Chapter 11 – Legal and Compliance Part II Flashcards

1
Q

What are KRIs (Key Risk Indicators)?

A

Metrics used by an organization to inform management of impending negative impacts to operations; involves algorithms and rating systems ascribed to factors selected by analysts and management for an early-warning system.

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2
Q

What are KPIs (Key Performance Indicators)?

A

Backward-looking metrics to gauge business critical initiatives, objectives, or goals; measurable benchmarks against defined goals.

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3
Q

What is Risk Appetite/Tolerance?

A

How the organization views risks; senior management dictates the amount of risk an organization is willing to take.

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4
Q

What are Risk Profiles?

A

Comprehensive analysis of the possible risks to the organization; includes a survey of various operations the organization is engaged in, public perception, pending legislation, and stability of countries where the organization operates.

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5
Q

What are Physical Controls?

A

Physical access to assets that reduces the impact of a physical event; examples include locks, fire suppression, fences, and guards.

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6
Q

What are Technical Controls?

A

Also known as logical controls; controls that enhance the CIA triad; examples include encryption, ACLs, audit trails, and logs.

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7
Q

What are Administrative Controls?

A

Processes and activities that provide aspects of security; examples include background checks, scheduled log reviews, mandatory vacations, and robust security policies.

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8
Q

What is the Risk Management Framework (RMF)?

A

A structured approach to managing risk, including standards like ISO 31000:2018 and NIST SP 800-37.

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9
Q

What is ISO 31000:2018?

A

An international standard focusing on designing, implementing, and reviewing risk management processes and practices.

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10
Q

What is NIST SP 800-37?

A

A methodology for handling all organizational risk in a holistic, comprehensive, and continual manner; relies on automated solutions.

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11
Q

What is ENISA?

A

The EU Agency for Network and Information Security; responsible for producing guidelines on cloud computing security risks.

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12
Q

What is COBIT?

A

A framework for developing, implementing, monitoring, and improving IT governance and management practices.

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13
Q

What is ISO/IEC 31010:2009?

A

A standard for risk management techniques.

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14
Q

What are Risk Management Metrics?

A

A scale used to evaluate risk levels: 5 – Critical; 4 – High; 3 – Moderate; 2 – Low; 1 – Minimal.

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15
Q

What is ISO/IEC 15408-1:2009?

A

Common Criteria Assurance Framework providing assurances for security claims by vendors.

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16
Q

What is ISO 28000:2007?

A

A standard that applies to security controls in supply chains.

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17
Q

What is CSA STAR?

A

A framework for evaluating cloud providers; registry of security controls designed for vendor management.

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18
Q

What is CCM (Cloud Controls Matrix)?

A

A list of security controls and principles appropriate for cloud environments, cross-referenced to other control frameworks.

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19
Q

What is CAIQ (Consensus Assessments Initiative Questionnaire)?

A

A self-assessment by cloud providers detailing evaluation of practice areas and control groups.

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20
Q

What are the levels of the CSA STAR Program?

A

Level One: Self-Assessment; Level Two: CSA STAR Attestation; Level Three: CSA STAR Continuous Monitoring.

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21
Q

What is PKI?

A

A framework of programs, procedures, communication protocols, and public key cryptography that enables secure communication.

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22
Q

What is OWASP?

A

An international nonprofit that focuses on identifying software vulnerabilities and educating developers in secure coding practices.

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23
Q

What are some common software vulnerabilities identified by OWASP?

A

Broken Access Control; Cryptographic Failures; Injection; Insecure Design; Security Misconfiguration; Vulnerable and Outdated Components; Identification and Authentication Failures; Software and Data Integrity Failures; Security Logging and Monitoring Failures; Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF).

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24
Q

What are Joint Operating Agreements?

A

Agreements that provide nearby relocation sites to limit disruption to the organization’s own facility.

25
Q

What is the OSI Model?

