Chapter 13 Flashcards
1
Q
- Which of the following statements regarding pharmacology is correct?
A) The selection and administration of most medications are based largely on anecdotal research.
B) The action of the human body in response to a particular medication is called pharmacology.
C) Evidence-based guidelines, while helpful, are not the primary factor that drives medication administration.
D) Despite the advanced science of pharmacology, adverse reactions are commonplace.
A
D) Despite the advanced science of pharmacology, adverse reactions are commonplace.
2
Q
2. Which of the following medications is derived from a plant source? A) Lithium B) Insulin C) Heparin D) Digoxin
A
D) Digoxin
3
Q
- A medication is used “off-label.” This means that it:
A) is used for a purpose not approved by the FDA, at doses different from the recommended doses, or by a route of administration not approved by the FDA.
B) has been determined to be safe by a physician, and is used to treat a patient’s illness before the medication has been approved by the FDA for any purpose.
C) is administered in clinical trials while the manufacturer conducts further research and before the FDA has approved the medication for use.
D) is administered in an extreme emergency situation, but only if initial clinical trials have determined that the medication will not cause harm to the patient.
A
A) is used for a purpose not approved by the FDA, at doses different from the recommended doses, or by a route of administration not approved by the FDA.
4
Q
4. A(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ medication typically includes a “stem” that links it to other medications in the same class. A) trade B) official C) brand D) generic
A
D) generic
5
Q
5. All of the following medications fall in the same classification, EXCEPT: A) captopril B) enalapril C) diazepam D) lisinopril
A
C) diazepam
6
Q
6. Metoprolol has the brand name \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which may be a subtle reference to lowering the blood pressure. A) Cordarone B) Lopressor C) Vasotec D) Norpramin
A
B) Lopressor
7
Q
7. Common components of a medication profile include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) pregnancy risk factors. B) the weight of the drug. C) potential incompatibility. D) mechanism of action.
A
B) the weight of the drug.
8
Q
- Medications that are manufactured synthetically:
A) do not use animal, mineral, or vegetable sources.
B) include insulin, digitalis, and thyroid medications.
C) are derived from certain plants and animal organs.
D) include calcium, iron, magnesium, and other minerals.
A
A) do not use animal, mineral, or vegetable sources.
9
Q
- The Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970:
A) regulated the import, manufacture, prescription, and sale of several nonnarcotic medications and cocaine, opium, and their derivatives.
B) was aimed at protecting the public from mislabeled, poisonous, or otherwise harmful food, medications, and alcoholic beverages.
C) increased the penalties for violation of the Harrison Narcotic Act, made the possession of heroin illegal, and outlawed the acquisition and transportation of marijuana.
D) was a legislative act dealing with narcotic and nonnarcotic medications that have a potential for abuse, and developed a drug classification system according to the abuse potential of the medications.
A
D) was a legislative act dealing with narcotic and nonnarcotic medications that have a potential for abuse, and developed a drug classification system according to the abuse potential of the medications.
10
Q
10. Unlike Schedule I drugs, Schedule II drugs have: A) accepted medical uses. B) a higher abuse potential. C) limited dependence potential. D) no accepted medical application.
A
A) accepted medical uses.
11
Q
- Compared to Schedule III drugs, Schedule IV drugs:
A) include medications such as Vicodin and have a high potential for psychological dependence.
B) have a moderate potential for physical dependence and include cough syrups that contain codeine.
C) may lead to severe addiction and include short-acting barbiturates, amphetamines, and opiates.
D) have a lower abuse potential and include medications such as diazepam (Valium) and lorazepam (Ativan).
A
D) have a lower abuse potential and include medications such as diazepam (Valium) and lorazepam (Ativan).
12
Q
12. All of the following are Schedule II substances, EXCEPT: A) Ritalin. B) fentanyl. C) cocaine. D) heroin.
A
D) heroin.
13
Q
- The generic name of a medication:
A) does not require FDA approval.
B) is proposed by the manufacturer.
C) is proprietary and cannot be reproduced.
D) contains a string of letters and numbers
A
B) is proposed by the manufacturer.
14
Q
- The paramedic must use caution when referencing a medication in an American Medical Association (AMA) publication because:
A) the AMA publication only lists medications that are in human clinical trials.
B) not every medication listed in the compendium has received FDA approval.
C) medications listed in an AMA publication are typically not for prehospital use.
D) all medications in an AMA publication are listed by their chemical name only.
A
B) not every medication listed in the compendium has received FDA approval.
15
Q
15. The United States Pharmacopeia (USP) recommended temperature range for MOST medications in the prehospital setting is: A) 40°F to 76°F. B) 45°F to 80°F. C) 55°F to 86°F. D) 60°F to 90°F.
A
C) 55°F to 86°F.
16
Q
- The paramedic should be MOST suspicious that a controlled substance has been tampered with if:
A) repeated doses of the same drug are administered and the patient experiences an adverse reaction.
B) an appropriate dose of the drug seems ineffective, especially when patient tolerance is unlikely.
C) the box that the drug is stored in is torn, even if the drug cartridge itself is structurally intact.
D) there are any stray markings on the drug cartridge or vial, even if the contents are not discolored.
A
B) an appropriate dose of the drug seems ineffective, especially when patient tolerance is unlikely.
17
Q
17. The action of the body in response to a medication is called: A) pharmacology. B) biotransformation. C) pharmacokinetics. D) pharmacodynamics.
A
C) pharmacokinetics.
18
Q
18. Newer medications are designed to target only specific receptor sites on certain cells in an attempt to: A) treat more than one condition. B) minimize the adverse effects. C) reduce their therapeutic effect. D) eliminate all side effects.
A
B) minimize the adverse effects.
19
Q
19. A medication that initiates or alters a cellular activity by attaching to receptor sites and prompting a cell response is said to be: A) synergistic. B) an agonist. C) an antagonist. D) a competitive binder.
