Chapter 13 Flashcards

1
Q

Forward contract and where traded

A

Contract that means buyer agrees to buy an underlying asset from the seller at a future date for a pre specified price and they are traded OTC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Futures contract

A

Same as a forward contract but traded on an exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Characteristic of futures contact

A

Highly liquid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Swap?

A

Essentially a series of future contracts

Agreement between parties to exchange a series of cash flows in the future

Traded otc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Swap

A

Essentially a series of futures contracts

Agreement to exchange a series of cash flows

Exchanged OTC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Option

A

Is a contingent claims contract in which payoff occurs if a specific event occurs. Give one party the right to buy or sell an asset at a specified price on some future date or period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where are otptions traded

A

Either otc or on the exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the most an option buyer can lose

A

The price they have paid for the option

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the main organised exchange for trading futures in Uk

A

ICE Futures EUrope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the clearing house

A

Ensures credibility and liquidity of the exchange traded derivative market

Formal counterparty of both parties on the contract

Guarantee fulfilment of the contract and keeps parties anonymous so they not exposed to credit risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Explain the role of credit risk for the clearing house

A

Ensure that parties in contract are unaware of each others identity and their credit risk

But the clearing house is exposed to the credit risk of the buyer and seller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How does clearing house minimise credit risk

A

Traders have to deposit money with the house to cover the maximum likely daily loss arising from futures contacts. Known as initial margin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What happens with traders at end of the trading day if there’s been adverse futures market movement

A

Clearing house will generally seek additional payment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What happens with traders at end of the trading day if there’s been adverse futures market movement

A

Clearing house will generally seek additional payment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is variation margins

A

Rise in futures prices, the payment is made from contract sellers to contract holders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the initial margin used for

A

Collateral if the the loser cannot pay so clearing house doesn’t lose out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Bilateral margin requiremts

A

Introduced for uncleared derivatives with the intention to increase transparency and market resilience

Involves exchange of financial instruments to acts as collateral in the event obligations can’t be honored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Characteristic of OTC contracts

A

No clearing house involved so no margins
Exposed to credit risk of counterparty
More flexible making slightly more expensive
Riskier in term so liquidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What cme clear port

A

Clearing service for the otc market in order to mitigate risk in energy market place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What cme clear port

A

Clearing service for the otc market in order to mitigate risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

CCP?

A

Clearing house

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CCP?

A

Clearing house

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the defence of ccp

A

Measuring and managing amount of capital required to protect from member default

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the defence of ccp

A

Measuring and managing amount of capital required to protect from member default

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What happens if collateral is not enough to pay with ccp

A

Ccp make up the short fall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What happens if collateral is not enough to pay with ccp

A

Ccp make up the short fall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What’s is the ISDA SIMM

A

ISDA standard initial margin model

Standard method for calculating initial margin as required by regulators around the world on non cleared derivatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

New margins rules and limitations

A

Under non cleared derivatives, entities need to exchange initial margin

Delays on trade can occur if margin not agreed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

CCP waterfall;

A

Default fund from own resources and also resources from member s
Assess members
Capital of CCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Basis formula

A

Spot price - futures price

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Basis formula

A

Spot price - futures price

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When futures prices is greater than spot price, what is it called

A

Contango

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When spot price is greater than futures price, called?

A

Backwardation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When does backwardation occur

A

When the convenience yield is higher than the prevailing risk free

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is convenience yield

A

The benefit associated with holding the underlying product or physical good rather than derivative contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the convenience yield directly related to

A

Cost of storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the price of futures contract at expiry

A

Is equal to the price of the underlying due to arbitrage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How do you close out a futures position

A

Buyer of futures contract takes out a short futures contract (same asset and same maturity date) to cancel their obligation to the exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are futures common,y used for

A

Short term speculation and hedging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Advantages in purchasing futures over the actual asset

A

Lower transaction costs
More liquid
Quicker trading
Easier to take short positions
Allow greater exposure without 100 asset outlay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Financial futures traded on ICE futures Europe fall into 3 categories

A

Short term interest rate
Gov bonds
Equity index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are interest rate futures priced at

A

100 minus the rate of interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

If an investor believes short term interest rates will fall

In terms of futures contracts

A

Then they will go long on the short term sterling futures contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the nominal value of each short term interest future contract

A

500k

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Value of a basis point for a nominal short term interest contract and what I the basis point for a 3 month contract

