Chapter 14 Flashcards

1
Q

Who was Ilya Metchnikoff

A

A Russian born scientist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What did Metchnikoff hypothesize

A

He hypothesized that specialized cells in the body destroy invading organisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How did Metchnikoff come up with the idea that specialized cells in the body destroy invading organisms.

A

His ideas came about while he was studying the larval form of starfish.

As he looked at the larvae under the microscope, he could see amoeba like cells within the bodies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How did Metchnikoff suggest the body fought disease

A

Metchnikoff reasoned that certain cells in animals are able to ingest and destroy foreign material.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What did Metchnikoff call the cells that are able to ingest and destroy foreign material

A

Phagocytes (cells that eat).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What did Metchnikoff say phagocytes do

A

He said phagocytes were primarily responsible for the body’s ability to destroy invading microbes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What should the body’s defense system be doing

A

The system must maintain a delicate balancing act, destroying pathogens while maintaining relatively stable conditions within the human body-a state called homeostasis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the two mechanisms of defense multicellular organisms have:

A
  1. Innate immunity
  2. Adaptive immunity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Innate immunity

A

Is the routine protection present at birth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the protective features of innate immunity

A

The protective features include anatomical barriers, sensor systems that recognize patterns associated with microbes or tissue damage, phagocytes cells and inflammatory response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Compared to innate immunity, adaptive immunity is

A

A more specialized defense system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Adaptive immunity

A

This develops throughout life as a result of exposure to microbes or certain other types of foreign material, and it substantially increases the host’s ability to defend itself.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Antigen

A

Substance that causes an immune response.

Molecule that reacts specifically with either an antibody or an antigen receptor on a lymphocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What happens each time the body is exposed to an antigen

A

Each time the body is exposed to an antigen, the adaptive defense system first “learns” and then “remembers” the most effective response to that specific antigen; it then reacts accordingly if the antigen is encountered again.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is an important action of the adaptive immune response

A
  1. An important action of the adaptive immune response is the production of proteins called antibodies.
  2. The adaptive immune response can also destroy the body’s own cells that are infected with a virus or other invader.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Antibody

A

Y shaped protein that binds antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What do antibodies do

A

These bind specifically to antigens, thereby targeting them for destruction or removal by other host defenses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Host cells or self cells

A

In immunology, one of the body’s own cells; also referred to as self cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The innate immune system has three general components

A
  1. First line defenses
  2. Sensor systems
  3. Innate effector actions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

First line defenses

A

The barriers that separate and shield the interior of the body from the surrounding environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the first line defenses do

A

The first line defenses prevent microbes and other foreign material from entering the body’s tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What do the first line defenses include

A

First line defenses include the physical barriers provided by the skin and the mucous membranes, along with antimicrobial substances that bathe them.

Members of the normal microbiota residing on the surfaces also provide protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Sensor systems

A

Sensor systems allow the immune system to recognize when the first line defenses have been breached.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is perceived as an invader

A

Any microbe that passes through the first line defenses and into tissue is perceived by immune system as an invader.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Sentinel cells

A

Cells that help the immune system detect signs of invasion by producing cytokines when their pattern recognition receptors recognize an invading microbe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How specifically do sentinel cells work

A

Sentinel cells (lookouts or guards), are certain host cells positioned at strategic sites in the body to detect invading microbes in blood or tissue fluids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How do sentinel cells recognize microbes

A

Sentinel cells recognize microbes by detecting their unique components, such as peptidoglycan, using a special group of receptors called pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Pattern recognition receptors

A

Proteins on or in cells that recognize specific compounds unique to microbes or tissue damage, allowing the cells to sense the presence of invading microbes or damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Where can PRRS be located

A

Some PRRs are located surface of sentinel cells, others are within the sentinel cells’ endosomes or phagosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What do the PRRs located on the surface of sentinel cells allow the cells to do

A

Some PRRs located on the surface of sentinel cells allow cells to detect surrounding invaders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What do PRRs located within the sentinel cells’ endosomes or phagosomes allow the cells to do

A

Some PRRs within the sentinel endosomes or phagosomes allow cells to determine what they have engulfed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Complement system

A

Series of proteins in blood and tissue fluids that can be activated to help destroy and remove invading microbes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Why is the complement system named that

A

The complement system was named because it can complement ( act in combination with) the adaptive immune defenses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Other than in sentinel cells, where can PRRs be present in the body

A

Many cell types have a different PRR set in their cytoplasm that allows the cells to recognize when a microbe has invaded them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How are the series of proteins in the complement system before they see a stimuli

A

The complement system is a series of proteins that circulate in an inactive form but become activated in response to certain stimuli, setting off a chain of events that results in the removal and destruction of invading microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When do the series of proteins in the complement system become activated

A

The series of proteins become activated in response to certain stimuli, setting off a chain of events that results in the removal and destruction of invading microbes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What do innate effectors do

A

Innate effector actions help eliminate invaders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Interferons

A

Cytokines that induce cells to resist viral replication; they also help regulate the immune response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How do interferons work

A

When a host cell recognizes that it is infected by a virus, that cell produced as interferon, a type of protein that warns nearby cells about the virus. Those neighboring cells react by preparing to shut down their biosynthetic activities if they too become infected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

By shutting down their biosynthetic activities, what are host cells doing to viruses.

