CHAPTER 11 Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Dorothy is using a network sniffer to evaluate network connections. She focuses on the initialization of a TCP session. What is the first phase of the TCP three-way handshake sequence?

A. SYN flagged packet
B. ACK flagged packet
C. FIN flagged packet
D. SYN/ACK flagged packet

A

A. SYN flagged packet

The SYN flagged packet is first sent from the initiating host to the destination host; thus it is the first step or phase in the TCP three-way handshake sequence used to establish a TCP session. The destination host then responds with a SYN/ACK flagged packet; this is the second step or phase of the TCP three-way handshake sequence. The initiating host sends an ACK flagged packet, and the connection is then established (the final or third step or phase). The FIN flag is used to gracefully shut down an established session.

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2
Q

UDP is a connectionless protocol that operates at the Transport layer of the OSI model and uses ports to manage simultaneous connections. Which of the following terms is also related to UDP?

A. Bits
B. Logical addressing
C. Data reformatting
D. Simplex

A

D. Simplex

UDP is a simplex protocol at the Transport layer (layer 4 of the OSI model). Bits is associated with the Physical layer (layer 1). Logical addressing is associated with the Network layer (layer 3). Data reformatting is associated with the Presentation layer (layer 6).

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3
Q

Which of the following is a means for IPv6 and IPv4 to be able to coexist on the same network? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Dual stack
B. Tunneling
C. IPsec
D. NAT-PT
E. IP sideloading

A

A. Dual stack
B. Tunneling
D. NAT-PT

The means by which IPv6 and IPv4 can coexist on the same network is to use one or more of three primary options: dual stack, tunneling, or NAT-PT. Dual stack is to have most systems operate both IPv4 and IPv6 and use the appropriate protocol for each conversation. Tunneling allows most systems to operate a single stack of either IPv4 or IPv6 and use an encapsulation tunnel to access systems of the other protocol. Network Address Translation-Protocol Translation (NAT-PT) (RFC-2766) can be used to convert between IPv4 and IPv6 network segments similar to how NAT converts between internal and external addresses. IPsec is a standard of IP security extensions used as an add-on for IPv4 and integrated into IPv6, but it does not enable the use of both IPv4 and IPv6 on the same system (although it doesn’t prevent it either). IP sideloading is not a real concept.

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4
Q

Security configuration guidelines issued by your CISO require that all HTTP communications be secure when communicating with internal web services. Which of the following is true in regards to using TLS? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Allows for use of TCP port 443
B. Prevents tampering, spoofing, and eavesdropping
C. Requires two-way authentication
D. Is backward compatible with SSL sessions
E. Can be used as a VPN solution

A

A. Allows for use of TCP port 443
B. Prevents tampering, spoofing, and eavesdropping
E. Can be used as a VPN solution

TLS allows for use of TCP port 443; prevents tampering, spoofing, and eavesdropping; and can be used as a VPN solution. The other answers are incorrect. TLS supports both one-way and two-way authentication. TLS and SSL are not interoperable or backward compatible.

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5
Q

Your network supports TCP/IP. TCP/IP is a multilayer protocol. It is primarily based on IPv4, but the organization is planning on deploying IPv6 within the next year. What is both a benefit and a potentially harmful implication of multilayer protocols?

A. Throughput
B. Encapsulation
C. Hash integrity checking
D. Logical addressing

A

B. Encapsulation

Encapsulation is both a benefit and a potentially harmful implication of multilayer protocols. Encapsulation allows for encryption, flexibility, and resiliency, while also enabling covert channels, filter bypass, and overstepping network segmentation boundaries. Throughput is the capability of moving data across or through a network; this is not an implication of multilayer protocols. Hash integrity checking is a common benefit of multilayer protocols because most layers include a hash function in their header or footer. Logical addressing is a benefit of multilayer protocols; this avoids the restriction of using only physical addressing.

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6
Q

A new VoIP system is being deployed at a government contractor organization. They require high availability of five nines of uptime for the voice communication system. They are also concerned about introducing new vulnerabilities into their existing data network structure. The IT infrastructure is based on fiber optics and supports over 1 Gbps to each device; the network often reaches near full saturation on a regular basis. What option will provide the best outcome of performance, availability, and security for the VoIP service?

A. Create a new VLAN on the existing IT network for the VoIP service.
B. Replace the current switches with routers and increase the interface speed to 1,000 Mbps.
C. Implement a new, separate network for the VoIP system.
D. Deploy flood guard protections on the IT network.

A

C. Implement a new, separate network for the VoIP system.

In this scenario, the only viable option to provide performance, availability, and security for the VoIP service is to implement a new, separate network for the VoIP system that is independent of the existing data network. The current data network is already at capacity, so creating a new VLAN will not provide sufficient insurance that the VoIP service will be highly available. Replacing switches with routers is usually not a valid strategy for increasing network capacity, and 1,000 Mbps is the same as 1 Gbps. Flood guards are useful against DoS and some transmission errors (such as Ethernet floods or broadcast storms), but they do not add more capacity to a network or provide reliable uptime for a VoIP service.

