chapter 15 the chromosomal basis of inheritance Flashcards

1
Q

What did Morgan demonstrate about Mendelian inheritance?

A

Mendelian inheritance has its physical basis in the behaviour of chromosomes

Morgan’s work showed the correlation between genes and chromosome behaviour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are sex linked genes?

A

Genes located on sex chromosomes, such as X-linked or Y-linked genes

They exhibit unique patterns of inheritance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why do linked genes tend to be inherited together?

A

They are located near each other on the same chromosome

This proximity increases the likelihood of being passed on together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What can alterations of chromosome number or structure cause?

A

Genetic disorders

These alterations can lead to spontaneous abortions or developmental disorders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the significance of tagging isolated chromosomes with a fluorescent dye?

A

It allows for the location of genes along chromosomes to be visualized

This technique aids in genetic mapping.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What was the result of Morgan’s experiment with fruit flies regarding eye color?

A

The F1 generation all had red eyes, while the F2 generation showed a 3:1 ratio of red to white eyes, with only males having white eyes

This led to the conclusion that the white-eyed allele was on the X chromosome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How are Y-linked genes inherited?

A

Passed only from father to son

This is due to only males having a Y chromosome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is required for a recessive X-linked trait to be expressed in females?

A

Two copies of the allele (homozygous)

Males need only one copy (hemizygous).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are examples of X-linked recessive disorders?

A
  • Red-green color blindness
  • Hemophilia

These disorders are more common in males than females.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is X inactivation in female mammals?

A

One of the two X chromosomes in each cell is randomly inactivated during embryonic development

This leads to females being mosaics for certain traits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is nondisjunction?

A

The failure of homologous chromosomes to separate normally during meiosis

This can lead to gametes with abnormal chromosome numbers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is aneuploidy?

A

An abnormal number of a particular chromosome in offspring

Results from fertilization of gametes where nondisjunction occurred.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the types of chromosomal alterations?

A
  • Deletion
  • Duplication
  • Inversion
  • Translocation

These structural changes can lead to genetic disorders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Down syndrome caused by?

A

Three copies of chromosome 21 (trisomy 21)

This condition affects 1 in 700 children born in the US.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Klinefelter syndrome?

A

A condition resulting from an XXY chromosome configuration in males

This often leads to sterility and subtle symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Cri du chat syndrome?

A

A disorder caused by a specific deletion in chromosome 5

Individuals typically exhibit mental retardation and a characteristic cat-like cry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the role of crossing over in genetic recombination?

A

It occasionally breaks the physical connection between linked genes on the same chromosome

This results in new combinations of alleles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a linkage map?

A

A genetic map of a chromosome based on recombination frequencies

It helps illustrate the distances between genes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is polyploidy?

A

An organism with more than two complete sets of chromosomes

Common in plants but rare in animals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the symptoms of Edwards Syndrome?

A

Severe disability, with babies usually not living longer than a week due to trisomy 18

This condition is less common than Down syndrome but more severe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is hypertrichosis?

A

A condition characterized by an abnormal amount of hair

It can be congenital or acquired.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

True or False: Female mammals can exhibit a mosaic phenotype due to X inactivation.

A

True

Heterozygous females can express different traits from their X chromosomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How can a gene’s location be identified?

A

By tagging isolated chromosomes with a fluorescent dye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What accounts for Mendel’s laws of segregation and independent assortment?

A

The behavior of chromosomes during meiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Who provided the first solid evidence associating a specific gene with a specific chromosome?

A

Thomas Hunt Morgan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What organism did Thomas Hunt Morgan use for his experiments?

A

Fruit flies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are traits alternative to the wild type called?

A

Mutant phenotypes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What was the F1 generation’s eye color when Morgan mated male flies with white eyes and female flies with red eyes?

A

All had red eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What ratio was observed in the F2 generation of Morgan’s fruit fly experiment?

A

3:1 red:white eye ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

On which chromosome is the white-eye mutant allele located?

