Chapter 14 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is not mediated by antibodies?

a. type I hypersensitivity
b. type II hypersensitivity
c. type III hypersensitivity
d. type IV hypersensitivity
e. None of the above

A

d. type IV hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is associated with type III hypersensitivity?

a. nickel
b. recombinant human insulin
c. plant oil
d. mouse-derived monoclonal antibody
e. helminth infection

A

d. mouse-derived monoclonal antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

_____ hypersensitivity reactions interact with soluble epitopes and not cell-surface associated epitopes.

a. type I and II
b. type I and III
c. type I and IV
d. type II and III
e. type II and IV

A

b. type I and III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

During a primary immune response IgM sometimes switches to IgE. Which of the following best describes the consequence of this early switch?

a. The B cell would switch again to IgG3.
b. The B cell would remain in the germinal center but would not differentiate into a plasma cell.
c. The B cell would die by apoptosis.
d. The IgE produced would have low affinity for antigen.
e. The IgG produced would have low affinity for antigen.

A

d. The IgE produced would have low affinity for antigen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following regarding FcepsilonRI is false?

a. It is expressed on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
b. It is a low-affinity receptor involved in type I hypersensitivity reactions.
c. It binds to IgE in the absence of antigen.
d. It is a membrane-bound tetramer.
e. It contains signaling components that re activated following antigen cross-linking.

A

b. It is a low-affinity receptor involved in type I hypersensitivity reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The sheddase _____ cleaves FcepsilonRII on the cell surface, resulting in the production of monomeric and trimeric forms of FcepsilonRII.

a. cathepsin G
b. CR2
c. eotaxin
d. major basic protein
e. ADAM10

A

e. ADAM10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

All of the following are released immediately by mast cells after FcepsilonRI cross-linking except _____.

a. heparin
b. eicosanoids
c. neutral proteases
d. histamine
e. TNF-alpha

A

b. eicosanoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Lipid mediators produced by activated mast cells include which of the following?

a. platelet-activating factor, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins
b. cathepsin G
c. chymase
d. histamine
e. carboxypeptidase

A

a. platelet-activating factor, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

All of the following are biological effects mediated by the products of mast cells except _____.

a. chemotaxis of neutrophils, eosinophils, and effector T cells
b. growth factor secretion
c. smooth muscle contraction
d. connective tissue remodeling
e. All of the above are mediated by mast cells.

A

e. All of the above are mediated by mast cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Identify the mismatched pair.

a. TNF-alpha: immediate release from mast cells
b. mucosal mast cell production: T-cell immunodeficiencies
c. connective tissue mast cells: chymotryptase
d. lipid mediator: prostaglandins
e. leukotrienes: increase vascular permeability

A

b. mucosal mast cell production: T-cell immunodeficiencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Prostaglandin D2 (PGD2) enhances all of the following except _____.

a. chemotaxis of neutrophils
b. increased vascular permeability
c. vasodilation
d. chemotaxis of macrophages

A

d. chemotaxis of macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following directly inhibits the cyclooxygenase pathway by inhibiting the activity of prostaglandin synthase?

a. ADAM10
b. experimental anti-IgE
c. aspirin (acetyl salicylate)
d. chymotryptase
e. ADAM33

A

c. aspirin (acetyl salicylate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

_____ released by TH2 cells promotes an elevated level of eosinophils in the circulation.

a. IL-4
b. IL-13
c. TNF-alpha
d. FcgammaRII
e. IL-5

A

e. IL-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The antigens that provoke hypersensitivity reactions are referred to as ________.

a. T-independent antigens
b. superantigens
c. subunit vaccines
d. attenuated vaccines
e. allergens

A

e. allergens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following allergens is not likely to be encountered through inhalation?

a. plant pollen
b. metals
c. animal dander
d. mold spores
e. house dust mite feces

A

b. metals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Aspirin (acetyl salicylate) inhibits prostaglandin synthesis by binding irreversibly to prostaglandin synthase, the first enzyme in the _____ pathway.

a. cyclooxygenase
b. carboxypeptidase
c. metalloprotease
d. lipoxygenase
e. peroxidase

A

a. cyclooxygenase

17
Q

The wheal-and-flare inflammatory reaction is an example of ________________.

a. an immediate type I allergic response
b. a late-phase type I allergic response
c. a late-phase type IV allergic response
d. an immediate type III allergic response
e. a late-phase type III allergic response

A

a. an immediate type I allergic response

18
Q

Which of the following tests is used to determine whether a particular allergen is responsible for asthma?

a. measure wheal-and-flare diameter after intradermal injection of allergen
b. measure Arthus reaction diameter after intradermal injection of allergen
c. inject a controlled amount of allergen intradermally and observe urticaria
d. measure peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) following inhalation of allergen
e. measure eosinophils in nasal secretions following inhalation of allergen

A

d. measure peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) following inhalation of allergen

19
Q

During the course of a successful desensitization process, the patient antibodies will change from an _____isotype to an _____ isotype.

a. IgG4:IgE
b. IgE:IgM
c. IgA:IgM
d. IgG1:IgG4
e. IgE:IgG4

A

e. IgE:IgG4

20
Q

Anita Garcia, 17 years old, and her roommate Rosa Rosario were celebrating a friend birthday at a dessert buffet at a local restaurant when Anita developed acute dyspnea, and angioedema. She complained of an itchy rash, and then had difficulty swallowing. Rosa drove Anita to the emergency room two blocks away rather than wait for an ambulance. As they approached the hospital, Anita lost consciousness. This medical emergency would most probably result in immediate _____ before any subsequent treatment.

a. subcutaneous injection of epinephrine
b. intravenous injection of corticosteroids
c. intravenous injection of antihistamine
d. intravenous injection of antibiotics
e. intravenous injection of a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug

A

a. subcutaneous injection of epinephrine