chapter 13 Flashcards

1
Q

What is disease?

A
  • a disorder of structure or function leading to signs and symptoms
  • a deviation from a normal state of health
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2
Q

What causes disease?

A
  • Genetic
  • Environmental
  • Microbial
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3
Q

Epithelial surfaces

A

interacting with the external environment

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4
Q

Bifidobacteria

A

-in breastfed babies
-synthesize all amino acids
have surface proteins that can bind sugars

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5
Q

Anatomic sites: skin

A

-staphylococcus!

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6
Q

Anatomic sites: GI tract/ oral cavity

A

-Streptococcus

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7
Q

Anatomic sites: Large intestine

A
  • Bacteroides

- Bifidobacterium

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8
Q

Anatomical site: Genital tract

A
  • Lactobacillus

- Excherichia

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9
Q

Anatomical site: Urinary tract

A

-Lactobacillus

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10
Q

Factors that alter your normal microbiota

A
  • food
  • antibiotics
  • environment
  • interactions
  • age
  • immune status
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11
Q

Resident microbiota

A

normally found in/on our body

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12
Q

transient microbiota

A

temporary organism

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13
Q

pathogen

A

an organism capable of causing disease

  • true pathogen
  • opportunistic
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14
Q

Virulence

A

severity of disease associated with a particular pathogen

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15
Q

Virulence factor

A

component of an organism that supports or enhances its ability to cause disease

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16
Q

Basic progression of microbes

A
  1. finding a portal of entry
  2. attaching firmly
  3. surviving host defenses
  4. causes of damage and disease
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17
Q

mechanical vs. biological vectors

A

mechanical- pathogen outside

biological- pathogen inside

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18
Q

Parenteral

A

bypassing barriers (cuts/needles/fluid-feeding insects)

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19
Q

Placental

A
crossing the placental barrier
STORCH:
-syphillis
-toxoplasmosis
-others
-rubella
-cytomegalovirus
-herpes
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20
Q

endotoxins

A

LPS specifically the lipid A portion

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21
Q

Exotoxins

A

any secreted toxin. diverse

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22
Q

A/B toxins

A

A-Action

B-Binds

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23
Q

Factors that influence host susceptibility

A

genetics, gender, age, pregnancy, immune suppression, health/nutrition, other diseases

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24
Q

stages of disease: Incubation period

A

stage 1
time from initial contact with the infectious agent to the appearance of the first symptoms, agent is multiplying but damage is insufficient to cause symptoms, several hours to several days

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25
Q

stages of diseases: Prodromal stage

A

stage 2

vague feelings of discomfort, nonspecific complaints

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26
Q

stages of disease: period of illness

A

stage 3

disease is most severe, signs and symptoms

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27
Q

stages of disease; convalescent period

A

stage 4

as person begins to respond to the infection, symptoms decline

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28
Q

sign

A

objective evidence of disease as noted by an observer

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29
Q

symptom

A

subjective evidence of disease as sensed by the patient

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30
Q

epidemiology

A

science that evaluates occurrence, determinants, distribution and control of the health and disease in a defines human population
what causes disease and how it is spread

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31
Q

what does epidemiology determine?

A
  • causative agent
  • source or reservoir of disease agent
  • mechanism of transmission
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32
Q

sporadic disease

A

Occurs occasionally and at irregular intervals.

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33
Q

endemic disease

A

Maintains a relatively steady low-level
frequency at a moderately regular
interval.

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34
Q

Hyperendemic diseases

A

Gradually increase in frequency above endemic level but not to epidemic level.

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35
Q

outbreak

A
  • Sudden, unexpected occurrence of disease.

- Usually focal or in a limited segment of population.

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36
Q

epidemic

A
  • Outbreak affecting may people at once.
  • Sudden increase in occurrence above expected number.
  • Index case—first case in an epidemic.
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37
Q

pandemic

A

Increase in disease occurrence within a large population over at least two countries around the world.

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38
Q

Morbidity

A

An incidence rate.