A

The cells can deprive the virus of a mechanism to replicate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What happens in response to sensor signals that indicate a bacterial infection or tissue damage

A

Phagocytes are recruited to the site of invasion or damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Phagocytes

A

Cell type that specializes in engulfing and digesting microbes and cell debris

These cells specialize in engulfing and digesting microbes and cell debris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Phagocytosis

A

The process by which a phagocyte engulfs microbial invaders and debris.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are some of the roles phagocytes play

A
  1. Destroying invaders
  2. Serving as sentinel cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What makes it easier for phagocytes to engulf material

A

Certain activated complement system proteins recruit the phagocytic cells, and others bind to foreign material- an action that makes it easier for phagocytes to engulf the material.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Inflammatory response purpose

A

Coordinated innate response with the purpose of containing a site of damage, localizing the response, eliminating the invader and restoring tissue function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What occurs part of the inflammatory response

A

As part of the response, changes to local blood vessels allow fluids to leak out into tissues; those fluids contain complement system components and other proteins. In turn, those proteins and other signals attract phagocytic cells, which move from the bloodstream to the tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is another innate response

A

Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Fever

A

A higher than normal body temperature.

An increase in internal body temperature to 37.8 C or higher.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What does a fever interfere with

A

Fever interferes with the growth of some pathogens and can enhance the effectiveness of other responses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is a short summary of the defenses

A

First line defenses prevent microbes from entering tissues.

Sensor systems recognize invading microbes.

Innate effector actions eliminate the invader.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What do the body’s borders do

A

These borders separate the interior of the body from the surrounding environment

They are the initial obstacles microorganisms must overcome to invade tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are all exposed surfaces of the body line with

A

Epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How are the epithelial cells packed in the body

A

These cells are tightly packed together and rest on a thin layer of fibrous material, the basement membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the two general types of barriers

A
  1. Skin
  2. Mucous membranes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the most difficult barrier for microbes to penetrate

A

Skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the two main layers of the skim.

A
  1. Epidermis
  2. Dermis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Epidermis

A

The surface layer of skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the epidermis composed of

A

The epidermis is composed of many sheets of epithelial cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the outermost sheets of the epidermis made from

A

The outermost sheets are made up of flattened dead cells filled with a water repelling protein called keratin, resulting in a dry surface environment; those dead cells continually flake off, taking with them any microbes that might be adhering.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What does the dermis layer of the skin contain

A

The dermis contains tightly woven fibrous connective tissue, making it extremely tough and durable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What do the mucous membranes line

A

The mucous membranes line the digestive tract, respiratory tract and genitourinary tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the mucous membranes bathed in

A

They are constantly bathed with mucus or other secretions that help wash microbes from the surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What do the mucous membranes do

A

Most mucous membranes have mechanisms that move microbes toward areas where they can be eliminated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are examples of mucous membranes moving microbes toward areas where they can be eliminated

A
  1. Peristalsis
  2. Mucociliary escalator.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Peristalsis

A

The contractions of the intestinal tract propels food and liquid toward the anus and also helps remove microbes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How does the respiratory tract remove materials from the lungs

A

The respiratory tract is lined with ciliated cells; the hairlike cilia constantly beat in a synchronized manner, moving materials away from the lungs to the throat, where they can then be swallowed.

This movement is referred to as mucociliary escalator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Mucociliary escalator

A

Layer of mucus moved by cilia lining the respiratory tract that traps bacteria and other particles and moves them away from the lungs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the purpose of sweat on skin

A

The salty residue that accumulates on skin as perspiration (sweat) evaporates is inhibitory to all but salt tolerant microbes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are some antimicrobial substances

A
  1. Lysozyme
  2. Peroxidases
  3. Lactoferrin
  4. Antimicrobial peptides (AMPs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Lysozyme

A

This is an enzyme that degrades peptidoglycan of the bacterial cell wall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Where is lysozyme found

A

It is in tears, saliva, mucus.