A

A model consisting of seven layers: Physical; Data Link; Network; Transport; Session; Presentation; Application.

26
Q

What is SSO?

A

Single Sign-On; allows a user to access multiple applications with a single set of credentials.

27
Q

What is the Cross-Certification Model?

A

A model where every participating organization must review and approve every other organization; does not scale well.

28
Q

What is FPE (Format-Preserving Encryption)?

A

A technique used to scramble data while keeping its structural arrangement.

29
Q

What are Logging Levels?

A

Levels of logging: OFF > FATAL > ERROR > WARN > INFO > DEBUG > TRACE > ALL.

30
Q

What does the OFF logging level do?

A

Turns off logging.

31
Q

What does the FATAL logging level indicate?

A

Indicates a serious problem or corruption; the application is about to stop.

32
Q

What does the ERROR logging level indicate?

A

Indicates an inability to access a service/file; a severe issue is stopping functions within the application.

33
Q

What does the WARN logging level indicate?

A

Indicates an unexpected application problem.

34
Q

What does the INFO logging level indicate?

A

Indicates normal behavior of applications.

35
Q

What does the DEBUG logging level provide?

A

Provides detailed diagnostic information for troubleshooting.

36
Q

What does the TRACE logging level capture?

A

Captures all details about application behavior, including events in third-party libraries.

37
Q

What does the ALL logging level show?

A

Shows all or custom-defined logs.

38
Q

What is the Management Plane?

A

Technology that allows an admin to remotely manage a fleet of servers and configure cloud resources.

39
Q

Who is the Information Commissioner?

A

Responsible for enforcing the UK’s GDPR and offering advice to groups whose information is held.

40
Q

What is the NIS Directive (EU2016/1148)?

A

The first piece of EU-wide cybersecurity legislation; requires notification to competent authorities.

41
Q

What is NIST 800-145?

A

The NIST definition of Cloud Computing; describes a model for enabling on-demand network access to shared computing resources.

42
Q

What is NIST 800-146?

A

Describes cloud computing benefits and guidelines for organizations regarding opportunities and risks.

43
Q

What are Functional requirements?

A

Performance aspects necessary for a business task; e.g., a salesperson must connect to the organization’s network remotely.

44
Q

What are Nonfunctional requirements?

A

Aspects that are desired but not necessary for a business task; e.g., the remote connection must be secure.

45
Q

What are DFDs (Data Flow Diagrams)?

A

Useful in systems/software engineering to establish functional requirements before technology selection.

46
Q

What is Eucalyptus?

A

Software for building AWS-compatible private/hybrid cloud computing environments; supports multitenancy.

47
Q

What is ISO/IEC 17788?

A

An overview of cloud computing and a set of terms and definitions.

48
Q

What is NIST 500-292?

A

Guidance on the adoption of cloud computing into the Federal Government.

49
Q

What is Metastructure?

A

Protocols and mechanisms that provide the interface between the infrastructure layer and other layers.

50
Q

What is PRE (Proxy Re-Encryption)?

A

Allows a proxy to convert ciphertext encrypted under one key into an encryption of the same message under another key.

51
Q

What is Software-Defined Infrastructure?

A

Technical computing infrastructure entirely under the control of software with no human intervention.

52
Q

What is Chaos Engineering?

A

A method of testing software that introduces failure scenarios to verify resilience.

53
Q

What is Microsoft’s Security Development Lifecycle (SDL)?

A

A software development process aimed at reducing security issues and vulnerabilities.

54
Q

What is NIST 800-92?

A

Guidance on log management.

55
Q

What is NIST 800-40?

A

Guidance on enterprise patch management planning.

56
Q

What are the types of backups?

A

Full, Copy, Differential, Incremental.

57
Q

What is a Differential backup?

A

Backs up all data changed since the last full backup; quicker than a full backup but uses more storage until the next full backup.

58
Q

What is an Incremental backup?

A

Backs up data that changed since the last backup; time-consuming to restore data.