Number of new cases in a specific time period per unit of population.

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39
Q

Mortality

A

Number of deaths from a disease per number of cases of the disease.

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40
Q

incidence

A

measures the number of new cases over a certain time period, as compared with the general healthy population

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41
Q

prevalence

A

total number of existing cases with respect to the entire population usually represented by a percentage of the population

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42
Q

infectious disease

A

Disease resulting from an infection by microbial agents.

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43
Q

communicable disease

A

Can be transmitted from one host to another.

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44
Q

common source epidemic

A

single common contaminated source (food).

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45
Q

propagated apidemic

A

one infected individual into a susceptible group, infection propagated to others.

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46
Q

herd immunity

A

resistance of a population to infection and pathogen spread because of immunity of large percentage of the population.

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47
Q

why is herd immunity hard to achieve?

A

antigenic shift and drift.

diseases and microbes alter over time and can change (like the flu, different every year)

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48
Q

prevention and control of epidemics

A
  • Reduce or eliminate source or reservoir of infection.
  • Break connection between source and susceptible individual.
  • Reduce number of susceptible individuals.
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49
Q

reduce number of susceptible individuals causes?

A
  • Raises herd immunity.
  • Passive immunity following exposure.
  • Active immunity for protection.
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50
Q

systematic epidemiology

A

Focuses on ecological and social factors that influence development and spread of emerging and reemerging diseases.

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51
Q

reasons that diseases are appearing or reemmerging

A
  • World population growth, urbanization.
  • Inadequate public infrastructures.
  • Increased international travel, mass migrations.
  • Climate change.
  • Habitat disruption.
  • Microbial evolution and development of resistance.
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52
Q

endogenous pathogen

A
  • Brought into hospital by patient.

- Patient is colonized after admission.

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53
Q

exogenous pathogens

A

Microbiota other than the patient’

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54
Q

nosocomial infections

A
  • acquired in the hospital

- 5%-10% of patients get sick

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55
Q

Gram-positive cell walls

A
  • cel wall

- no 2nd outer membrane

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56
Q

gram-positive bacterial pathogens

A
  • Stain purple when Gram stained

- Two major groups based on DNA Low and high G/C

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57
Q

staphylococcus

A

“the perfect pathogen”

  • Normal members of every human’s microbiota
  • Can be opportunistic pathogens
  • Common inhabitant of the skin and mucous membranes
  • Lack spores and flagella
  • May have capsules
58
Q

staphylococcus structure and physiology

A
  • Facultative anaerobes
  • Salt-tolerant
  • Tolerate salt on human skin
59
Q

epidemiology of S. aureus

A
  • Carriage rate for healthy adults is 20-60%
  • MRSA carriage varies (1-5%), but is higher in HCWs
  • Increase in community acquired methicillin resistance - MRSA
60
Q

pathogenicity of S.aureus

A
  • Infections result when staphylococci breach body’s physical barriers
  • Entry of only a few hundred bacteria can result in disease
61
Q

types of staphylococcal disease

A
  • Cutaneous diseases
  • Toxigenic/Noninvasive disease
  • Systemic
62
Q

localized cutaneous infections

A

invade skin through wounds, follicles, or glands

63
Q

folliculitis

A

superficial inflammation of hair follicle, usually resolved with no complications but can progress

64
Q

furuncle

A

boil; inflammation of hair follicle or sebaceous gland progresses into abscess or pustule

65
Q

carbuncle

A

larger and deeper lesion created by aggregation and interconnection of a cluster of furuncles

66
Q

impetigo

A

bubble-like swellings that can break and peel away; most common in newborns

67
Q

food intoxication

A

ingestion of heat stable enterotoxins; gastrointestinal distress.