A
B) an agonist.
20
Q
- The term affinity, as it applies to pharmacology, is MOST accurately defined as the:
A) ability of a medication to bind to a receptor.
B) process of a medication binding to a receptor.
C) blocking of a receptor site by a particular medication.
D) strength of the bond between a medication and its receptor.
A
A) ability of a medication to bind to a receptor.
21
Q
- A medication is called an antagonist if:
A) it has a higher affinity for the receptor site than the chemical mediator.
B) it stimulates a receptor site to cause the response that that receptor normally causes.
C) it attaches to a receptor site and produces an effect or series of effects.
D) the chemical mediator of a receptor has a higher affinity than the medication.
A
A) it has a higher affinity for the receptor site than the chemical mediator.
22
Q
22. The ability of a medication to initiate or alter cell activity in a therapeutic or desired manner is referred to as: A) potency. B) efficacy. C) affinity. D) the threshold level.
A
B) efficacy.
23
Q
23. Stimulation of alpha-1 receptors results in: A) insulin secretion. B) vasoconstriction. C) arterial dilation. D) glucagon secretion.
A
B) vasoconstriction.
24
Q
- Stimulation of beta-1 adrenergic receptors would produce all of the following effects, EXCEPT:
A) an increase in heart rate.
B) increased renin secretion.
C) increased cardiac electrical conduction.
D) decreased myocardial contractility.
A
D) decreased myocardial contractility.
25
```
25. In order to cause a negative inotropic effect on the heart, you would have to administer a(n):
A) beta-1 adrenergic antagonist.
B) alpha-2 adrenergic agonist.
C) beta-2 adrenergic agonist.
D) alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist.
```
A) beta-1 adrenergic antagonist.
26
26. Stimulation of beta-2 receptors will cause:
A) bronchoconstriction.
B) the airway diameter to dilate.
C) vasoconstriction and hypertension.
D) a decreased release of norepinephrine.
B) the airway diameter to dilate.
27
27. A medication that possesses a negative chronotropic effect will:
A) cause a decrease in the heart rate.
B) cause an increase in blood pressure.
C) decrease myocardial contractile force.
D) increase cardiac electrical conduction velocity.
A) cause a decrease in the heart rate.
28
```
28. When a medication alters the velocity of the conduction of electricity through the heart, it is said to have a(n) _____________ effect.
A) inotropic
B) dromotropic
C) chronotropic
D) alpha agonistic
```
B) dromotropic
29
```
29. Which adrenergic receptor, when stimulated, inhibits norepinephrine release?
A) Beta-1
B) Alpha-1
C) Alpha-2
D) Beta-2
```
C) Alpha-2
30
```
30. In order to relieve the bronchospasm associated with an acute asthma attack, the paramedic would give a(n):
A) alpha-1 agonist.
B) beta-2 agonist.
C) beta-1 agonist.
D) alpha-2 agonist.
```
B) beta-2 agonist.
31
31. Lipid-soluble medications require higher weight-based doses in elderly patients because:
A) there are fewer barriers to absorption in elderly patients.
B) elderly patients have a much faster basil metabolic rate.
C) elderly patients have a higher body fat percentage and fat distribution.
D) elderly patients have a higher overall percentage of body water.
C) elderly patients have a higher body fat percentage and fat distribution.
32
```
32. What term is used to describe a situation in which a patient experiences clinical effects from a medication that are opposite from the intended effects?
A) Side effect
B) Subtherapeutic effect
C) Idiosyncrasy
D) Paradoxical reaction
```
D) Paradoxical reaction
33
```
33. The ideal body weight for a woman who is 5 ft 5 in tall is:
A) 52 kg.
B) 57 kg.
C) 62 kg.
D) 66 kg.
```
B) 57 kg.
34
```
34. Patients with primary pulmonary hypertension may experience acute decompensation if they are given a:
A) salicylate.
B) vasopressor.
C) diuretic.
D) bronchodilator.
```
B) vasopressor.
35
```
35. Which of the following factors would be the LEAST likely to affect a patient's response to a medication?
A) Body temperature
B) Pregnancy
C) Past medical history
D) Age and weight
```
C) Past medical history
36
```
36. During a study, a patient experiences measurable clinical improvement or unexplained adverse effects after receiving a medication with no pharmacologic properties. This is referred to as:
A) an idiosyncrasy.
B) the placebo effect.
C) an untoward effect.
D) the therapeutic ratio.
```
B) the placebo effect.
37
37. A drug is assigned a pregnancy category “A” if:
A) there is evidence of fetal risk based on human experience, and the risk of using the drug in pregnant women clearly outweighs any possible benefit.
B) there is positive evidence of human fetal risk, but the benefits from use in pregnant women may be acceptable despite the documented risk.
C) studies in animals have revealed adverse effects on the fetus and there are no controlled studies in women, or studies in women and animals are not available.
D) controlled studies in women fail to demonstrate a risk to the fetus in the first trimester, there is no evidence of risk in later trimesters, and the possibility of fetal harm appears remote.
D) controlled studies in women fail to demonstrate a risk to the fetus in the first trimester, there is no evidence of risk in later trimesters, and the possibility of fetal harm appears remote.
38
```
38. If studies in animals or human beings have demonstrated fetal abnormalities, or if there is evidence of fetal risk based on human experience, a pregnancy category ___ is assigned to a medication.
A) B
B) C
C) D
D) X
```
D) X
39
39. A paramedic gives a woman with chronic pain an injection of sterile saline and tells her that it is a narcotic analgesic. The paramedic's action:
A) could result in criminal prosecution.
B) will likely be of therapeutic benefit.
C) is acceptable under the circumstances.
D) demonstrates compassion and empathy.
A) could result in criminal prosecution.