It is also found in phagocytes cells, blood, and the fluid that bathes tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Peroxidases

A

Enzymes found in neutrophil granules, saliva, and milk that react with hydrogen peroxide to form antimicrobial compounds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Where are peroxidases found

A

Enzymes found in Neutrophil granules, saliva, and milk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What microorganisms are less susceptible to effects of peroxidases system

A

Microorganisms that produce the enzyme catalase are less susceptible to the lethal effects of peroxidase systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Why are microorganisms that produce the enzyme catalase less susceptible to the lethal effects of peroxidase systems

A

Microorganisms that produce the enzyme catalase are less susceptible to the lethal effects of peroxidase systems because they can potentially convert hydrogen peroxide to water and O2 before peroxidase systems have a chance to use it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Where is lactoferrin found

A

This is an iron binding protein in saliva, mucus, milk and some types of phagocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What do lactoferrins do

A

By binding to iron, these proteins make it unavailable to microorganisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is one of the major elements required by organisms

A

Iron is one of the major elements required by organisms, so withholding it prevents microbial growth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Transferrin

A

An iron binding protein found in blood and tissue fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What can some microorganisms do when the host captures iron

A

Some microorganisms can capture iron from the host, however, counteracting the iron withholding defense.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Antimicrobial peptides (AMPs)

A

These are short chains of amino acids (15-20 amino acids long) that have antimicrobial activity and are produced by a wide range of organisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

A group of positively charged AMPs are called

A

Defensins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Defensins

A

Short antimicrobial peptides produced naturally by a variety of eukaryotic cells to fight infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What do defensins do

A

Defensins insert into microbial membranes, forming pores that damage cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What types of cells produce defensins

A

Certain epithelial cells produce and release defensins.

Defensins are also produced by phagocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What do the defensins produced and released by certain epithelial cells do

A

Certain epithelial cells produce and release defensins , preventing the invasion of the skin and mucous membranes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

When would production of defensins increase

A

Production increases when microbial invasion is detected, thereby helping the body to eliminate the infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What do phagocytes do with the defensins they produce

A

Defensins are also produced by phagocytes, which use them to destroy the microorganisms, they have ingested.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What plays a role in regulating the expression of some AMPs

A

Vitamin D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Normal microbiota (flora)

A

Is the population of microorganisms that routinely grow on the body surfaces of healthy humans but do not usually cause disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

How do the normal microbiota provide protection

A

They prevent pathogens from adhering to host cells by covering binding sites that might otherwise be used for attachment.

The population also consumes available nutrients that could otherwise support the growth of less desirable organisms.

Some members of the normal microbiota produce compounds toxic to other bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is an example of normal microbiota producing substances toxic to other bacteria in hair

A

In the hair follicles of the skin, Cutibacterium species degrade lipids, releasing fatty acids that inhibit the growth of many pathogens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is an example of normal microbiota producing toxic substances to bacteria in GI tract

A

In the gastrointestinal tract, some strains of E.coli synthesize colicons, a group of proteins toxic to certain bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is an example of normal microbiota producing toxins to bacteria in genitals

A

Lactobacillus species growing in the vagina produce lactic acid as a fermentation end product, resulting in an acidic pH that inhibits the growth of some pathogens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

When can disruption of normal microbiota occur

A

Disruption of normal microbiota occur when antibiotics are used, which can predispose a person to various infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What can an inability to tolerate harmless microbes lead to

A

An inability to tolerate harmless microbes can result in chronic inflammatory conditions such as Crohn’s disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What does normal microbiota promote

A

Promotes immune system development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Hematopoiesis

A

The formation and development of blood cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Where do all blood cells, including those important in the body’s defenses, originate from

A

The hematopoietic stem cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Hematopoietic stem cell

A

Bone marrow cells that give rise to all blood cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What are some qualities of hematopoietic cells

A

They are capable of long term self renewal, meaning they can divide repeatedly.

They given rise to red blood cells, platelets and white blood cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Red blood cells or erythrocytes

A

Carry O2 in the blood .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Platelets

A

Fragments arising from large cells called megakaryocytes, are important for blood clotting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

White blood cells or leukocytes

A

Are important in all host defenses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What three groups can leukocytes be divided into:

A
  1. Granulocytes
  2. Mononuclear phagocytes
  3. Lymphocytes

Latter two groups are sometimes referred to as agranulocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Colony stimulating factors (CSFs)

A

A group of cytokines that direct the development of various types of blood cells from hematopoietic stem cells.

108
Q

Granulocytes

A

Are a group of leukocytes that contain cytoplasmic granules filled with various compounds important for the cells’ protective functions

109
Q

Degranulation

A

When Granulocytes release the granule contents, the process is degranulation.

110
Q

What are the three types of Granulocytes named based on

A

The three types of Granulocytes are named based on the staining properties of their granules.

111
Q

What are the three types of Granulocytes

A
  1. Neutrophils
  2. Eosinophils
  3. Basophils/ mast cells
112
Q

Neutrophils

A

These are phagocytes that have multiple mechanisms for destroying microbial invaders.

