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BSAVA manual of thoracic imaging > chapter 12 Lung parenchyma > Flashcards

chapter 12 Lung parenchyma Flashcards

1
Q

1) What is the normal maximal diameter of the cranial lobar vessels?
a) No wider than the fourth rib where they intersect
b) No wider than the dorsal third of the fourth rib
c) No wider than the 9th rib
d) No wider than the dorsal third of the third rib

A

b

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2
Q

2) Which vascular system of the lungs is radiographically visible?
a) Functional
b) Nutritional
c) Portal
d) A and B

A

a

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3
Q

3) Which projections are best for assessing the pulmonary vasculature?
a) Right lateral and DV
b) Right lateral and VD
c) Left lateral and DV
d) Left lateral and VD

A

c

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4
Q

4) In this left lateral projection, which bronchi are highlighted yellow?

A

b) RtCr and RtM

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5
Q

5) Which of the following statements is false?
a) Puppies and kittens have more opaque lungs than adults
b) Multiple small (up to 4mm) irregularly shaped well defined opacites in the lungs of mature dogs are most likely to represent metastasis
c) Pulmonary osteomas are common in collie breeds
d) Feline lungs at peak inspiration extend further caudal than dogs, to the level of L1-2

A

b

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6
Q

Which of the following is not a differential for a cranioventral airspace pattern?
a) Lung lobe torsion
b) Aspiration pneumonia
c) Haemorrhage
d) Inhaled toxin

A

d

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7
Q

1) Which of the following is incorrect regarding lung neoplasia
a) Central calcification of primary pulmonary neoplasia is more common in cats than dogs
b) Feline pulmonary lymphoma is usually radiographically visible and has a unstructured interstitial lung pattern
c) Primary lung tumours may be cavitated
d) The digits are a primary site of metastasis in feline primary pulmonary neoplasia

A

b

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8
Q

2) Which are the typical features of intra parenchymal pulmonary abscesses on radiographs?
a) Thin walled
b) Irregular inner surface
c) Can be cavitary
d) Associated with pleural effusion

A

bc

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9
Q

3) Which types of granulomas are more likely to become mineralized?
a) Ones associated with paragonimus fluke infection
b) Eosinophilic granulomas
c) Tuberculosis granulomas
d) Histoplasmosis granulomas

A

D

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10
Q

4) Which of the following is false regarding the CT appearance of eosinophilic pulmonary granulomatosis in dogs?
a) There is usually a tracheobronchial lymphadenopathy
b) The lesions are usually caudodorsal in location
c) They can have single large masses or multiple nodules
d) They can have a honeycombe like enhancement pattern

A

A- but they can have large lns see mesquita 2015

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11
Q

5) As a general rule, which type of tumours are more likely to produce a large number of relatively small poorly defined nodules, as opposed to a low number of well defined masses.
a) Epithelial cell tumours
b) Mesenchymal tumours

A

a

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12
Q

6) What is the most likely diagnosis in this puppy?
a) Acquired emphysema from obstructive alveolar disease
b) Congenital lobar emphysema
c) Unilateral pneumothorax
d) Pneumatocoele

A

b

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13
Q

7) Which of the following is not an underlying cause of lung lobe torsion?
a) Pleural effusion
b) Previous thoracotomy
c) Primary pulmonary neoplasia
d) Pneumonia

A

7) C- not listed

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14
Q

which lung lobe commonly torses in sight hounds?

A

right middle

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15
Q

which lung lobe commonly torses in chondrodystrophic breeds?

A

left cranial

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16
Q

9) Which of the following are signs of chronic lung lobe torsion (more that 2-3 days)?
a) Uniform opacification of the affected lobe with loss of volume and mediastinal shift towards the lobe, no air bronchograms, short blunted lobar bronchus
b) Uniform opacification of the affected lobe with increased volume and mediastinal shift away from the lobe, no air bronchograms, short blunted lobar bronchus
c) Patchy opacification of the affected lobe with loss of volume and mediastinal shift towards the lobe, air bronchograms visible, short blunted lobar bronchus
d) Patchy opacification of the affected lobe with loss of volume and mediastinal shift towards the lobe, air bronchograms and gas bubbles visible, short blunted lobar bronchus

A

A

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17
Q

6) Which of the following is not a radiographic finding in pulmonary vascular emboli or lung infarction?
a) Hyperlucent lung with attenuation of a vessel usually in a caudodorsal location
b) Hyperlucent lung with attenuation of a vessel usually in a ventrodorsal location
c) Small areas of alveolar disease affecting multiple lobes, usually right sided and caudal
d) Wedge shaped focal areas of alveolar or interstitial lung pattern.