40
```
40. A drug that possesses the same desired clinical effect in several smaller doses as it does in a larger single dose has demonstrated:
A) an idiosyncratic reaction.
B) the placebo effect.
C) a cumulative action.
D) cross-tolerance.
```
C) a cumulative action.
41
```
41. An undesirable clinical change caused by a medication that causes some degree of harm or discomfort to the patient is called a(n):
A) side effect.
B) idiosyncrasy.
C) placebo effect.
D) adverse effect.
```
D) adverse effect.
42
```
42. Which of the following conditions would make a patient the MOST susceptible to an adverse effect from a medication?
A) Hypertension
B) Renal failure
C) Minor trauma
D) Chronic pain
```
B) Renal failure
43
43. Certain antibiotics and antiseizure medications are known to cause Stevens-Johnson syndrome, which is a:
A) severe, possibly fatal reaction that mimics a burn.
B) rare condition characterized by painful neck spasms.
C) condition in which the renal system acutely fails.
D) nonfatal reaction characterized by a diffuse rash.
A) severe, possibly fatal reaction that mimics a burn.
44
```
44. An abnormal susceptibility to a medication that is peculiar to an individual patient is called an:
A) untoward effect.
B) adverse reaction.
C) idiosyncratic reaction.
D) exaggerated therapeutic effect.
```
C) idiosyncratic reaction.
45
45. The therapeutic index of a medication is defined as the:
A) plasma level at which the medication begins to exert its effect.
B) period of time in which the medication is excreted from the body.
C) duration of therapeutic action for a given medication on the body.
D) difference between the median effective dose and the median toxic dose.
D) difference between the median effective dose and the median toxic dose.
46
46. A medication that has a narrow therapeutic index:
A) can be given, but not without close patient monitoring.
B) should not be given to patients over 50 years of age.
C) is safe to give because the chance of toxicity is remote.
D) should not be given because its effects are too harmful.
A) can be given, but not without close patient monitoring.
47
47. Patients who are genetically predisposed to an immune-mediated medication response:
A) typically have a history of more than one autoimmune disorder.
B) had an initial exposure and sensitization to a particular antigen.
C) should be given an antihistamine before receiving the medication.
D) will experience a minor reaction that is generally limited to hives.
B) had an initial exposure and sensitization to a particular antigen.
48
```
48. Which of the following medications MOST often causes an immune-mediated medication response?
A) Ibuprofen
B) Penicillin
C) Fentanyl
D) Atropine
```
B) Penicillin
49
```
49. Decreased efficacy or potency of a medication when taken repeatedly by a patient is called:
A) addiction.
B) immunity.
C) tolerance.
D) habituation.
```
C) tolerance.
50
50. Cross-tolerance to a medication occurs when:
A) the body's metabolism increases, resulting in a decreased concentration of the medication present near receptor sites.
B) repeated doses of a medication within a short time rapidly cause tolerance, which renders the medication ineffective.
C) repeated exposure to a medication causes an abnormal tolerance to the adverse or therapeutic effects of the medication.
D) repeated exposure to a medication within a particular class causes tolerance to other medications in the same class.
D) repeated exposure to a medication within a particular class causes tolerance to other medications in the same class.
51
```
51. A patient receives several doses of the same drug within a short period of time, after which point the medication does not relieve his symptoms. Which of the following has MOST likely occurred?
A) Tachyphylaxis
B) Cross-tolerance
C) Down-regulation
D) Dependence
```
A) Tachyphylaxis
52
```
52. The physical, emotional, or behavioral need for a medication in order to maintain a certain level of “normal” function is called:
A) withdrawal.
B) synergism.
C) dependence.
D) habituation.
```
C) dependence.
53
```
53. Which of the following factors would have the LEAST influence on the duration and effectiveness of a medication?
A) Dose administered
B) Patient's dietary habits
C) Route of administration
D) Patient's clinical status
```
B) Patient's dietary habits
54
```
54. The peak of a medication's effect depends on _____________, whereas the duration of effect depends on ______________.
A) distribution, absorption
B) absorption, metabolism
C) elimination, absorption
D) metabolism, distribution
```
B) absorption, metabolism
55
```
55. The percentage of an unchanged medication that reaches the systemic circulation is referred to as:
A) bioavailability.
B) drug interference.
C) peak plasma level.
D) pharmacodynamics.
```
A) bioavailability.
56
```
56. Medications administered by the ___________ route, by definition, have 100% bioavailability.
A) sublingual
B) intramuscular
C) endotracheal
D) intravenous
```
D) intravenous
57
```
57. Medication X is given to increase the effects of medication Y, which provides more relief than if medication Y were given alone. This is an example of:
A) synergism.
B) summation.
C) potentiation.
D) antagonism.
```
C) potentiation
58
```
58. A patient experiences profound sedation when an opioid, such as fentanyl, is given together with a benzodiazepine, such as midazolam. This is an example of:
A) synergism.
B) summation.
C) potentiation.
D) antagonism.
```
A) synergism.
59
59. Physiologic drug antagonism occurs when:
A) the action of one medication increases or decreases the ability of another medication to be absorbed by the body.
B) two medications, each producing opposite effects, are present simultaneously, resulting in minimal or no clinical changes.
C) the effect of one medication is enhanced by the presence of another medication, which does not have the ability to produce the same effect.
D) two medications, each producing identical effects, are present simultaneously, resulting in an enhanced physiologic response.
B) two medications, each producing opposite effects, are present simultaneously, resulting in minimal or no clinical changes.
60
```
60. A medication undergoes first-pass metabolism in the:
A) liver.
B) spleen.
C) stomach.
D) bone marrow.
```
A) liver.
61
61. First-pass metabolism of a medication occurs when:
A) a medication's effects are greatly enhanced by digestive enzymes in the stomach.