There granules contain many destructive enzymes and antimicrobial substances.

113
Q

What happens when a neutrophil engulfs microbes

A

When a neutrophil engulfs microbes, the granule contents then help destroy the microbes as part of the usual phagocytic process

114
Q

Other than phagocytosis what can neutrophils do in the presence of microbes

A

Neutrophils can also degranulate to kill nearby microbes, or they can behave like mobile grenades, bursting in an area of infection to release not only the contents of their granules, but also cellular DNA.

115
Q

Neutrophil extracellular trap (NET)

A

When neutrophils burst, releasing cellular DNA.

The DNA strands ensnare microbes so that they can be more easily destroyed by the granule contents.

116
Q

What are the most numerous and important Granulocytes of the innate responses

A

Neutrophils

117
Q

When do neutrophil populations increase

A

Their numbers typically increase during bacterial infections.

118
Q

What are neutrophils also known as

A

Polymorphonuclear leukocytes

119
Q

How do neutrophils stain

A

Their granules stain poorly

120
Q

Eosinophils

A

Type of white blood cell.

Thought to be primarily important in expelling parasitic worms from the body.

Also involved in allergic reactions, causing symptoms associated with allergies, but reducing others.

121
Q

What do the granules of eosinophils contain

A

Their granules contain various antimicrobial substances that can be released by degranulation.

122
Q

How do eosinophils stain

A

Their granules stain red with the acidic dye eosin.

123
Q

Basophils

A

Are involved in allergic reactions and inflammation.

124
Q

What do the granules of basophils contain

A

Their granules contain histamine and other chemicals involved with inflammation.

125
Q

How do basophils stain

A

Their granule stain dark purplish blue with the basic dye methylene blue.

126
Q

What happens when basophils granules are released

A

When released, the chemicals increase capillary permeability.

127
Q

What cells are similar in appearance and function to basophils

A

Mast cells

128
Q

Mast cells

A

Tissue cells

They are an important sentinel cell that detects tissue damage and degranulate in response, an action that induces inflammatory response.

129
Q

Mononuclear phagocytes are and include

A

Monocytes and macrophages

130
Q

Monocytes

A

Are mononuclear phagocytes of the blood.

They circulate in the bloodstream.

They can move into tissues, but as they do so they develop into macrophages and dendritic cells.

131
Q

What happens as monocytes move into tissues

A

Monocytes can move into tissues, but as they do so they develop into the macrophages and dendritic cells.

132
Q

Macrophages

A

An important type of phagocyte.

Type of phagocytic cell that resides in tissues and has multiple roles, including scavenging debris and producing pro inflammatory cytokines.

133
Q

What are the two names macrophages are referred to as

A
  1. Wandering macrophages
  2. Resident macrophages
134
Q

Wandering macrophages

A

Macrophages that move around in tissues

135
Q

Resident macrophages

A

Macrophages that live permanently in tissues

136
Q

Where do resident macrophages live in abundantly

A

Liver, spleen, lymph nodes, lungs and peritoneal (abdominal) cavity.

137
Q

What do macrophages do

A

In addition to phagocytosis, they are important type of sentinel cell, detecting tissue invaders and then alerting other components of the host defenses.

138
Q

Dendritic cells

A

Antigen presenting cells that play an essential role in the activation of naive T cells.

They engulf material in the tissues and then bring it to the cells of the adaptive immune system for inspection.

139
Q

Where do dendritic cells reside

A

Dendritic cells reside in the tissues where they function as scouts.

140
Q

What do dendritic cells do

A

An important sentinel cell

They engulf material in the tissues and then bring it to the cells of the adaptive immune system for inspection

141
Q

Where do dendritic cells develop from

A

Most dendritic cells develop from monocytes, but some develop from other cell types.

142
Q

What leukocytes are responsible for adaptive immunity

A

Lymphocytes

143
Q

Lymphocytes

A

A group of white blood cells involved in adaptive immunity

144
Q

What of the two major groups of lymphocytes are

A
  1. B cells
  2. T cells
145
Q

Where do B cells and T cells reside

A

These cells generally reside in lymph nodes and other lymphatic tissues

146
Q

Innate lymphoid cells (ILCs)

A

A group of lymphocytes that lack specificity in their mechanism of antigen recognition

147
Q

Where are ILCs commonly found

A

They are common near mucous membranes and appear to have multiple roles that can promote a balanced inflammatory response.

148
Q

What is one type of ILC

A

Natural killer (NK) cell

149
Q

Natural killer cells

A

Type of lymphocyte that induces apoptosis in cells to which antibody has bound or that lack MHC class 1 molecules on the surface and are stressed.

150
Q

Why do immune cells need to communicate with each other

A

Immune cells must communicate with each other in order to mount a coordinated response to microbial invasion.