A

b

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18
Q

2) Pneumocystis carinii infection preferentially involves which areas of the lung?
a) ventral lung areas
b) right middle lung lobe only
c) caudal and middle lobes
d) both cranial lobes

A

c

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19
Q

1) Which lung lobe can protrude cranial to the thoracic inlet and still be considered normal?
a) Left cranial subsegment of the left cranial lobe
b) right cranial

A

a

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20
Q

3) True or false, atelectasis is more common with inhaled gases with a higher percentage of oxygen compared to room air?
a) true
b) false

A

a

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21
Q

4) Which cardiac diseases can cause cardiogenic pulmonary oedema without changes in the size of the cardiac silhouette in dogs?
a) myxomatous mitral valve disease
b) chordae tendinae rupture
c) bacterial endocarditis
d) DCM

A

b,c

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22
Q

7) What is the most likely diagnosis in this 2yo Labrador with rapid onset dyspnoea?
a) ARDS
b) Angiostrongylus
c) Rat bait poisoning
d) CHF

A

c

23
Q

5) Match up the cause of oedema with the aetiology: re-expansion oedema after rapid drainage of pleural effusion…
a) direct toxic effect on the endothelium and alveolar epithelium
b) secondary to decreased interstitial pressure
c) reduced oncotic pressure
d) increased sympathetic stimulation

A

b

24
Q

5) Match up the cause of oedema with the aetiology: electric cord bite injury…
a) direct toxic effect on the endothelium and alveolar epithelium
b) secondary to decreased interstitial pressure
c) reduced oncotic pressure
d) increased sympathetic stimulation

A

d

25
Q

5) Match up the cause of oedema with the aetiology: smoke inhalation.
a) direct toxic effect on the endothelium and alveolar epithelium
b) secondary to decreased interstitial pressure
c) reduced oncotic pressure
d) increased sympathetic stimulation

A

a

26
Q

1) What is the difference between aspiration pneumonia and aspiration pneumonitis?
a) Aspiration pneumonitis can be defined as pulmonary injury caused by inhalation of chemical irritants, while aspiration pneumonia refers to the bacterial infection that can develop after aspiration
b) Aspiration pneumonia can be defined as pulmonary injury caused by inhalation of chemical irritants, while aspiration pneumonitis refers to the bacterial infection that can develop after aspiration
c) Both terms are interchangeable
d) Pneumonia has been used to describe acute and exudative inflammation, and pneumonitis is used to describe chronic proliferative lesions

A

a

27
Q

2) Bacterial pneumonia due to aerogenous spread usually affects which lung lobes?
a) Cranial
b) Cranial and middle
c) Caudal
d) Accessory only

A

b

28
Q

3) Which lung pattern is most common in cats with pneumonia?
a) Alveolar only
b) Bronchial only
c) Mixed bronchoalveolar pattern
d) Nodular

A

c

29
Q

4) Which disease most accurately fits the following radiographic description: Mild to marked interstitial pattern, most noticeable in the caudodorsal lung fields, or disseminated patchy opacities. Severe cases can have generalised increased opacity of all lobes?
a) Aspiration pneumonia
b) FIP
c) Canine leptospirosis
d) Mycoplasmal pneumonia

A

c

30
Q

5) Which disease most accurately fits the following radiographic description: A diffuse bronchointerstitial pattern?
a) Aspiration pneumonia
b) FIP
c) Canine leptospirosis
d) Mycoplasmal pneumonia

A

d

31
Q

6) Which fungal diseases occur west of Texas?
a) Histoplasmosis
b) Blastomycosis
c) Coccidiomycosis
d) Coccidiomycosis and cryptococcus

A

d. coccidiomycosis (valley fever) in the south mainly. Cryptococcus on the west coast , Histoplasmosis is a Midwestern disease, affecting pets residing in and around the Mississippi River Valley. Blastomycosis is most common in the Ohio River Valley (east of the Mississippi River).