B) a medication's bioavailability is immediately reduced when it enters the bloodstream.
C) the bioavailability of a medication is reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation.
D) the liver increases a medication's effects before it reaches the systemic circulation.
C) the bioavailability of a medication is reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation.
62
62. Which of the following statements regarding the endotracheal route of medication administration is correct?
A) If a medication must be given via the endotracheal route, five times the standard IV dose should be given.
B) Evidence has shown that medications given via the endotracheal route quickly achieve a peak plasma level.
C) Medications given via the endotracheal route should be flushed with 20 to 30 mL of sterile water.
D) The endotracheal route is no longer considered a reliable method of medication administration.
D) The endotracheal route is no longer considered a reliable method of medication administration.
63
```
63. Which of the following medications can be administered via the intranasal route?
A) Atropine
B) Diazepam
C) Morphine
D) Naloxone
```
D) Naloxone
64
64. When the paramedic administers a medication via the IV route:
A) bioavailability of the medication is reduced by 50% as soon as it enters the systemic circulation.
B) he or she has the ability to titrate the medication carefully in a rapidly evolving clinical situation.
C) it is important for him or her to remember that the medication's onset of action is relatively slow.
D) first-pass metabolism significantly alters the medication's effects, thereby requiring frequent dosing.
B) he or she has the ability to titrate the medication carefully in a rapidly evolving clinical situation.
65
65. IO infusion rates are comparable to IV infusion rates:
A) when a pressure bag or mechanical infusion device is used.
B) only when the extremity with the IO needle inserted is elevated.
C) if the patient's systolic blood pressure is at least 100 mm Hg.
D) only if the IO needle is inserted in the proximal tibia.
A) when a pressure bag or mechanical infusion device is used.
66
```
66. All of the following are common sites for emergency IO cannulation, EXCEPT the:
A) proximal humerus.
B) iliac crest.
C) proximal tibia.
D) manubrium.
```
B) iliac crest.
67
67. Which of the following statements regarding the IM route of medication administration is correct?
A) Medications have a bioavailability of 75% to 100% following IM administration.
B) Any medication given by the IV route can be given by the IM route.
C) IM-administered medications are subject to first-pass metabolism in the liver.
D) Muscle perfusion has minimal effect on the absorption of IM-administered drugs.
A) Medications have a bioavailability of 75% to 100% following IM administration
68
68. Transdermal medication patches:
A) deliver a fluctuating dose of a medication over a relatively short period of time.
B) should never be removed by the paramedic, even if he or she is administering a drug of the same type.
C) may alter a patient's clinical presentation or interfere with medications administered by the paramedic.
D) are a reliable medication delivery route because they are unaffected by the patient's perfusion status.
C) may alter a patient's clinical presentation or interfere with medications administered by the paramedic.
69
69. Which of the following statements regarding the sublingual administration of nitroglycerin is correct?
A) Large doses of IV nitroglycerin are required to achieve the same effect as a single sublingual nitroglycerin dose
B) Sublingual nitroglycerin administration involves placing a tablet in between the patient's cheek and gum
C) Sublingual nitroglycerin has a delayed onset of action, but nearly a 100% bioavailability
D) Nitroglycerin given by the sublingual route has a rapid onset of action, but a low bioavailability
D) Nitroglycerin given by the sublingual route has a rapid onset of action, but a low bioavailability
70
```
70. Medications commonly administered via a nebulizer include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) albuterol.
B) lidocaine.
C) Xopenex.
D) Racemic epinephrine.
```
B) lidocaine.
71
71. The rectal route is preferred over the oral route for certain emergency medications because:
A) rectal medications are altered significantly by first-pass metabolism.
B) bioavailability of rectal medications does not exceed 50 percent.
C) the vasculature of the rectal mucosa allows for slow drug absorption.
D) rectal medications are usually not subject to first-pass metabolism.
D) rectal medications are usually not subject to first-pass metabolism.
72
```
72. In which of the following situations would the paramedic MOST likely administer a drug via the rectal route?
A) Seizure termination
B) Acute renal failure
C) Respiratory failure
D) Anaphylactic shock
```
A) Seizure termination
73
```
73. Which of the following structures contains epithelial cells that create a continuous barrier to medication absorption?
A) Liver
B) Urinary tract
C) Bone marrow
D) Vascular system
```
B) Urinary tract
74
```
74. The process that the cells of large medication molecules use to ingest intracellular fluids and their contents is called:
A) osmosis.
B) filtration.
C) pinocytosis.
D) phagocytosis.
```
C) pinocytosis.
75
75. Which of the following statements regarding plasma-protein binding is correct?
A) Plasma-protein binding is an irreversible process that decreases the amount of medication necessary for a desired clinical effect.
B) Plasma-protein binding releases medication as circulating levels of a particular medication begin to fall, leading to a longer duration of action.
C) If a patient has a safe level of a protein-bound medication, a second medication with a greater affinity greatly decreases the amount of the original medication.
D) As plasma protein levels decrease, the introduction of another protein-bound medication causes the concentration of the original medication to remain unchanged.
B) Plasma-protein binding releases medication as circulating levels of a particular medication begin to fall, leading to a longer duration of action.
76
```
76. As a medication undergoes biotransformation, it becomes a(n):
A) compound.
B) molecule.
C) electrolyte.
D) metabolite
```
D) metabolite
77
```
77. Most medication biotransformation occurs in the:
A) liver.
B) kidneys.
C) lungs.
D) GI tract.
```
A) liver.
78
```
78. The paramedic should suspect altered medication metabolism in a patient with:
A) hypertension.
B) acute pancreatitis.
C) chronic alcoholism.
D) chronic renal failure.
```
C) chronic alcoholism.
79
```
79. Patients with _________________ are at significant risk for toxic effects of medications or metabolic waste products in the body.