151
Q

How do immune cells communicate with each other

A

They do this through surface receptors, cytokines, and adhesion molecules.

152
Q

Surface receptors

A

Eyes and ears of the cell.

Proteins in the membrane of a cell to which certain signal molecules bind; they allow the cell to sense and respond to external signals.

153
Q

Ligand

A

A molecule that specifically binds to a given receptor.

154
Q

What happens when a ligand binds to its surface receptor

A

When a ligand binds to its surface receptor, the internal part of the receptor is modified.

155
Q

Cytokines

A

Can be viewed as voices of a cell

They are proteins that function as chemical messengers, allowing cells involved in host defenses to communicate.

156
Q

Cytokines include:

A
  1. Chemokines
  2. Colony stimulating factors (CSFs)
  3. Interferons
  4. Interleukins (ILs)
  5. Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
157
Q

Chemokines

A

These are important in chemotaxis of immune cells.

158
Q

Colony stimulating factors (CSFs)

A

A group of cytokines that direct the development of various types of blood cells from hematopoietic stem cells.

They direct immature cells into the appropriate maturation pathways.

159
Q

Interferons (IFNs)

A

Cytokines that induce cells to resist viral replication; they also help regulate the immune response.

Are important in a number of regulatory mechanisms, stimulating the responses of some cells and inhibiting others.

160
Q

Interleukins (ILs)

A

Cytokines produced by leukocytes; they have diverse overlapping functions.

161
Q

Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)

A

A cytokines that plays an important role in the inflammatory response and other aspects of immunity.

162
Q

What does the tumor necrosis factor help initiate

A

It helps initiate the inflammatory response and it triggers one process of cell suicide a programmed cell death called apoptosis.

163
Q

Pro inflammatory cytokines

A

Any of a group of cytokines that contribute to the inflammatory response.

164
Q

Cytokine storm

A

A potentially deadly overproduction of cytokines during an immune response to infection.

165
Q

Adhesion molecules

A

Molecule on the surface of a cell of the body that allows that cell to adhere to other body cells.

166
Q

Why would cells use adhesion molecules

A

Cells use adhesion molecules to attach to other cells so that one cell can deliver cytokines or other molecules directly to another cell.

167
Q

Pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)

A

Are sensors that allow the body’s cells to see signs of microbial invasion.

Proteins on or in cells that recognize specific compounds unique to microbes or tissue damage, allowing the cells to sense the presence of invading microbes or damage.

168
Q

Microbe associated molecular patterns (MAMPs)

A

Molecules that characterize invading microbes.

169
Q

MAMPS are also called

A

PAMPS pathogen associated molecular patterns.

170
Q

Damage associated molecular patterns (DAMPs)

A

Molecules that characterize damaged tissues.

Molecules that indicate host cell damage

171
Q

What do PRRs help the body’s cells recognize

A

PRRs help the body’s cells recognize the general category of an infectious agent, thereby playing an important role in shaping the overall response to that agent.

172
Q

What are the three distinct locations of PRRs on or in cells

A
  1. The cell surface
  2. In endospores and phagosomes
  3. Free in the cytoplasm
173
Q

Why is it important that PRRs are located in different places

A

Because of these location, PRRs provide cells with information about not only which microbes are present but also whether the microbes are inside or outside a host cell.

174
Q

What are the most well characterized of these PRRs on the surface of cells are

A

Toll like receptors (TLRs)

175
Q

What do sentinel cells such as phagocytes and cells that line blood vessels and other sterile body sites have

A

PRRs anchored on their cell surface to detect invaders in the surrounding environment.

176
Q

Toll like receptors (TLRs)

A

A group of pattern recognition receptors located on the surface of cells and within endosomes.

177
Q

What do TLRs on the cell surface (anchored in the cytoplasmic membrane) detect

A

TLRs on the cell surface generally detect components of the outermost layers of microbial cells, including LPS, lipoproteins, and flagellin.

178
Q

Phagocytic cells have what kind of PRRs

A

Phagocytic cells have PRRs that allow them to inspect material ingested by the cell

179
Q

How to the PRRs in phagocytic cells allow them to inspect material ingested

A

Specific TLRs are anchored in phagosome and endosomal membranes, facing the lumen of the organelle. These TLRs typically recognize characteristics of nucleic acids that indicate a microbial origin.

180
Q

What are the several features that distinguish normal host nucleic acid from microbial nucleic acid

A

Certain nucleotide sequences are much more common in bacterial DNA than in normal host cell DNA .

The genome of RNA viruses is often double stranded during the viral replication cycle

181
Q

Example of cytoplasmic PRRs include

A
  1. Rig like receptors (RLRs)
  2. NOD like receptors (NLRs)
182
Q

Rig like receptors

A

These cytoplasmic proteins detect viral RNA and are found in most cell types.