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7
Q

Microsegmentation is dividing up an internal network in numerous subzones, potentially as small as a single device, such as a high-value server or even a client or endpoint device. Which of the following is true in regard to microsegmentation? (Choose all that apply.)

A. It is the assignment of the cores of a CPU to perform different tasks.
B. It can be implemented using ISFWs.
C. Transactions between zones are filtered.
D. It supports edge and fog computing management.
E. It can be implemented with virtual systems and virtual networks.

A

B. It can be implemented using ISFWs.
C. Transactions between zones are filtered.
E. It can be implemented with virtual systems and virtual networks.

Microsegmentation can be implemented using internal segmentation firewalls (ISFWs), transactions between zones are filtered, and it can be implemented with virtual systems and virtual networks. Affinity or preference is the assignment of the cores of a CPU to perform different tasks. Microsegmentation is not related to edge and fog computing management.

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8
Q

A new startup company is designing a sensor that needs to connect wirelessly to a PC or IoT hub in order to transmit its gathered data to a local application or cloud service for data analysis. The company wants to ensure that all transferred data from the device cannot be disclosed to unauthorized entities. The device is also intended to be located within 1 meter of the PC or IoT hub it communicates with. Which of the following concepts is the best choice for this device?

A. Zigbee
B. Bluetooth
C. FCoE
D. 5G

A

A. Zigbee

The device in this scenario would benefit from the use of Zigbee. Zigbee is an IoT equipment communications concept that is based on Bluetooth. Zigbee has low power consumption and a low throughput rate, and it requires close proximity of devices. Zigbee communications are encrypted using a 128-bit symmetric algorithm. Bluetooth is not a good option since it is usually plaintext. Bluetooth Low Energy (BLE) might be a viable option if custom encryption was added. Fiber Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) is not a wireless technology or an IoT technology—it is a high-speed fiber optic–based storage technology. 5G is the latest mobile service technology that is available for use on mobile phones, tablets, and other equipment. Though many IoT devices may support and use 5G, it is mostly used to provide direct access to the internet rather than as a link to a local short-distance device, such as a PC or IoT hub.

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9
Q

James has been hired to be a traveling repair technician. He will be visiting customers all over the country in order to provide support services. He has been issued a portable workstation with 4G and 5G data service. What are some concerns when using this capability? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Eavesdropping
B. Rogue towers
C. Data speed limitations
D. Reliability of establishing a connection
E. Compatibility with cloud services
F. Unable to perform duplex communications

A

A. Eavesdropping
B. Rogue towers
D. Reliability of establishing a connection

Cellular services, such as 4G and 5G, raise numerous security and operational concerns. Although cellular service is encrypted from device to tower, there is a risk of being fooled by a false or rogue tower. A rogue tower could offer only plaintext connections, but even if it supported encrypted transactions, the encryption only applies to the radio transmissions between the device and the tower. Once the communication is on the tower, it will be decrypted, allowing for eavesdropping and content manipulation. Even without a rogue tower, eavesdropping can occur across the cellular carrier’s interior network as well as across the internet, unless a VPN link is established between the remote mobile device and the network of the organization James works for. Being able to establish a connection can be unreliable depending on exactly where James’s travel takes him. 3G, 4G, and 5G coverage is not 100 percent available everywhere. 5G coverage is the most limited since it is the latest technology and still not universally deployed, and each 5G tower covers less area than a 4G tower. If James is able to establish a connection, 4G and 5G speeds should be sufficient for most remote technician activities, since 4G supports 100 Mbps for mobile devices and 5G supports up to 10 Gbps. If connectivity is established, there should be no issues with cloud interaction or duplex conversations.

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10
Q

A new startup company needs to optimize delivery of high-definition media content to its customers. They are planning the deployment of resource service hosts in numerous data centers across the world in order to provide low latency, high performance, and high availability of the hosted content. What technology is likely being implemented?

A. VPN
B. CDN
C. SDN
D. CCMP

A

B. CDN

A content distribution network (CDN), or content delivery network, is a collection of resource service hosts deployed in numerous data centers across the world in order to provide low latency, high performance, and high availability of the hosted content. VPNs are used to transport communications over an intermediary medium through the means of encapsulation (i.e., tunneling), authentication, and encryption. Software-defined networking (SDN) aims at separating the infrastructure layer from the control layer on networking hardware in order to reduce management complexity. Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) (Counter-Mode/CBC-MAC Protocol) is the combination of two block cipher modes to enable streaming by a block algorithm.