A) renal failure
B) diabetes mellitus
C) stomach cancer
D) heart failure
```
A) renal failure
80
80. Which of the following describes first-order elimination?
A) The more of a substance that is in the plasma, the less the body works to eliminate it.
B) The rate of elimination is directly influenced by the plasma levels of the substance.
C) A fixed amount of a substance is removed, regardless of the total amount in the body.
D) Biotransformation in the liver converts a substance to an active or inactive metabolite.
B) The rate of elimination is directly influenced by the plasma levels of the substance.
81
```
81. A patient takes 500 mg of a medication that has a half-life of 2 hours. How much medication will be in the patient's body after 6 hours?
A) 250 mg
B) 125 mg
C) 62.5 mg
D) 31.25 mg
```
C) 62.5 mg
82
82. The paramedic can avoid technical errors in medication administration by:
A) using a current, reliable medication reference source before administering the medication.
B) having a partner confirm the volume in a syringe or a weight-based medication calculation.
C) contacting medical control and confirming that the proposed dose is appropriate for the patient.
D) evaluating a patient for medication allergies or hypersensitivity before administering the medication.
B) having a partner confirm the volume in a syringe or a weight-based medication calculation.
83
83. Etomidate is a medication that:
A) chemically paralyzes a patient prior to intubation.
B) requires multiple doses to provide adequate sedation.
C) has a duration of action of approximately 45 minutes.
D) induces profound sedation following a single dose.
D) induces profound sedation following a single dose.
84
```
84. A(n) __________________ agent is used to increase the pH of the serum or urine?
A) antacid
B) alkalinizing
C) anticoagulant
D) antihistamine
```
B) alkalinizing
85
```
85. All of the following medications are used to reduce a patient's heart rate and blood pressure, EXCEPT:
A) lorazepam.
B) diltiazem.
C) metoprolol.
D) Tenormin.
```
A) lorazepam.
86
```
86. Which of the following medications possesses positive inotropic effects, allows the cellular uptake of glucose, and is used in the treatment of hyperkalemia?
A) Insulin
B) Osmitrol
C) Glucophage
D) Clopidogrel
```
A) Insulin
87
87. Which of the following statements regarding benzodiazepine medications is NOT correct?
A) Benzodiazepines have potent anxiolytic, antiseizure, and sedative properties.
B) A benzodiazepine may be used as the primary sedative for advanced airway care.
C) High doses of a benzodiazepine may be needed to maintain a patient's blood pressure.
D) Benzodiazepines are commonly used in the prehospital setting to terminate seizures
C) High doses of a benzodiazepine may be needed to maintain a patient's blood pressure.
88
88. If seizures occur following the administration of flumazenil (Romazicon):
A) an opiate medication should be given immediately because of its potent antiseizure properties.
B) the patient should receive half the normal dose of a benzodiazepine in order to control the seizure.
C) the paramedic should give naloxone immediately in order to reverse the effects of the flumazenil.
D) benzodiazepine medications will be minimally effective or ineffective in controlling the seizure.
D) benzodiazepine medications will be minimally effective or ineffective in controlling the seizure.
89
89. Neuromuscular blocking agents achieve chemical paralysis by:
A) agonizing muscarinic receptor sites and increasing acetylcholine production.
B) binding to nicotinic receptor sites on muscle cells and antagonizing acetylcholine.
C) inhibiting cerebellar activity, thereby decreasing voluntary muscle movement.
D) blocking the action of the sodium-potassium pump, causing muscle paralysis.
B) binding to nicotinic receptor sites on muscle cells and antagonizing acetylcholine.
90
```
90. Succinylcholine should not be used in patients with:
A) a closed head injury.
B) known hyperkalemia.
C) a rapid heart rate.
D) suspected hypokalemia.
```
B) known hyperkalemia
91
```
91. Unlike a nondepolarizing paralytic, a competitive depolarizing paralytic:
A) causes muscle fasciculations.
B) does not induce full paralysis.
C) causes profound sedation.
D) lowers serum potassium.
```
A) causes muscle fasciculations.
92
92. Which of the following statements regarding succinylcholine is correct?
A) It has a rapid onset of action and long duration of action.
B) It causes tachycardia, especially in small children.
C) It has a rapid onset of action and short duration of action.
D) It may induce or exacerbate existing hypokalemia.
C) It has a rapid onset of action and short duration of action.
93
93. Compared to succinylcholine, rocuronium:
A) has a rapid (30 to 60 seconds) onset of action and a relatively brief (3 to 8 minutes) duration of action.
B) binds with nicotinic receptors on muscles and causes a brief activation known as fasciculation.
C) has a rapid onset of action, a longer (up to 60 minutes) duration of action, and fewer adverse effects.
D) does not bind with nicotinic receptor sites on muscle cells and does not antagonize acetylcholine.
C) has a rapid onset of action, a longer (up to 60 minutes) duration of action, and fewer adverse effects.
94
94. The desired clinical effect after administering a beta-2 agonist medication is:
A) dilation of the systemic vasculature.
B) relaxation of bronchiole smooth muscle.
C) increased cardiac contractility
D) contraction of vascular smooth muscle.
B) relaxation of bronchiole smooth muscle.
95
```
95. Which of the following medications promotes the cellular uptake of potassium, making it a potential temporary treatment for hyperkalemia?
A) Terbutaline
B) Ipratropium
C) Levalbuterol
D) Albuterol
```
D) Albuterol
96
```
96. Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) causes bronchodilation by:
A) antagonizing muscarinic receptors.
B) agonizing nicotinic receptors.
C) agonizing beta-2 receptors.
D) antagonizing beta-2 receptors.
```
A) antagonizing muscarinic receptors.