They represent a very important early warning system for viral infections.

183
Q

NOD like receptors

A

These cytoplasmic proteins detect either microbial components or signs of cell damage; they are found in a variety of cell types but are particularly important in macrophages and dendritic cells.

184
Q

What happens when certain NLRs in macrophages and dendritic cells detect invasion

A

When certain NLRs in macrophages and dendritic cells detect invasion, they combine with other proteins in the cytoplasm to form a structure called an inflammasome.

185
Q

Inflammasome

A

Protein complex in macrophages that activates a potent pro inflammatory cytokine, thereby initiating an inflammatory response.

186
Q

What happens when a cells cytoplasmic PRRS detect viral RNA

A

The cell responds by synthesizing and secreting a type of interferon that diffuses to nearby cells and induces them to develop an antiviral state.

187
Q

How do IFNs diffuse to nearby cells

A

The IFN molecules attach to specific receptors on cells, causing the cells to express what can be viewed as in active suicide enzymes.

188
Q

What enzymes are part of the suicide enzymes

A

Inactive antiviral proteins

189
Q

How are Inactive antiviral proteins (iAVPs) activated

A

These iAVPs can be activated by viral dsRNA.

190
Q

How are Inactive antiviral proteins (iAVPs) activated

A

These iAVPs can be activated by viral dsRNA.

191
Q

What happens once iAVPs are activated

A

Once activated, the antiviral proteins (AVPs) degrade mRNA and stop protein synthesis, leading to apoptosis of that cell.

192
Q

A key feature of iAVPs

A

A key feature of this response if that the iAVPs are activated by long dsRNA, which is typically found only in virally infected cells.

193
Q

Complement system

A

Series of proteins in blood and tissue fluids that can be activated to help destroy and remove invading microbes.

194
Q

In what form are the proteins in the complement system produced

A

The proteins are produced in an inactive form, but certain signals that indicate the presence of microbial invaders start a reaction cascade that rapidly activates the system.

195
Q

How are each of the major complement system proteins labeled

A

The proteins are labeled with the letter C (for complement) along with a given number.

196
Q

What are the nine major proteins labeled

A

The nine major proteins, C1 through C9 were labeled in the order of their discovery and not the order in which they react.

197
Q

How are complement proteins that split into two fragments distinguished

A

When a complement protein is split into two fragments, those fragments are distinguished by adding a lowercase letter to each name.

For example, C3 splits into C3a and C3b.

198
Q

What are the three pathways complement system can be activated by

A
  1. Alternative pathway
  2. Lectin pathway
  3. Classical pathway
199
Q

Alternative pathway when is it triggered

A

The alternative pathway is triggered when C3b binds to foreign cell surfaces. That binding allows other complement proteins to the attach, eventually forming the C3 convertase.

200
Q

What role does C3b play in the alternative pathway

A

C3b is a product of complement activation yet it also triggers the alternative pathway.

201
Q

Why might C3b be a product and a trigger

A

This can occur because C3 is somewhat unstable, and at a low rate spontaneously splits even when the complement system has not been activated.

202
Q

Lectin pathway

A

Activation of the complement system via this pathway involves pattern recognition molecules called mannose binding lectins (MBLs).

203
Q

What do mannose binding lectins bind to in Lectin pathway

A

These bind to certain arrangements of mannose, a monosaccharide commonly found on the surface of bacteria and fungi.

204
Q

What happens when MBL attaches to a surface

A

Once an MBL attaches to a surface, it can interact with other complement system components to form a C3 convertase.

205
Q

Classical pathway

A

Complement system activation by this pathway requires antibodies.

206
Q

What activates classical pathway

A

When multiple antibody molecules bind to an antigen (forming an antigen antibody complex), they interact with the same complement system component involved with lectin pathway to form a C3 convertase.

207
Q

Activation of the complement system eventually leads to what three major protective outcomes

A
  1. Opsonization
  2. Inflammatory response
  3. Lysis of foreign cells
208
Q

When does the concentration of C3b increase substantially?

A

The C3b concentration increases substantially when the complement system is activated.

209
Q

What do C3b molecules bind to?

A

These molecules bind to microbial cells or other foreign particles.

210
Q

What are the two effects of C3b binding to microbial cells or other foreign particles?

A
  1. Continued complement activation via the alternative pathway
  2. Opsonization
211
Q

Opsonization

A

Coating of an object with molecules for which phagocytes have receptors, making it easier for phagocytosis to occur.

212
Q

Opsonins

A

Molecule such as the complement system component C3b and certain antibody classes that binds to invading particles, making it easier for phagocytes to engulf them.

213
Q

Activation of the Complement System lead to Inflammatory response, what happens?

A

The complement component C5a draw phagocytes to the area where the complement system has been activated.