A

£50

£12.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Value of a basis point for a nominal short term interest contract and what I the basis point for a 3 month contract

A

£50

£12.t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are long bond futures written on

A

Government bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are long bond futures written on

A

Gov bonds in same currency as issuing gov

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What happens on day of delivery for long bond futures

A

Take delivery of pre specified range of gov bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How does the price of a long bond futures contract behave

A

Behaves as if it were written on the cheapest to deliver bond (CTD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What would a bond PM do if they believe long p term uk interest rates will go up

A

This would reduce the price of gilts they held so they would sell long gilt futures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the contract value of one long gilt futures contract

A

100,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the tick value of a long gilt futures contract

A

0.01 x 0.01x 100,000 = £10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Formula for a gain in the long bond futures market

A

(Price of contracts sold - price of contracts bought) x 100 x number of contracts x tick value of contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Feature of equity index futures

A

Cash settled so no delivery of shares on delivery date

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the value of a tick

A

5 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Why do people like equity index futures

A

Investor can achieve higher returns than that of the chnage in underlying cash market

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What can an investor do to hedge risk of adverse market movements

A

Selling stock market futures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

European vs American style option

A

European can only be action on pre specified date

American can exercise option anytime before maturity date. More expensive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Max maturity of stock option and how often created

A

9months

Every 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Asian options

A

Payoff depends on the average price of the underlying over a given period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Bermudian options

A

Hybrids of European and American, only be determined on predetermined dates, ie first BD of each month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Price paid for an option is called

A

Option premium

64
Q

What does the option premium comprise of

A

Intrinsic value and time value

65
Q

What is intrinsic value if exercise price is £1 and current price is £0.9

A

Intrinsic value of stock is zero bc investor would not exercise option and just buy of the exchange as it is cheaper that way

66
Q

When is call option in the money

A

Price of the asset is above the exercise price

67
Q

When is put option in the money

A

When the current price below the exercise price

68
Q

Blacksholes

5 variables required for it

A

Strike price
Current price
Time to maturity
Volatility of underlying
Risk free rate

69
Q

How does maturity affect price of options

A

Higher charge (premiums) - higher the prob that option is in the money

70
Q

How does vol affect option price

A

Increase price as more likely to end up in the money

71
Q

What happens to call options price when I rates rise and why

A

Cost of borrowing to buy an investment rises so more attractive to buy the option than the actual stock, so call option premium rises

72
Q

Option delta

A

Sensitivity to change in price of option when price of underlying changes

73
Q

If share price increase by 10 and option price increases by 3, what is the delta

A

Delta is 3/10 = 0.3

74
Q

What does theta mean

A

Sensitivity of option price with time

75
Q

What does vega mean

A

Sensitivity of option price with vol of underlying

76
Q

What does rho mean

A

Sensitivity of option price with respect to I rates

77
Q

What is max loss and win for long call option, what is break even and what is motivation for call option

A

Max loss is premium paid
Max win is unlimited
Break even is when share price of underlying = strike price plus premium
Motivation is bullish

78
Q

What is max profit, max loss, break even and motivation for short call option

A

Max profit is premium earned
Max loss in unlimited
Break even is when share price is strike price plus premium
Motivation is bearish

79
Q

What is max profit, max loss, break even and motivation for long put option

A

Max loss is premium
Max gain is when underlying value at zero, so max win is strike price minus premium
Break even is strike price - break even
Motivation bearish

80
Q

What is max profit, max loss, break even and motivation for short put option

A

Max gain is premium
Max loss is strike price minus premium (when underlying is valued at zero)
Break even is strike minus premium
Motivation for trade is bullish

81
Q

What is. A long straddle and what is shape

A

Buy a put and call option on the same underlying with same strike price and maturity

Shape of graph is a V

82
Q

What is max profit, max loss, break even and motivation for a long straddle

A

Max loss is premium ( call premium plus put premium)
Max gain unlimited
Break even is strike price +-premium
Motivation is volatile markets

83
Q

What is max profit, max loss, break even and motivation for short straddle

A

Max win is premium son call plus put
Max loss is unlimited
Break even is strike plus minus premium
Motivation is static markets

84
Q

Long strangle? Shape?