68
Q

staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

A

toxin induces bright red flush, blisters, then desquamation of the epidermis

69
Q

toxic shock syndrome

A

toxemia leading to shock and organ failure

70
Q

osteomyelitis

A

infection is established in the metaphysis; abscess forms

71
Q

bacteremia

A

primary origin is bacteria from another infected site or medical devices; endocarditis possible

72
Q

endocarditis

A

very aggressive. “acute endocarditis”. Often fatal. in heart

73
Q

pneumonia

A

common cause of post influenza bacterial pneumonia

74
Q

treatment of S.aureus

A
  • cant be treated with penicillin
  • Resistant forms can generally be treated with cephalexin!, sulfa drugs, tetracyclines, or clindamycin
  • can have a lenghty recovery if not treated properly
75
Q

treatment of MRSA

A

there are still a few drugs that will generally work, including vancomycin!, ceftaroline, linezolid, and daptomycin. Administration of two of these in combination is use to reduce further drug resistance

76
Q

prevention of staph infections

A
  • Universal precautions by healthcare providers to prevent nosocomial infections
  • Hygiene and cleansing
  • A vaccine aimed at providing protection against S. aureus is currently in clinical trials
77
Q

characteristics of genera streptococcus and enterococcus

A
  • Gram-positive spherical/ovoid cocci arranged in long chains; commonly in pairs
  • Non-spore-forming, nonmotile
  • Can form capsules and slime layers
  • Facultative anaerobes
78
Q

lancefield groups

A

based on cell wall Ag-17 groups. another classifications system is based on

79
Q

what are the types of hemolysis?

A

β-hemolytic – complete hemolysis (clear)

α-hemolytic – partial hemolysis (can partially see)

80
Q

what bacteria comes from beta-hemolytic?

A
  • pyogenes

- agalactiae

81
Q

what bacteria comes from alpha-hemolytic?

A
  • viridins

- pneumoniae

82
Q

beta-hemolytic strep

A
  • Most serious streptococcal pathogen
  • Strict parasite
  • Inhabits throat, nasopharynx, occasionally skin
83
Q

C-carbohydrates

A

protect against lysozyme

84
Q

fimbriae

85
Q

M-protein

A

contributes to resistance to phagoccytosis

86
Q

hyaluronic acid capsule

A

provokes no immune response

87
Q

C5a protease

A

hinders complement and neutrophil response

88
Q

what diseases can be controlled?

A

environmental and microbial

89
Q

what is the basic information for cystic fibrosis?

A

it causes the lungs to be sticky and it is a mutated gene

90
Q

where should microbes not be?

A

in your lungs and bladder

91
Q

what is a true pathogen?

A

it is a pathogen that always causes diseases or sickness when it comes in contact with your body

92
Q

how does opportunistic pathogen cause diseases?

A

it waits to find an opportunity into your body as it needs a specific way to infect

93
Q

infectious dose v. lethal dose

A

infectious: how many pathogens will infect 50% of populations
lethal: how many pathogens it takes to kill 50% of population

94
Q

what is the main function of the CDC?

A

developing and applying disease prevention and control

95
Q

what is the number 1 cause of death in America?

A

Heart disease

96
Q

streptolysins

A

hemolysins; streptolysin O and streptolysin S – both cause cell and tissue injury

97
Q

Erythrogenic toxin

A

induces fever and typical red rash

98
Q

superantigens

A

strong monocyte and lymphocyte stimulants; cause the release of tissue necrotic factor

99
Q

what are the 4 different strep diseases/

A
  • cutaneous diseases
  • throat infections
  • systemic
  • immune sequelae
100
Q

Impetigo

A

superficial lesions that break and form highly contagious crust; often in epidemics in school children; also associated with insect bites, poor hygiene, and crowded living conditions

101
Q

necrotizing fasciitis

A

the microbes get into the skin and starts to destroy the tissue

102
Q

what can strep. be treated with?

A

penicillin

103
Q

who gets group B: strep. agalactiae? and how is it transmitted?

A
  • babies and young kids

- can be through delivery

104
Q

what are the 6 viridans groups

A
  • S. Mutans
  • S. oralis
  • S. salivarus
  • S. sanguis
  • S. milleri
  • S. mitis
105
Q

subacute endocarditis

A

blood-borne bacteria settle and grow on heart lining or valves

106
Q

Strep. pneumoniae

A
  • causes 60%-70% of all pneumonias
  • cant live in oxygen
  • large capsules
  • causes pneumonia and otitis media
107
Q

what does S. pneumoniae secrete?