C3a and C5a induce changes in the endothelial cells that line the blood vessels, contributing to the vessel leakiness associated with inflammation.

They also cause mast cells to degranulate, releasing various pro inflammatory cytokines and other chemicals that contribute to inflammation.

214
Q

Effect of complement system activation: Lysis of foreign cells

A

Complexes of complement system proteins spontaneously assemble in cell membranes, forming donut shaped structures called membrane attack complexes (MACs).

These create pores in the membrane, causing cells to lyse.

215
Q

What kind of cells do membrane attack complexes (MACs) damage?

A

MACs damage both the outer and cytoplasmic membranes of gram negative bacteria.

216
Q

Why is phagocytosis important medically?

A

Because most pathogens have evolved the ability to evade one or more of them.

217
Q

Six steps of phagocytosis

A
  1. Chemotaxis
  2. Recognition and attachment
  3. Engulfment
  4. Phagosome maturation and phagolysosome formation
  5. Destruction and digestion
  6. Exocytosis
218
Q

Chemotaxis step of phagocytosis:

A

Phagocytes are recruited to the site of infection or tissue damage by chemicals that act as chemoattractants.

219
Q

What chemicals act as chemoattractants in phagocytosis?

A
  • products of microorganisms
    -materials released by damaged tissue
    -chemokines
    -complement system component C5a
220
Q

Recognition and attachment step of phagocytosis:

A

Receptors on phagocytes bind invading microbes either directly or indirectly.

221
Q

Direct binding of phagocytes

A

Direct binding occurs when a phagocyte’s receptors bind mannose molecules on the microbe’s surface

222
Q

Indirect binding

A

Indirect binding happens when a phagocyte binds opsonins that have attached to the invader.

223
Q

Engulfment step of phagocytosis

A

Once phagocyte has attached to a particle, it sends out pseudopods that surround and engulf the material. This action beings the material into the cell, enclosed in a phagosome.

If phagocyte encounters an invader too large to engulf, it may release its toxic contents as a means of destroying it.

224
Q

Phagosome

A

Membrane bound vacuole that contains the material by a phagocyte.

225
Q

Phagosome maturation and phagolysosome formation

A

A phagosome matures to develop antimicrobial capabilities.

Mature stages are highly regulated and depend on type of material ingested.

Eventually, the mature phagosome fuses with enzyme filled lysosomes (and granules, in the case of neutrophils), forming a phagolysosome.

226
Q

Phagolysosome

A

Membrane bound vacuole generated when a phagosome fuses with lysosomes.

227
Q

Destruction and digestion step of phagocytosis

A

The many enzymes contributed by the lysosomes (or granules) degrade various bacterial cell components, including peptidoglycan.

Antimicrobial peptides damage the invader’s membranes, and lactoferrin limits microbial growth by binding iron.

Special pumps move protons into the phagolysosome, further lowering pH, and an enzyme converts O2 to toxic reactive oxygen species (ROS).

Another enzyme makes nitric oxide, which reacts with ROS to make more toxic compounds.

The net outcome of these actions is very toxic environment for any ingested microbes.

228
Q

Exocytosis step of phagocytosis

A

The phagolysosome releases undigested debris to the outside of the cell by fusing with the phagocyte’s cytoplasmic membrane.

229
Q

What do macrophages do?

A
  • Phagocytosize dead cells and debris
  • Destroy invaders and call in reinforcements when needed
230
Q

How do macrophages maintain their killing power?

A

By continually regenerating their lysosomes

231
Q

What happens as wandering macrophages die?

A

As wandering macrophages die, circulating monocytes leave the blood and migrate to the tissues replace them.

232
Q

When does monocyte migration increase?

A

Monocyte migration increases in response to invasion and tissue damage.

233
Q

Activated macrophages

A

Macrophages stimulated by cytokines to enlarge and become metabolically active, with greatly increased capability to kill and degrade intracellular organisms and materials.

234
Q

What happens when activated macrophages fail to destroy microbes

A

The phagocytes form giant cells.

235
Q

Giant cells

A

Very large cell with many nuclei, formed by the fusion of many macrophages during a chronic inflammatory response; found in granulomas.

236
Q

What cells make up granulomas

A

Macrophages

Giant cells

T cells

237
Q

Granulomas

A

Collections of lymphocytes and macrophages that accumulate in certain chronic infections;

an attempt by the body to wall off and contain persistent organisms and antigens.

Granulomas, which are part of the disease process in Tb and other illnesses, prevent the microbes from escaping to infect other cells.

238
Q

Inflammation

A

Set of signs and symptoms (swelling, heat, redness, and pain) that characterizes an innate immune response to infection or injury.

239
Q

What happens when mast cells detect tissue damage

A

When a mast cell detects tissue damage, it degranulates to release histamine and various inflammatory mediators.