32
Q

7) Which fungal disease more commonly affects cats than dogs?
a) Blastomycosis
b) Histoplasmosis
c) Coccidiomycosis
d) None of the above

A

b

33
Q

8) Which fungal disease ins endemic in eastern Canada?
a) Histoplasmosis
b) Blastomycosis
c) Coccidiomycosis
d) All the above

A

b

34
Q

9) Which breeds are predisposed to pneumocystis carinii?
a) Cavalier king Charles spaniels and miniature dachshunds
b) Cavalier king Charles and irish wolfhounds
c) GSDs and shih tzus
d) GSDs and miniature dachshunds

A

a

35
Q

10) What are the usual radiographic findings in toxoplasma gondii infection in cats?
a) Peripheral patchy alveolar infiltrate
b) Caudodorsal alveolar pattern, symmetrical
c) Diffuse interstitial and patchy alveolar infiltrate, random distributions of changes
d) Pleural effusion

A

b

36
Q

11) Which parasite causes solitary or multiple ill-defined nodular opacities which are often cavitied and contain gas?
a) Angiostrongylus
b) Dirofilarial
c) Paragonimiasis
d) Crenosa vulpis

A

c

37
Q

12) What is the most likely parasitic diagnosis in this 2yo ME crossbreed cat from Italy?
a) Angiostrongylus
b) Aelurostrongylus
c) Capillaria
d) A or B

A

b

38
Q

13) Which of the following does not cause perihilar lymphadenopathy?
a) Lymphoma
b) Fungal disease
c) Aspiration pneumonia
d) Silicate pneumoconiosis

A

13) C pneumoconiosis- is any lung disease caused by the inhalation of organic or nonorganic airborne dust and fibres

39
Q

14) What are the radiographic findings with paraquat toxicity?
a) Acutely no change. progressive diffuse interstitial pattern, cicatrisation atelectasis, pleural fibrosis, pneumomediastinum.
b) Diffuse interstitial pattern, pleural effusion
c) Bronchointerstitial pattern
d) Cranioventral interstitial pattern, ventral consolidation, pneumothorax

A

a

40
Q

describe the flow of air to the alveolus

A

trachea>principle bronchus>lobar bronchus>segmental bronchus>smaller bronchi then bronchioles>terminal (last ones only for air conduction) bronchioles> respiratory bronchioles

41
Q

in dogs which blood supply, supplies the pleura, bronchial or pulmonary?

A

pulmonary

42
Q

are lymphatic vessels present of absent in the lung parenchyma?

A

absent from the PARENCHYMA to facilitate gas exchange, interstitial fluid and plasma is still present.

43
Q

on ct, a bronchoarterial ratio more than what is suggestive of bronchiectasis?
a) 1.5
b) 1.7
c) 2.0
d) 2.3

A

c

44
Q

disease which originates in the lungs tends to be distributed local or spread to the local lymph nodes. name two exceptions where disease spreads distantly.

A

lung digit syndrome and systemic blastomycosis. probable some other eg other fungal diseases.

45
Q

true or false, the lungs are a common site of distant spread of disease from lesions that originate elsewhere?

A

true, eg mets, lymphoma, SIRS.

46
Q

what is the difference between generalised and diffuse lung disease?

A

Diffuse: a widespread distribution whereby all parts of the affected anatomical compartment are abnormal.
* Uniform or Non-uniform
* Generalized: a widespread distribution of disease whereby the entire lung is affected but normal tissue is interspersed between abnormalities. This is commonly seen with widespread pulmonary metastasis.
* Generalized random or Disseminated

47
Q

which differentials are less likely for cranioventral pulmonary opacification with pulmonary expansion?
haemorrhage
neoplasia
aspiration pneumonia
ARDS
bronchopneumonia
vasculitis

A

ARDS, vasculitis

48
Q

which differential is less likely for caudodorsal pulmonary opacification with pulmonary expansion?
cardiogenic pulmonary oedema
non- cardiogenic pulmonary oedema
bronchopneumonia
upper airway obstruction
DIC
lymphoma
infectious cases
non- infectious inflammatory causes

A

bronchopneumonia

49
Q

if cardiogenic pulmonary oedema is not symmetrical, which sode is usually worse?
left
right

A

right.

50
Q

other than the cilia in the lungs, which other systems have cilia affected by primary cilia dyskinesia (2)

A

urogenital tracts and auditory system.
There is a relatively high prevalence of respiratory disease and the phenotype is almost identical to PCD in humans. The respiratory manifestations include chronic
rhinitis, bronchitis and severe pneumonia with or without bronchiectasis. Affected animals are presented with recurrent
chronic nasal discharge, productive cough, respiratory distress and exercise intolerance. Additional findings are infertility, hydrocephalus and hearing loss.

51
Q

which breed has a reportedly higher incidence of primary ciliary dyskinesia?
a) Lhasa apso
b) Maltese
c) Brussels griffon
d) bichon frise

A

D

52
Q

which imaging technique is best for diagnosing primary ciliary dyskinesia?
a) radiography
b) CT
c) scintigraphy

A

C

53
Q

continue from page 397 new book

A

BSAVA manual of thoracic imaging (2 decks)

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