl tRNA formed?

A

Aminoacyl-tRNA is produced in two steps. First, the adenylation of the amino acid, which forms aminoacyl-AMP:

Amino Acid + ATP → Aminoacyl-AMP + PPi
Second, the amino acid residue is transferred to the tRNA:

Aminoacyl-AMP + tRNA → Aminoacyl-tRNA + AMP
The overall net reaction is:

Amino Acid + ATP + tRNA → Aminoacyl-tRNA + AMP + PPi.

34
Q

Explain tRNA charging?

A

Amino acid and ATP bind to the enzyme synthetase. Enzyme catalyses coupling of amino acid to AMP to form aminoacyl-AMP. Two phosphates are lost in the reaction. Uncharged tRNA bind to the enzyme. The enzyme transfers amino acids from aminoacyl-AMP to tRNA, to form aminoacyl-tRNA. (aa-tRNA). The aa-tRNA and AMP are released from the enzyme.

35
Q

What are the differences between class I and II aminoacyl tRNA synthetase.

A

Class - I
Mostly monomeric. Attaches the amionacyl group to the 2’hydroxyl of the tRNA. Contains a Rossman fold motif.

Class - II
Mostly multimeric. Attaches the aminoacyl group to the 3’hydroxyl of the tRNA. Contains betas sheets flanked by alfa helices.

36
Q

Why is the first Met in the amino terminal always formulated?

A

To prevent peptide bond formation with this end. It maintains the direction of protein synthesis in N –> C direction.

37
Q

Which parts is the ternary complex composed of?

A

Components - EF-Tu + GTP + aminoacyl tRNA.

Elongation factor EF-Tu (GTPase) brings the charged t-RNAs to the A-site to form the ternery complex. It releases from the ribosome after GTP hydrolysis upon delivery go the tRNA. EF-Tu exchanges GTP to GDP by interaction with EF-Ts.

38
Q

Explain how mRNA bind to 30S subunit and how the large subunit joins the complex.

A

As mRNA binds to 30S subunit, IF3 helps to correctly position the complex such that the fMet-tRNA interacts via base pairing with the mRNA initiation codon (AUG) on the P-site. A region of mRNA upstream of the initiation codon, the Shine-Dalgarno sequence, base pairs with the 3’ end of the 16S rRNA. This positions the 30S ribosomal subunit in relation to the initiation codon. As the large ribosomal subunit joins the complex, GTP on IF2 is hydrolysed, leading to dissociation of IF-2-GDP and dissociation of IF-1. A domain of the large ribosomal subunit serves as GAP for IF2. Once the two ribosomal subunits come together, the mRNA is throated through a curved channel that wraps around the “neck” region of the small subunit.

39
Q

How does translation initiation differ in eukaryotes from bacteria?

A

Two GTPases involved instead of one IF2 in bacteria. eIF2 - tRNAiMet delivery to the P site. eIF5B - subunit association (Gap hydrolysis and releases after association of the large subunit) (bacterial IF2 homolog). Two rounds of GTP hydrolysis.

40
Q

What is the proper start codon called in bacteria and eukaryotes?

A

In bacteria - Internal Ribosome Entry site (IRES).

In eukaryotes - upstream ORFs (uORFs).

41
Q

What is a KOZAK sequence?

A

Some eukaryotic mRNA contains a purine three bases upstream of the start codon and a guanine immediately downstream. Many eukaryotic mRNA lack these bases, but their presence increases the efficiency of translation. In contrast to SD sequence in prokaryotes, these bases are through to interact with the initiator tRNA, not with an RNA component of the ribosome.

42
Q

What are the advantages with circular mRNA in eukaryotes with 5’ Cap and a 3´poly A tail.

A

Cap binding by eIF4E helps locating AUG downstream. eIF4G and polyA binding protein interaction also facilitates the process. It allows the stop and start codon to be placed close to each other.

43
Q

What is the role of EF-tu?

A

EF-Tu is a GTPase protein. it hydrolyses GTP on the ribosome after delivering the amioacyl-tRNA. EF-Tu is the Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for EF-Tu. E

44
Q

What is the role of EF-Ts?

A

EF-Ts is the GEF (guanine nucleotide exchange factor) for EF-Tu.

45
Q

What is the role of EF-G?

A

Translocates the tRNA from the A-site to the P-site in bacteria.

46
Q

What is ribosome ratcheting?

A

Rearrangement of the small subunit in relation to the large subunit.

47
Q

What is peptide release facilitated?

A

RF1, RF2 (eRF1 in eukaryotes) release the peptide from the ribosome. RF3 (eRF3 in eukaryotes) release RF1 and Rf2. Further, RF3 releases from the ribosome using energy of GTP hydrolysis. Class-I release factors (RF1, RF2, eRF1) mimic tRNA molecules. Besides RFs, there is another factor RRF (ribosome recycling factor) helps the disassembly of the complex.

48
Q

Which motifs does termination by RF1 and RF2 require?

A

PXT/SPF and GGQ wich interact with the DC and PTC respectively.

49
Q

What is the molecular targeting consequence of Chloramphenicol?

A

Peptidyl transfera centre of 50S subunit.

Blocks correct positioning of A-site amionacyl-tRNA for peptidyl transfer reaction.

50
Q

What is the molecular targeting consequence of Puromycin?

A

Peptidyl transferase centre of large ribosomal subunit.

Chain terminator; mimics 3’ end of aminoacyl-tRNA in A-site and acts as acceptor for nascent polypeptide chain.

51
Q

What is the molecular targeting consequence for fusidic acid?

A

EF-G

Prevents release of EF-G-GDP from the ribosome.

52
Q

What is the molecular targeting consequence of Kiromycin?

A

EF-Tu

Prevents conformational changes associated with Gap hydrolysis and therefore EF-Tu release.

53
Q

What is the molecular targeting consequence of cycloheximide?

A

Peptidyl transferase center od 60S.

Inhibits peptidyl transferase activity.