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11
Q

Which of the following is a true statement about ARP poisoning or MAC spoofing?

A. MAC spoofing is used to overload the memory of a switch.
B. ARP poisoning is used to falsify the physical address of a system to impersonate that of another authorized device.
C. MAC spoofing relies on ICMP communications to traverse routers.
D. ARP poisoning can use unsolicited or gratuitous replies.

A

D. ARP poisoning can use unsolicited or gratuitous replies.

The true statement is: ARP poisoning can use unsolicited or gratuitous replies—specifically, ARP replies for which the local device did not transmit an ARP broadcast request. Many systems accept all ARP replies regardless of who requested them. The other statements are false. The correct versions of those statements would be: (A) MAC flooding is used to overload the memory of a switch, specifically the CAM table stored in switch memory when bogus information will cause the switch to function only in flooding mode. (B) MAC spoofing is used to falsify the physical address of a system to impersonate that of another authorized device. ARP poisoning associates an IP address with the wrong MAC address. (C) MAC spoofing relies on plaintext Ethernet headers to initially gather valid MAC addresses of legitimate network devices. ICMP crosses routers because it is carried as the payload of an IP packet.

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12
Q

An organization stores group project data files on a central SAN. Many projects have numerous files in common but are organized into separate project containers. A member of the incident response team is attempting to recover files from the SAN after a malware infection. However, many files are unable to be recovered. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

A. Using Fibre Channel
B. Performing real-time backups
C. Using file encryption
D. Deduplication

A

D. Deduplication

The most likely cause of the inability to recover files from the SAN in this scenario is deduplication. Deduplication replaces multiple copies of a file with a pointer to one copy. If the one remaining file is damaged, then all of the linked copies are damaged or inaccessible as well. File encryption could be an issue, but the scenario mentions that groups of people work on projects and typically file encryption is employed by individuals, not by groups. Whole-drive encryption would be more appropriate for group-accessed files as well as for a SAN in general. This issue is not related to what SAN technology is used, such as Fibre Channel. This problem might be solvable by restoring files from a backup, whether real-time or not, but the loss of files is not caused by performing backups.

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13
Q

Jim was tricked into clicking on a malicious link contained in a spam email message. This caused malware to be installed on his system. The malware initiated a MAC flooding attack. Soon, Jim’s system and everyone else’s in the same local network began to receive all transmissions from all other members of the network as well as communications from other parts of the next-to-local members. The malware took advantage of what condition in the network?

A. Social engineering
B. Network segmentation
C. ARP queries
D. Weak switch configuration

A

D. Weak switch configuration

In this scenario, the malware is performing a MAC flooding attack, which causes the switch to get stuck in flooding mode. This has taken advantage of the condition that the switch had weak configuration settings. The switch should have MAC limiting enabled in order to prevent MAC flooding attacks from being successful. Although Jim was initially fooled by a social engineering email, the question asked about the malware’s activity. A MAC flooding attack is limited by network segmentation to the local switch, but the malware took advantage of weak or poor configuration on the switch and was still successful. MAC flooding is blocked by routers from crossing between switched network segments. The malware did not use ARP queries in its attack. ARP queries can be abused in an ARP poisoning attack, but that was not described in this scenario.

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14
Q

A ______________ is an intelligent hub because it knows the hardware addresses of the systems connected on each outbound port. Instead of repeating traffic on every outbound port, it repeats traffic only out of the port on which the destination is known to exist.

A. Repeater
B. Switch
C. Bridge
D. Router

A

B. Switch

A switch is an intelligent hub. It is considered to be intelligent because it knows the addresses of the systems connected on each outbound port. Repeaters are used to strengthen the communication signal over a cable segment as well as connect network segments that use the same protocol. A bridge is used to connect two networks together—even networks of different topologies, cabling types, and speeds—in order to connect network segments that use the same protocol. Routers are used to control traffic flow on networks and are often used to connect similar networks and control traffic flow between the two. Routers manage traffic based on logical IP addressing.

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15
Q

What type of security zone can be positioned so that it operates as a buffer between the secured private network and the internet and can host publicly accessible services?

A. Honeypot
B. Screened subnet
C. Extranet
D. Intranet

A

B. Screened subnet

A screened subnet is a type of security zone that can be positioned so that it operates as a buffer network between the secured private network and the internet and can host publicly accessible services. A honeypot is a false network used to trap intruders; it isn’t used to host public services. An extranet is for limited outside partner access, not public. An intranet is the private secured network.

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16
Q

An organization wants to use a wireless network internally, but they do not want any possibility of external access or detection. What security tool should be used?