97
97. Which of the following occurs during phase 1 of the cardiac cellular action potential?
A) Sodium influx decreases while potassium slowly exits the cell
B) Rapid influx of sodium ions through channels in the cardiac cell
C) Calcium enters the cell while potassium continues to leave the cell
D) Calcium movement ceases with continued outflow of potassium
A) Sodium influx decreases while potassium slowly exits the cell
98
```
98. Repolarization and myocardial contraction are occurring through phases:
A) 0 and 1.
B) 1 and 2.
C) 2 and 3.
D) 3 and 4.
```
C) 2 and 3.
99
```
99. What phases of the cardiac cellular action potential comprise the absolute refractory period?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 0 through 3
D) 0 through 4
```
C) 0 through 3
100
100. Lidocaine is an antidysrhythmic that works by:
A) antagonizing beta-adrenergic receptors in the myocardium.
B) blocking sodium channels in the Purkinje fibers and ventricle.
C) displacing calcium at certain receptor sites in the myocardium.
D) increasing the duration of phases 1, 2, and 3 of the cardiac cycle
B) blocking sodium channels in the Purkinje fibers and ventricle.
101
101. Beta blockers should be used with extreme caution in patients with reactive airway because:
A) beta-1 receptor antagonism will result in profound bronchoconstriction.
B) beta-2 receptors can potentially be antagonized, resulting in bronchospasm.
C) there are no beta-blockers that selectively target beta-1 receptors only.
D) they inhibit catecholamine release, potentially causing bronchoconstriction.
B) beta-2 receptors can potentially be antagonized, resulting in bronchospasm.
102
```
102. Toxic effects from beta blockers include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) hypotension.
B) bradycardia.
C) conduction delays.
D) tachycardia.
```
D) tachycardia.
103
```
103. Calcium chloride or calcium gluconate may mitigate hypotension or bradycardia following an overdose of:
A) diltiazem.
B) adenosine.
C) Cordarone.
D) metoprolol.
```
A) diltiazem.
104
```
104. What class of medication is typically used to control the heart rate in patients with atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter?
A) Sodium channel blocker
B) Potassium channel blocker
C) Beta-adrenergic blocker
D) Calcium channel blocker
```
C) Beta-adrenergic blocker
105
105. Which of the following statements regarding adenosine is correct?
A) Adenosine has a half-life of between 20 and 30 seconds and should be given slowly.
B) Adenosine increases conduction velocity and shortens the effective refractory period.
C) Adenosine is used to assess for P waves when slowing a supraventricular tachycardia.
D) Ventricular tachycardia is often terminated following the administration of adenosine.
C) Adenosine is used to assess for P waves when slowing a supraventricular tachycardia.
106
```
106. In general, alpha-adrenergic receptor antagonists:
A) decrease the heart rate.
B) lower the blood pressure.
C) are used for hypotension.
D) increase vascular resistance.
```
B) lower the blood pressure.
107
```
107. Patients who take alpha-blocking medications at home are frequently prone to:
A) postural hypotension.
B) hypertensive crisis.
C) narrow-angle glaucoma.
D) vagal-induced bradycardia.
```
A) postural hypotension.
108
108. Stimulation of alpha-2 receptors:
A) constricts the vascular smooth muscle.
B) suppresses the release of norepinephrine.
C) causes profound systemic hypertension.
D) increases the release of norepinephrine.
B) suppresses the release of norepinephrine.
109
109. ACE inhibitor medications lower blood pressure by:
A) selectively binding to alpha-1 and alpha-2 receptors.
B) blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
C) increasing cardiac afterload and reducing cardiac output.
D) blocking the release of angiotensin I from the renal system.
B) blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
110
110. Under normal conditions, the renin-angiotensin system functions by:
A) dilating the systemic vasculature and reducing cardiac afterload when arterial blood pressure increases.
B) stimulating alpha-1 receptors, thereby increasing the blood pressure in response to acute blood loss.
C) blocking alpha-2 receptors, thereby increasing the release of norepinephrine and raising blood pressure.
D) promoting vasoconstriction and fluid retention in response to hypotension or hypoperfusion.
D) promoting vasoconstriction and fluid retention in response to hypotension or hypoperfusion.
111
```
111. Patients taking ACE inhibitor medications commonly have:
A) immunosuppression.
B) thin and fragile skin.
C) a chronic, dry cough.
D) a reduced platelet count.
```
C) a chronic, dry cough.
112
```
112. The vagus nerve releases _________________, which acts on _________________ receptors.
A) acetylcholine, muscarinic-2
B) norepinephrine, alpha-1
C) epinephrine, beta-2
D) acetylcholinesterase, nicotinic
```
A) acetylcholine, muscarinic-2
113
```
113. Acetylcholinesterase is an enzyme that:
A) decreases the heart rate.
B) slows cardiac conduction.
C) breaks down acetylcholine.
D) promotes acetylcholine secretion.
```
C) breaks down acetylcholine.
114
114. Massive doses of atropine may be required when:
A) a patient strains to defecate and stimulates muscarinic-2 receptors.
B) acetylcholine increases dramatically due to acetylcholinesterase inhibition.
C) severe bradycardia is the result of a block in the cardiac conduction system.
D) a patient's heart rate significantly increases and lowers the cardiac output.
B) acetylcholine increases dramatically due to acetylcholinesterase inhibition.
115
```
115. Paradoxical bradycardia may occur if atropine is given:
A) too rapidly.
B) in doses greater than 2 mg.
C) for acetylcholinesterase inhibition.
D) in doses less than 0.1 mg.
```
D) in doses less than 0.1 mg.
116
```
116. All of the following are endogenous catecholamines, EXCEPT:
A) dopamine.
B) atropine.
C) epinephrine.
D) norepinephrine.
```
B) atropine.
117
117. Which of the following statements regarding sympathomimetic chemicals is correct?
A) They are not synthetically manufactured.
B) They block the release of acetylcholine.
C) They only stimulate alpha-1 receptors.