A

X chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the main function of the Y chromosome?

A

Sex determination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How many genes does the Y chromosome approximately have?

A

About 200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Y-linked traits are passed from _______ to _______.

A

Father to son

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is hypertrichosis pinnae auras commonly known as?

A

Hairy ears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

For a recessive X-linked trait to be expressed, how many copies of the allele does a female need?

A

Two copies (homozygous)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

For a recessive X-linked trait to be expressed, how many copies of the allele does a male need?

A

One copy (hemizygous)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What condition is characterized by impaired blood clotting?

A

Haemophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the genetic cause of haemophilia?

A

X chromosome disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the main cause of aneuploidy?

A

Nondisjunction during meiosis

40
Q

What is a monosomic zygote?

A

Has only one copy of a particular chromosome

41
Q

What are the four types of changes in chromosome structure caused by breakage?

A
  • Deletion
  • Duplication
  • Inversion
  • Translocation
42
Q

What is the mutation that causes Huntington’s disease?

A

Duplicate of repeat sequence in the gene coding for glutamate residues in the Huntingtin protein

43
Q

Which syndrome is caused by a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22?

A

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)

44
Q

What is the inheritance pattern for X-linked traits?

A

Males inherit one allele from their mother, and females inherit two alleles

45
Q

What is the outcome if a color-blind father has daughters?

A

All daughters will inherit the mutant allele

46
Q

What is the chance that a daughter of a carrier mother and a normal vision father will be a carrier?

47
Q

What is the only known variable monosomy in humans?

A

Turner syndrome (X0)

48
Q

What is the effect of temperature on sex determination?

A

Determines the sex of offspring in some reptiles and teleost fish

49
Q

What is the significance of X inactivation in female mammals?

A

One of the two X chromosomes is randomly inactivated

50
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of traits on linked genes?

A

They tend to be inherited together

51
Q

What is the flow of genetic information?

A

The information in DNA is in the form of specific nucleotide sequences that encode for RNA, leading to protein synthesis and specific traits

Proteins link genotype and phenotype

52
Q

What are the two stages of gene expression?

A

Transcription and translation

Gene expression is the process by which DNA directs protein synthesis through RNA

53
Q

Define transcription.

A

Synthesis of RNA under the direction of DNA

Messenger RNA (mRNA) is synthesized during transcription

54
Q

Define translation.

A

Synthesis of a protein under the direction of mRNA

Ribosomes translate the mRNA into proteins

55
Q

What is the template strand?

A

One of the two DNA strands that provides a template for mRNA synthesis during transcription

The other strand is the coding strand

56
Q

What are codons?

A

Base triplets on mRNA that are read during translation

Codons specify the amino acids to be placed along a polypeptide

57
Q

How many amino acids are there and how many nucleotide bases are in DNA and mRNA?

A

20 amino acids and 4 nucleotide bases

There are 64 codons, with 61 coding for amino acids and 3 as stop signals

58
Q

What does AUG encode for?

A

Methionine and it often represents the start signal for ribosomes

AUG is one of the 64 codons

59
Q

True or False: The genetic code is ambiguous.

A

False

The genetic code is redundant but not ambiguous

60
Q

What are the three stages of transcription?

A

Initiation, elongation, termination

61
Q

What catalyzes RNA synthesis?

A

RNA polymerase

It pries DNA strands apart and hooks RNA nucleotides together

62
Q

What is a promoter?

A

The DNA sequence where RNA polymerase attaches

Promoters signal the transcriptional start point

63
Q

What is the TATA box?

A

A promoter sequence crucial in forming the initiation complex in eukaryotes

64
Q

What happens during the elongation stage of transcription?

A

RNA polymerase moves along the DNA, untwisting the double helix and adding nucleotides to the growing RNA molecule

Transcription progresses at a rate of 40 nucleotides per second in eukaryotes

65
Q

How does termination differ between bacteria and eukaryotes?