A

A long put and call option with same expiry date but different strike prices

\__/

85
Q

Max profit , max loss, break even and motivation for long strangle

A

Max loss is value of both premium combined
Max gains unlimited
Break even is call strike plus combined premium, put strike minus combined premium
Motivation
More volatile markets than long straddle motivation (cheaper than long straddle)

86
Q

Short strangle - max gain , loss break even and motivation

A

Max gain is the combined premiums
Max loss unlimited
Break even is call strike plus premium, put strike minus premium
Motivation - stable market with but less stable than a motivation for short straddle

87
Q

Covered call strategy ?

A

Investor sells a call option whilst also holding the underlying

88
Q

Covered call limitation

A

Max profit is reduced by covering

89
Q

Protective put ?

A

Combines the long position in an asset with a long position in the put

90
Q

What does protective put do

A

Gives full protection on the downside

91
Q

How are Stock index options settled

A

Cash settled bc transferring all the stocks in an index would be impractical

92
Q

For stock index options, how is each point on index valued

93
Q

How could you hedge a portfolio with a long cash position

A

Short futures position

94
Q

Formula to for number of contracts to fully hedge

A

N = (face value of cash exposure/face value of futures contract) x beta

Beta from CAPM

95
Q

What is a good indication for the terminal value of the fund

A

Fund is well diversified

Capm beta of portfolio is relevant and does not change

96
Q

Hedge efficiency equation

A

(Absolute gain or loss from futures position/ absolute gain or loss from cash market) x 100

97
Q

What does a hedge efficiency of above and below 100% mean

A

Over 100= hedge was very effective.

Less than 100 = would have gained more by not entering the hedge

98
Q

What is the terminal of portfolio formula

A

Initial value of portfolio x [1+[(pf-ps)/ps]beta]

Pf is the price of futures contract
Ps is spot price of underlying
Beta is the capm beta

99
Q

Credit derivatives divided into two categories

A

Unfunded credit derivative - settlement of contract is without recourse to other assets

Funded credit derivative - the protection seller making an initial payment that is used to settle any potential credit event

100
Q

What is a CDS

A

They want someone else to take risk of default

So they pay premium to CDS holder, if the bond has not defaulted then the seller of CDS keeps the premiums and has nothing to pay

101
Q

What happens if underlying defaults in CDS

A

Buyer of the CDS (who is the owner of the underlying that has defaulted) hands over the bond in return for its face value

102
Q

How is premium or spread quoted on CDS

A

As basis points and will be related to the bond issuers yield over the risk free rate

103
Q

When does the buyer of the CDS pay the seller an upfront premium

A

PV of protection lag is greater than PV of premium lag

104
Q

How are CDs quoted

A

Points upfront = percentage of notional paid upfront for protection

Price = if it costs 3 points for protection, the price will be 97

105
Q

Examples of unfunded credit defaults

A

CDs
Total return swap
Contacts maturity swap

106
Q

What do CDs comprise of

A

Single entity -most common

Basket of entities - if any one of the entities defaults, counts as a credit event

Credit default index swaps - portfolio of single entities, if one defaults then notional reduced by amount of defaulted entity

First loss and tranche loss CDS

107
Q

What are total return swaps

A

Way of transferring total economic exposure including credit and market risk of an underlying asset

108
Q

Constant maturity defaults swaps

A

Premiums paid for protection are not fixed but a floating spread using a traded CDs as reference index

109
Q

Examples of funded credit derivative

A

credit linked notes and synthetic CDOs

110
Q

CDOs ?

A

Package it up a collection of revenue generating assets (bank loans) and issuing a bond backed by these assets

Sliced into different tranches of varying credit risk

111
Q

What is a synthetic cdo

A

A cdo made up of credit derivatives

112
Q

Credit default notes / credit linked notes

A

Floating or fixed rate notes where coupons/principle are referenced to a basket of credits

If credit events occurred, income streams affected/reduced

113
Q

Examples of credit events

A

Bankruptcy of entity
Default on obligation
Failure to pay in relation to obligation
Restructuring of an obligation

114
Q

Who decides what a credit event is

A

ISDA committee

International swaps and derivatives association

115
Q

Pricing of CDS determinants

A

Default probability
The recovery amount

116
Q

How do CDs add to financial instability

A

Firm increase risk as they can use CDs to hedge
Derivatives mean people take speculative positions
Increase leverage possibilities

117
Q

Stock lending and what happens with them

A

Securities temporarily transferred from one party (the lender) to another (the borrower)

Stocks returned at the end of agreement or on demand

118
Q

What happens with dividends for someone who lends stocks

A

In lending agreement, borrower made to pay lender the benefits

119
Q

Why do people borrow

A

To cover short positions usually

120
Q

Who stock lends

A

Stocks held passively so can earn additional income from them

Pensions funds
Insuanrance funds

121
Q

What are the fees for lending ftse and in general

A

Around 200bps for ftse 100

But usually around 40 bps

All per annum

122
Q

Bps per annum for gilt lending

123
Q

What was a short selling rule abolished in 2007 and modified in 2010

A

Only short sell after an uptick in market price

124
Q

Short squeeze?