D) They are not found naturally in the body.
D) They are not found naturally in the body.
118
118. Catecholamines and sympathomimetic medications should be administered with caution because they:
A) can increase cardiac workload and myocardial oxygen demand.
B) have an average duration of action of between 24 and 48 hours.
C) are associated with paradoxical bradycardia in younger patients.
D) have a tendency to cause a significant decrease in cardiac output.
A) can increase cardiac workload and myocardial oxygen demand.
119
119. In contrast to epinephrine, norepinephrine:
A) specifically targets beta-1 receptors.
B) has minimal effect on blood pressure.
C) primarily stimulates alpha receptors.
D) stimulates beta-1 and beta-2 receptors.
C) primarily stimulates alpha receptors.
120
120. At 5 to 10 g/kg/min, dopamine:
A) activates beta-1 receptor sites, causing an increased heart rate and increased cardiac contractility.
B) activates dopaminergic receptor sites, causing renal and mesenteric artery vasodilation.
C) no longer activates dopaminergic receptor sites and predominately activates alpha-1 receptor sites.
D) has a negative chronotropic effect on the heart, but an increased inotropic effect.
A) activates beta-1 receptor sites, causing an increased heart rate and increased cardiac contractility.
121
```
121. Dopamine is commonly used in the prehospital setting as the primary medication for:
A) right-sided heart failure.
B) nonhypovolemic hypotension.
C) severe intracranial hemorrhage.
D) vagal-induced bradycardia.
```
B) nonhypovolemic hypotension.
122
```
122. At 15 g/kg/min, dopamine:
A) reduces cardiac contractility.
B) antagonizes alpha-1 receptors.
C) activates beta-2 receptor sites.
D) causes vigorous vasoconstriction
```
D) causes vigorous vasoconstriction
123
```
123. The primary physiologic effect of dobutamine is:
A) increased afterload.
B) increased inotropy.
C) profound vasoconstriction.
D) increased chronotropy.
```
B) increased inotropy.
124
```
124. Hypotension may occur following initiation of a dobutamine infusion because it:
A) is a direct vasodilator.
B) blocks alpha-1 receptors.
C) reduces cardiac afterload.
D) has negative inotropic effects.
```
C) reduces cardiac afterload.
125
125. Which of the following statements regarding vasopressin is correct?
A) Vasopressin is a naturally occurring hormone that is secreted in response to intravascular volume depletion.
B) In cardiac arrest, current guidelines recommend 20 to 40 units of vasopressin every 5 minutes.
C) Vasopressin reduces cardiac afterload, which may cause clinically significant hypotension.
D) Vasopressin is a useful medication for patients with right heart failure and peripheral edema.
A) Vasopressin is a naturally occurring hormone that is secreted in response to intravascular volume depletion.
126
126. The physiologic effects of nitroglycerin when given to patients with cardiac-related chest pain include:
A) increased myocardial oxygen consumption.
B) decreased preload and coronary vasodilation.
C) coronary vasoconstriction and increased preload.
D) increased afterload and peripheral vasodilation.
B) decreased preload and coronary vasodilation.
127
```
127. For which of the following conditions is sodium nitroprusside used?
A) Severe refractory hypotension
B) Vagal-induced bradycardia
C) Intracerebral hemorrhage
D) Unstable vascular aneurysm
```
D) Unstable vascular aneurysm
128
```
128. What type of medication is used to eliminate certain toxins from the body?
A) Inotrope
B) Diuretic
C) Vasopressor
D) Vasodilator
```
B) Diuretic
129
```
129. For which of the following conditions may a patient be prescribed furosemide?
A) Kidney dysfunction
B) Chronic dehydration
C) Low serum potassium
D) Reactive airway disease
```
A) Kidney dysfunction
130
```
130. In critical care settings, mannitol is used to:
A) manage hypothermia.
B) lower the blood pressure.
C) reduce cerebral edema.
D) treat anaphylaxis.
```
C) reduce cerebral edema.
131
```
131. If unmatched blood is administered in the prehospital setting, it will almost always be:
A) O, Rh-positive.
B) AB, Rh-negative.
C) O, Rh-negative.
D) AB, Rh-positive.
```
C) O, Rh-negative.
132
```
132. The preferred IV fluid for Y-site tubing administration during a blood product transfusion is:
A) normal saline.
B) 5% dextrose in water.
C) lactated Ringer's.
D) 0.45% sodium chloride.
```
A) normal saline.
133
```
133. A unit of packed red blood cells contains approximately _____ to _____ mL of concentrated red blood cells.
A) 125, 200
B) 225, 250
C) 250, 500
D) 500, 725
```
B) 225, 250
134
134. Which of the following statements regarding packed red blood cells (PRBCs) is correct?
A) For every 3 mL of whole blood that is lost, the patient should be given 1 to 2 mL of PRBCs.
B) PRBCs should not be given to patients with hemolysis, as this will cause a transfusion reaction.
C) In a patient with ongoing RBC loss, one unit of PRBCs will increase the hematocrit by about 5%.
D) In general, the rate of administration of PRBCs should be proportional to the rate of blood cell loss.
D) In general, the rate of administration of PRBCs should be proportional to the rate of blood cell loss.
135
```
135. Fresh frozen plasma is used to:
A) increase the hematocrit.
B) increase circulating volume.
C) replace red blood cells.
D) replace critical clotting factors.
```
D) replace critical clotting factors.
136
136. Which of the following statements regarding fresh frozen plasma (FFP) is correct?
A) FFP is the ideal volume expander for critically injured patients whose blood type is not known.
B) FFP is contraindicated in patients with warfarin (Coumadin) toxicity due to the risk of hemolysis.
C) FFP must be compatible with the recipient's blood type, but does not have to be Rh compatible.
D) FFP should not be administered to patients who require large volumes of other blood products.