A

IgA protease

108
Q

how many people carry pneumococcus?

A

around 50% of population but its not activated

109
Q

how is pneumonia activated?

A
  • cells must be aspirated into the lungs

- when in lungs its multiplies fast and is hard to kill off

110
Q

how do you treat pneumonia?

A
  • pennicillin

- there are 2 vaccines avaliable

111
Q

where is enterococcus faecalis found?

A
  • GI tract of animals
  • large intestines of humans
  • must ravel in pairs
  • opportunistic
  • caused by surgery
112
Q

endospore

A

dense survival unit that develops in a vegetative cell in response to nutrient deprivation. resistant to everything

113
Q

characteristics of Genus Bacillus

A
  • gram positive
  • endospore-forming
  • aerobic
  • resistant to everything
  • forms in soil
114
Q

Bacillus anthracis

A
  • the least dangerous

- spores that develop under all conditions but not in the human

115
Q

Cutaneous anthrax

A
  • spores enter through skin

- least dangerous

116
Q

Pulmonary Anthrax

A

-inhaling spores from animal products or soil

117
Q

Gastronintestinal anthrax

A
  • ingested spores

- rare

118
Q

Treatment of anthrax

A
  • antibiotics
  • control livestock
  • vaccines
119
Q

Genus Clostridium

A
  • gram positive
  • spore forming rods
  • anaerobic
  • endotoxins are produced
120
Q

treatment and prevention of clostridial infections

A
  • Prevent- vaccine and degerm
  • Remove- amputation
  • Kill- antibiotics
  • Neutralize toxin- antitoxin
121
Q

clostridium perfringens

A
  • most frequent
  • spores found in soil
  • can occur from wounds, gunshot, surgery
122
Q

cellutitis

A

infects the muscle tissue and kills it

123
Q

myonecrosis

A

more destructive, grows and releases

124
Q

what is clostridium perf. also involved in

A

food poisoning

125
Q

Clostridium difficile

A
  • c-diff

- in the intestine and causes diarhea

126
Q

how can c-diff be treated?

A

antibiotics

127
Q

Botulism

A

food poisoning from food being left out or contaminated

128
Q

what does botulinum food poisoning do?

A

it blocks the release of transmission that tells your muscles to move
you cant inhale so you die

129
Q

infant botulism

A

ingested spores

most common type

130
Q

wound botulism

A

when spores enter the wound and cause food poisoning symptoms

131
Q

Tetanus

A
  • known as lockjaw
  • causes muscles to NOT relax
  • caused by botulism
132
Q

Listeria monocytogenes

A
  • non spore forming
  • grown in cytoplasm of cell to hide and avoid the immune system
  • grown in soil and animals
  • resistant to cold
133
Q

listeriosis

A

-dairy products and meat
-young and old are easily attracted to
pregnant women get 9why they cant eat things)

134
Q

what are the characteristics of corynebacterium diphtheriae?

A
  • curved rods
  • diiphtheria is always present
  • non immunzed children from droplets
135
Q

what are the two stages of diphtheria?

A
  • local: on skin and respiratory tract

- systemic: toxin produced resulting in death

136
Q

prevention for diphtheria

137
Q

what is propionibacterium

138
Q

mycobacteria

A
  • acid fast
  • aerobic
  • grows slowly
139
Q

mycobacterium tuberculosis

A
  • has a unique cell wall that prevents destruction using macrophages
  • a big global problem
  • low infectious dose
140
Q

latent and recurrent TB

A
  • lots of coughing and sputum

- the body slowly eats itsself and dies

141
Q

detecting TB

A
  • Mantoux test
  • in vitro TB test
  • chest x-ray
  • acid fast staining
142
Q

management of TB

A

can take 6-24 months