A. Air gap
B. Faraday cage
C. Biometric authentication
D. Screen filters

A

B. Faraday cage

A Faraday cage is an enclosure that blocks or absorbs electromagnetic fields or signals. Faraday cage containers, computer cases, rack-mount systems, rooms, or even building materials are used to create a blockage against the transmission of data, information, metadata, or other emanations from computers and other electronics. Devices inside a Faraday cage can use EM fields for communications, such as wireless or Bluetooth, but devices outside of the cage will not be able to eavesdrop on the signals of the systems within the cage. Air gaps do not contain or restrict wireless communications—in fact, for an air gap to be effective, wireless cannot even be available. Biometric authentication has nothing to do with controlling radio signals. Screen filters reduce shoulder surfing but do not address radio signals.

17
Q

Neo is the security manager for the southern division of the company. He thinks that deploying a NAC will assist in improving network security. However, he needs to convince the CISO of this at a presentation next week. Which of the following are goals of NAC that Neo should highlight? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Reduce social engineering threats
B. Detect rogue devices
C. Map internal private addresses to external public addresses
D. Distribute IP address configurations
E. Reduce zero-day attacks
F. Confirm compliance with updates and security settings

A

B. Detect rogue devices
E. Reduce zero-day attacks
F. Confirm compliance with updates and security settings

Network access control (NAC) involves controlling access to an environment through strict adherence to and implementation of security policy. The goals of NAC are to detect/block rogue devices, prevent or reduce zero-day attacks, confirm compliance with updates and security settings, enforce security policy throughout the network, and use identities to perform access control. NAC does not address social engineering, mapping IP addresses, or distributing IP addresses—those are handled by training, NAT, and DHCP, respectively.

18
Q

The CISO wants to improve the organization’s ability to manage and prevent malware infections. Some of her goals are to (1) detect, record, evaluate, and respond to suspicious activities and events, which may be caused by problematic software or by valid and invalid users, (2) collect event information and report it to a central ML analysis engine, and (3) detect abuses that are potentially more advanced than what can be detected by traditional antivirus or HIDSs. The solution needs to be able to reduce response and remediation time, reduce false positives, and manage multiple threats simultaneously. What solution is the CISO wanting to implement?

A. EDR
B. NGFW
C. WAF
D. XSRF

A

A. EDR

Endpoint detection and response (EDR) is a security mechanism that is an evolution of traditional antimalware products. EDR seeks to detect, record, evaluate, and respond to suspicious activities and events, which may be caused by problematic software or by valid and invalid users. It is a natural extension of continuous monitoring, focusing on both the endpoint device itself and network communications reaching the local interface. Some EDR solutions employ an on-device analysis engine whereas others report events back to a central analysis server or to a cloud solution. The goal of EDR is to detect abuses that are potentially more advanced than what can be detected by traditional antivirus or HIDSs, while optimizing the response time of incident response, discarding false positives, implementing blocking for advanced threats, and protecting against multiple threats occurring simultaneously and via various threat vectors. A next-generation firewall (NGFW) is a unified threat management (UTM) device that is based on a traditional firewall with numerous other integrated network and security services and is thus not the security solution needed in this scenario. A web application firewall (WAF) is an appliance, server add-on, virtual service, or system filter that defines a strict set of communication rules for a website and is not the security solution needed in this scenario. Cross-site request forgery (XSRF) is an attack against web-based services, not a malware defense.

19
Q

A(n) _________________ firewall is able to make access control decisions based on the content of communications as well as the parameters of the associated protocol and software.

A. Application-level
B. Stateful inspection
C. Circuit-level
D. Static packet filtering

A

A. Application-level

An application-level firewall is able to make access control decisions based on the content of communications as well as the parameters of the associated protocol and software. Stateful inspection firewalls make access control decisions based on the content and context of communications, but are not typically limited to a single application-layer protocol. Circuit-level firewalls are able to make permit and deny decisions in regard to circuit establishment either based on simple rules for IP and port, using captive portals, requiring port authentication via 802.1X, or more complex elements such as context- or attribute-based access control. Static packet-filtering firewalls filter traffic by examining data from a message header. Usually, the rules are concerned with source and destination IP address (layer 3) and port numbers (layer 4).

20
Q

Which of the following is true regarding appliance firewalls? (Choose all that apply.)

A. They are able to log traffic information.
B. They are able to block new phishing scams.
C. They are able to issue alarms based on suspected attacks.
D. They are unable to prevent internal attacks.

A

A. They are able to log traffic information.
C. They are able to issue alarms based on suspected attacks.
D. They are unable to prevent internal attacks.

Most appliance (i.e., hardware) firewalls offer extensive logging, auditing, and monitoring capabilities as well as alarms/alerts and even basic IDS functions. It is also true that firewalls are unable to prevent internal attacks that do not cross the firewall. Firewalls are unable to block new phishing scams. Firewalls could block a phishing scam’s URL if it was already on a block list, but a new scam likely uses a new URL that is not yet known to be malicious.