C) FFP must be compatible with the recipient's blood type, but does not have to be Rh compatible.
137
```
137. The paramedic may be called upon to administer platelets to patients with:
A) thrombocytopenia.
B) hemolytic anemia.
C) a low hematocrit.
D) hypercoagulopathy.
```
A) thrombocytopenia.
138
138. What is the mechanism of action of anticoagulant medications?
A) They dissolve existing clots, thereby restoring distal blood flow.
B) They prevent new clot formation and the growth of existing clots.
C) They inhibit platelet aggregation during acute coronary syndrome.
D) They promote hemostasis in patients with pulmonary emboli.
B) They prevent new clot formation and the growth of existing clots.
139
139. When is aspirin indicated for the treatment of a stroke?
A) Within the first 15 minutes after the onset of symptoms
B) Only after an intracranial hemorrhage has been ruled out
C) Only if the patient is prescribed antiplatelet medications
D) Immediately upon arrival at the emergency department
B) Only after an intracranial hemorrhage has been ruled out
140
```
140. Which of the following is NOT an oral antiplatelet medication?
A) ReoPro
B) Plavix
C) Ticlid
D) Aspirin
```
A) ReoPro
141
```
141. Which of the following is an influencing factor regarding the administration of a fibrinolytic drug to a patient experiencing an acute myocardial infarction?
A) Quality of the chest pain
B) History of unstable angina
C) Time of symptom onset
D) Concurrent use of aspirin
```
C) Time of symptom onset
142
```
142. Which of the following medications actually dissolves a clot?
A) Plavix
B) Aggrastat
C) Warfarin
D) Activase
```
D) Activase
143
```
143. Narcotic analgesics relieve pain by:
A) blocking opioid receptors.
B) suppressing adrenergic function.
C) stimulating opioid receptors.
D) blocking neuromuscular activity.
```
C) stimulating opioid receptors.
144
144. Patients who receive opioid substances on a long-term basis:
A) are less likely to develop cross-tolerance than a non-opioid user.
B) often need higher doses of an opioid medication for pain relief.
C) are less likely to experience severe nervous system depression.
D) typically respond to lower doses of an opioid medication.
B) often need higher doses of an opioid medication for pain relief.
145
```
145. In up to one third of all patients, morphine sulfate causes:
A) nausea and vomiting.
B) severe hypotension.
C) complete heart block.
D) a reflex tachycardia.
```
A) nausea and vomiting.
146
146. Fentanyl (Sublimaze) is the preferred opioid analgesic for patients in critical or unstable condition because:
A) its effects last much longer than any other opioid.
B) it is not as prone to causing hypotension as morphine.
C) it only requires one small dose to achieve analgesia.
D) it hyperstimulates mu () opioid receptor sites.
B) it is not as prone to causing hypotension as morphine.
147
147. When administering naloxone to a patient who overdosed on an opioid, it is important for the paramedic to remember that:
A) small doses of naloxone often cause severe withdrawal symptoms in long-term opioid users.
B) complete reversal of the opioid is essential if the patient receives opioids on a long-term basis.
C) an IV infusion of naloxone should be used for patients who are addicted to opioids.
D) the duration of action of naloxone in the body is less than that of many opioid chemicals.
D) the duration of action of naloxone in the body is less than that of many opioid chemicals.
148
```
148. What type of medication is used to decrease gastric acid secretion?
A) Histamine-1 receptor antagonist
B) Alpha-2 receptor antagonist
C) Histamine-2 receptor antagonist
D) Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor
```
C) Histamine-2 receptor antagonist
149
149. Phenothiazine medications exert their antiemetic properties by:
A) promoting the secretion of hormones in the brain that depress the function of the medulla oblongata.
B) antagonizing dopaminergic receptor sites in the brain, which suppresses the function of the hypothalamus.
C) blocking histamine-2 receptors, which inhibits gastric acid production and slows peristalsis.
D) activating dopaminergic receptors in the brain and releasing hormones that depress the reticular activating system.
D) activating dopaminergic receptors in the brain and releasing hormones that depress the reticular activating system.
150
150. The paramedic should administer promethazine (Phenergan) by:
A) diluting it in 20 mL of normal saline and giving it over 1 to 2 minutes.
B) rapid IV push undiluted, as this will minimize the risk of vascular injury.
C) mixing it with 25 mg of diphenhydramine in order to prevent dystonia.
D) diluting it in 50 to 100 mL of normal saline and giving it over 30 minutes.
A) diluting it in 20 mL of normal saline and giving it over 1 to 2 minutes.
151
```
151. All of the following medications possess antiemetic properties, EXCEPT:
A) ondansetron.
B) dolasetron.
C) famotidine.
D) prochlorperazine.
```
C) famotidine.
152
```
152. IV calcium is routinely used to treat:
A) cardiopulmonary arrest.
B) magnesium sulfate toxicity.
C) sulfuric acid exposure.
D) beta-blocker overdose.
```
B) magnesium sulfate toxicity.
153
153. Glucagon is used in the treatment of beta-blocker overdose because it:
A) causes vasoconstriction and increases blood pressure.
B) produces positive inotropic and chronotropic effects.
C) activates beta-1 receptors and increases the heart rate.
D) blocks alpha-2 receptors and increases blood pressure.
B) produces positive inotropic and chronotropic effects.
154
```
154. What classification of medication is ketorolac (Toradol)?
A) Opioid analgesic
B) Corticosteroid anti-inflammatory
C) Histamine-1 receptor antagonist
D) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory
```
D) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory
155
```
155. Which of the following medications is used to provide cardiac cell membrane stabilization following tricyclic antidepressant overdose?
A) Sodium bicarbonate
B) Magnesium sulfate
C) Diphenhydramine
D) Calcium chloride
```
A) Sodium bicarbonate