A

Bacteria: RNA polymerase stops at the terminator. Eukaryotes: RNA polymerase transcribes the polyadenylation signal and the RNA transcript is released after

66
Q

What are introns?

A

Long noncoding stretches that lie between coding regions in eukaryotic genes

They are removed during RNA splicing

67
Q

What are exons?

A

Regions that typically encode for a protein

Exons are joined together during RNA splicing

68
Q

What is alternative RNA splicing?

A

A process where some genes can encode more than one protein product depending on which segments are treated as introns/exons

69
Q

What is the role of tRNA in translation?

A

Transfers amino acids to the growing protein in a ribosome

70
Q

What is the structure of tRNA?

A

A single RNA strand about 80 nucleotides long with a specific amino acid on one end and an anticodon on the other end

71
Q

What are the two steps required for accurate translation?

A
  1. Correct match between tRNA and amino acid 2. Correct match between tRNA anticodon and mRNA codon
72
Q

What is wobble in tRNA pairing?

A

Flexible pairing at the third base of a codon that allows some tRNAs to bind to more than one codon

73
Q

What are the three binding sites of a ribosome?

A

P site, A site, E site

P site holds the growing chain, A site holds the next amino acid, E site is the exit site

74
Q

What are the three stages of translation?

A

Initiation, elongation, termination

75
Q

What initiates translation?

A

The small ribosomal subunit binds with mRNA and the initiator tRNA, then moves to the start codon (AUG)

76
Q

What occurs during termination of translation?

A

A stop codon reaches the A site, and a release factor causes the addition of a water molecule, releasing the protein

77
Q

What is required for a protein to become functional after translation?

A

Folding into three-dimensional shapes and often undergoing post-translational modifications

78
Q

What is tri-arabinose synthesis?

A

Complex chemistry to generate the tri-arabinose building block

Involves unique B-1,2 linkage of arabinose sugars

79
Q

What are biotechnology tools?

A

Molecular techniques that are often universal and powerful for understanding signaling pathways and molecular-genetic interactions.

80
Q

What does PCR stand for?

A

Polymerase chain reaction.

81
Q

What is PCR used for?

A

To amplify DNA and determine presence/absence, generate large volumes of a target sequence, or confirm sequence presence in a sample.

82
Q

What technique does PCR use?

A

Thermal cycling.

83
Q

What is cDNA?

A

Complementary DNA that is very stable and represents the coding sequence of a gene without introns.

84
Q

What is the stability comparison between cDNA and mRNA?

A

cDNA is very stable, whereas mRNA is generally not stable.

85
Q

What is real-time PCR used for?

A

To determine transcript abundance, often referred to as gene expression.

86
Q

How does real-time PCR differ from traditional PCR?

A

It combines amplification and detection and is slightly more expensive.

87
Q

What is next-generation sequencing (NGS)?

A

A method used to sequence genomes or for RNA sequencing (RNAseq), known for its ultra-high throughput, speed, and scalability.

88
Q

What is a significant application of RNA sequencing?

A

To identify genes that are differentially regulated in expression.

89
Q

What is gene cloning?

A

A widely used method that amplifies a sequence of interest, which can be stored as a plasmid or in bacteria.

90
Q

What can gene cloning be used for?

A

To transform another organism or produce products of interest.

91
Q

What is transformation in the context of genetic engineering?

A

The process of overexpression, often involving promoter::reporter fusions and CRISPR.

92
Q

What is bioinformatics?

A

The use of programs and tools to identify genes, genome structures, introns, promoter regions, and visualize gene expression profiles.

93
Q

What do gene atlases enable?

A

The visualization of gene expression patterns in various tissues.

94
Q

Fill in the blank: PCR is a _______ method.

A

widely used.

95
Q

True or False: cDNA includes introns.

96
Q

What is one challenge in gene cloning?

A

Difficulty can be in the species or variety being transformed.

97
Q

What is the main focus of next-gen sequencing?

A

To sequence genomes or perform RNA sequencing.