A

When stocks has a lot of short sellers but Unexpected good news that drives stock price up

125
Q

What happens when investors have to liquidate short positions

A

They increase the price of stock further as they all have to buy the stock back driving the price higher

126
Q

Contracts for difference ?

A

Agreement between two parties to exchange the difference between opening price and closing price of the contract multiplied by some size of contract

127
Q

What are equity index futures and what are they designed to replicate

A

They are a CFD (contract for difference)

Replicate economic performance of the conventional share investments

Get benefits from owning stock without owning it

128
Q

Why are CFDs liked

A

Easily go long and short in more cost effective way

129
Q

4 types of swaps CFDs

A

Equity, interest rate, currency, inflation

130
Q

Equity swap

A

One party agrees to pay to another the return on some specified underlying equity over a specified period of time

Usually exchanged for a fixed rate of return

131
Q

Why do investment manager who holds equity do with equity swaps

A

Reduce equity exposure while still holding equity

Or to increase quite exposure without the actual trading of equities, cost effective

132
Q

Interest rate swaps

A

Involve the swapping of floating and fixed rate interest payments

Net periodic settlement between two parties of a fixed rate and floating rate

133
Q

What swap would investor do if rates rise

A

Pay the fixed and receive the floating

134
Q

What do swaps not involve

A

Initial outlay

135
Q

Currency swap

A

Where foreign currency is involved in cash flows

Eg fixed rate in one country is swapped for fixed rate in another currency

136
Q

What sometimes occurs with currency swaps

A

Principle paid at outset

137
Q

Motivation of currency swap

A

Exploit comparative advantage - better financing rate in foreign currency

138
Q

Inflation swaps and examples

A

Transfer inflation risk between parties

TIPS AND and UK inflation linked gilts ILG

139
Q

What do inflations swaps use as swaps

A

Real rate coupon vs floating and also pay redemption fee at maturity

One a party pays compounded fixed rate, the other party pays actual inflation rate for the term

140
Q

What are real rate swaps

A

Nominal interest rate swap minus the corresponding inflation swap

141
Q

Convert corporate Bond

A

Allows investors to convert holding debt. Into pre specified amount of equity on or before a specific date

142
Q

Why do firms like convertible bonds

A

Can issue the, at lower rate due to the potential upside of turning into equity

143
Q

Conversion price formula

A

Par value of convertible / conversion ratio

144
Q

Conversion value formula

A

Current share price x conversion ratio

145
Q

Price of convert

A

Pb + (Ac / 1+q) xCR

CR is conversion ratio
Pb is current similar bond price
Ac price of call option with same price and maturity
Q is percentage change in shares when bonds are converted

146
Q

Conversion premium

A

Price of convertible security exceeds that of the current market price of stock into which it may be converted

147
Q

Equity warrants

A

Are call options issued by a firm on its own stock

Owner of warrant has the right to buy stock at a certain price

148
Q

Typical maturity of equity warrants

149
Q

Benefits of holding warrant

A

Voting right s

Dividend payments

150
Q

Value of warrants

Not formula

A

Intrinsic value known as the formula value

Time value known as the premium

151
Q

What is the formula value of warrant when it is out the money, and when in the money

A

0 = out the money

Spot price minus exercise price when in the money

152
Q

Formula value equation intrinsic

A

(Current stock price - exercise price) x NO shares warrant creates

153
Q

Premium equation for warrant

A

(Warrant price - formula value) / (NO new shares issued if warrant exercised x stock price)

154
Q

Covered warrants

A

Gives the investors the rights to buy (calls ) or sell (puts ) on an asset at a pre specified price in time period

155
Q

How are covered warrants differ to traded options

A

They are securitised derivative and listed on LSE

156
Q

Defensive strategy if investor scared price may fall (warrant)

A

Buy a put warrant

157
Q

What is the relationship between futures prices and interest rates

A

When interest rates fall, the prices of futures contracts generally rise