240
Q

Inflammatory mediators

A

Chemicals such as histamine that trigger an inflammatory response when released from cells.

Many of the mediators released by mast cells induce changes in local blood vessels

241
Q

What happens when a macrophage detects microbial products

A

Its produces various pro inflammatory cytokines.

One of these tumor necrosis factor (TFN), induces the liver to synthesize acute phase proteins, a group of proteins that facilitate phagocytosis and complement activation.

242
Q

If blood vessels are injured, two enzymatic cascades are activated. What are they?

A
  1. Coagulation cascade, which results in blood clotting
  2. The other produces several molecules that increase blood vessel permeability.
243
Q

What does the inflammatory response involve?

A

The inflammatory response involves a series of events that result in dilation of small blood vessels, leakage of fluids from those vessels, and the migration of leukocytes out of the bloodstream and into the tissues.

244
Q

Two general changes that occur during inflammation:

A
  1. Vascular changes
  2. Cellular changes
245
Q

Vascular changes involved in inflammation:

A

The diameter of local blood vessels increases due to the action of histamine and other inflammatory mediators.

This results in greater blood flow to the area, causing heat and redness associated with inflammation. It also slows the blood flow in the capillaries.

Changes in the endothelial cells that line the capillaries create small gaps in the normally tight junctions between the cells, allowing more fluid to leak from blood vessels and into tissues.

246
Q

What is the protein rich fluid that leaks from blood vessels into the tissues during vascular changes associated with inflammation? What does this fluid contain?

A

This protein rich fluid, referred to as exudate, contains transferrin, complement system proteins, antibodies and other substances that help counteract invading microbes.

247
Q

What causes the swelling and pain associated with inflammation?

A

The accumulation of exudate in the tissues causes the swelling and pain associated with inflammation.

Pain also results from the direct effect of certain inflammatory mediators on sensory nerve endings.

248
Q

Cellular changes associated with inflammation

A

Some of the pro inflammatory cytokines cause endothelial cells of the local blood vessels to produce adhesion molecules that loosely “grab” phagocytes in the bloodstream.

The phagocytes normally flow rapidly through the vessels but slowly tumble to a halt as the adhesion molecules attach to them. The phagocytic cells themselves begin producing a different type of adhesion molecule that strengthens the attachment. Then, in response to various chemoattractants, the phagocytes leave the blood vessels and move into the surrounding tissues.

249
Q

What cells are first to arrive to site of infection

A

Neutrophils are the first to arrive at the site of infection and they actively phagocytize foreign material.

Monocytes (which mature into macrophages at the site of infection) and lymphocytes arrive later

250
Q

What do clotting factors in exudate do during inflammation

A

Clotting factors in the exudate initiate clotting reactions in the surrounding area, walling off the site of infection.

251
Q

What accumulates as the inflammatory process continues

A

Large quantities of dead neutrophils accumulate

252
Q

What makes up pus

A

Dead neutrophils, along with tissue debris.

253
Q

Abscess

A

A localized collection of pus within a tissue.

254
Q

Acute inflammation

A

Short term inflammatory response, characterized by an abundance of neutrophils.

255
Q

What happens as the infection is brought under control

A

Resolution of inflammation begins

Neutrophils stop entering the area, and macrophages clean up the damage by ingesting dead cells and debris.

As the area heals, new capillaries grow, destroyed tissues are replaces and scar tissue forms.

256
Q

Chronic inflammation

A

Long term inflammatory response, marked by the prevalence of macrophages, giant cells and granulomas.

257
Q

Damaging effects of inflammation

A

Some enzymes and toxic products contained within phagocytic cell are inevitably released, damaging tissues.

If process occurs in a delicate system, consequences can be severe.

258
Q

Apoptosis

A

A programmed cell death that does not trigger an inflammatory response.

259
Q

What are the cellular changes that occur during apoptosis

A
  1. The cell shape changes
  2. Enzymes cut the DNA
  3. Pieces of the cell bud off- shrinking the cell.
260
Q

Pyroptosis/ necroptosis

A

A type of programmed cell death that elicits an inflammatory response.

261
Q

What is the results of apoptosis, pyroptosis and necroptosis?

A

The outcome is the same: The infected cell is sacrificed so that it cannot play host to an invader and its death releases DAMPS and cytokines.

262
Q

How does a higher body temperature result?

A

A higher body temperature results when macrophages release pro inflammatory cytokines in response to microbial products.

263
Q

What does the rise in temperature do during infection?

A

The rise in temperature prevents microbes with lower optimum temperatures from growing, giving the immune system time to eliminate the microbes before they cause too much harm.

264
Q

Pyrogens

A

Fever inducing substances

265
Q

Androgenous pyrogens

A

Fever inducing substances the body makes

266
Q

Exogenous pyrogens

A

Microbial products that induce fever and are introduced from external sources.