Chapter 11 Determinants and Assessment of Pulmonary Function Flashcards

1
Q

1) The nurse is assessing a patient with an endotracheal tube and notes decreased breath sounds on the left with normal sounds on the right. Which condition may cause this?
Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
Select all that apply.
1. Pressure from a right pneumothorax
2. Misplacement of the endotracheal tube
3. High pulmonary pressures
4. Partial obstruction of the endotracheal tube
5. A large infiltrate in the left lung

A

Answer: 2, 5
Explanation: 1. A right pneumothorax would present with decreased sounds on the right.
2. The right bronchus is larger than the left bronchus and is at almost a straight angle with the trachea. This anatomical difference makes it easy for the tip of the endotracheal tube to slip into the right bronchus, depriving the left lung of air. This results in decreased breath sounds on the left.
3. High pulmonary pressures would affect both sides equally.
4. A partially obstructed endotracheal tube would affect both sides equally.
5. A large infiltrate in the left lung will decrease air movement through the tissues. This change in air movement will decrease breath sounds on the affected side

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2
Q

2) A patient with pulmonary edema has a respiratory rate of 28 per minute. The nurse plans care for this patient based on which change in the lungs?
1. Decreased work of breathing
2. Reduced muscle activity
3. Dehydration of lung tissues
4. Decreased compliance

A

Answer: 4
Explanation: 1. A respiratory rate of 28 is evidence of increased work of breathing.
2. It requires more muscle activity to breathe at a rate of 28.
3. Pulmonary edema results from retention of fluid in the lung tissues.
4. Decreased compliance increases the work of breathing and causes a decreased tidal volume. The breathing rate increases to compensate for the decreased tidal volume. Examples of pulmonary disorders causing decreased lung compliance include pulmonary edema.

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3
Q

3) The patient has been diagnosed with early stage pneumonia. The nurse would anticipate which laboratory results?
1. Increased PaO2 and increased PaCO2
2. Decreased PaO2 and normal PaCO2
3. Normal PaO2 and elevated PaCO2
4. Decreased PaO2 and increased PaCO2

A

Answer: 2
Explanation: 1. Presence of pneumonia will not result in an increase in oxygen.
2. In the early stages of pneumonia the alveolar surface area is reduced and the alveolar-capillary membrane begins to thicken, causing diffusion abnormalities. Oxygen and carbon dioxide do not diffuse at the same rate. Carbon dioxide diffuses 20 times faster than oxygen; therefore, hypoxemia may be present with a normal PaCO2. Only when the condition progresses untreated will the PaCO2 rise.
3. PaCO2 will rise only after the disease has progressed.
4. Oxygen will decrease, but PaCO2 will not rise initially.

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4
Q

4) The nurse is assessing an 80-year-old patient who has no underlying respiratory pathology but whose carbon dioxide level is slightly elevated. The nurse would contribute this increase to which changes associated with normal aging?
Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
Select all that apply.
1. Alveolar-capillary membrane thinning
2. Increase in total lung surface area
3. Increase in size of the airways
4. Increase in air trapping
5. Overgrowth of alveo

A

Answer: 3, 4
Explanation: 1. The alveolar-capillary membrane thickens with aging, which may result in hypoxemia and/or hypercapnia if the older patient becomes ill.
2. As a person ages, there is a normal decrease in the total lung surface area.
3. Aging results in an increase in size of the airways, which increases dead space ventilation. This can lead to carbon dioxide retention.
4. Older patients may have increased air trapping due to normal loss of terminal airway supportive structures.
5. As a person ages, alveoli are destroyed. Overgrowth does not occur.
Page Ref: 295

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5
Q

5) The arterial blood gases of a patient with a large mass in the right lung show increasing hypoxemia and the patient will be intubated for placement on a mechanical ventilator. In which position should the nurse place this patient until intubation is begun?
1. Flat in bed lying on the left side
2. Flat in bed lying on the right side
3. Lying on the left side with the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees
4. Lying on the right side with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees

A

Answer: 3
Explanation: 1. Being placed flat in bed will not improve ventilation perfusion. The patient should benefit from being on the left side.
2. This position will not take advantage of gravity or of the body’s natural ventilation tendencies.
3. Positioning the patient at 30 degrees and left side down will lower the diaphragm allowing more expansion and redirect blood flow to the healthy lung because of gravity. Air is naturally drawn toward the diaphragm and because blood is gravity dependent the ventilation-perfusion ratio will be improved.
4. If the right lung is not capable of normal ventilation, redirecting blood flow would result in a ventilation-perfusion mismatch.

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6
Q

6) A patient, diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis, presents with Kussmaul respirations at a rate of 28. A newly licensed nurse asks the patient to try to slow his breathing. What instruction should the preceptor provide?
1. “Keep trying to slow the patient’s respirations because breathing so fast is hard on his heart.”
2. “If he keeps breathing like that he will develop respiratory acidosis.”
3. “Let the patient set his respiratory rate as rapid breathing helps to compensate for his acidosis.”
4. “The patient is breathing deeply to help offset diabetes-induced hypoxemia.”

A

Answer: 3
Explanation: 1. Breathing rapidly does increase strain on the heart, but the rapid respirations in this situation are helpful to the patient and should not be discouraged.
2. Breathing rapidly and deeply as in Kussmaul’s respirations will not result in respiratory acidosis.
3. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis has a primary metabolic acidosis. As a compensatory mechanism to regain acid-base homeostasis, alveolar hyperventilation occurs in an attempt to blow off carbon dioxide and drive the pH upward toward alkaline. The respiratory buffer system is a rapid-response compensatory mechanism for metabolic acid-base disturbances.
4. The patient does not have diabetes-induced hypoxemia.

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7
Q

7) A postoperative patient’s nasogastric drainage has been 500 mL in the last 8 hours. The nurse would assess this patient for findings associated with which acid-base imbalance?
1. Metabolic alkalosis
2. Metabolic acidosis
3. Respiratory acidosis
4. Respiratory alkalosis

A

Answer: 1
Explanation: 1. The loss of acidic gastric fluid from nasogastric suction can result in metabolic alkalosis.
2. Loss of body fluids from lower abdominal drains would result in loss of bicarbonate and produce metabolic acidosis.
3. The respiratory system is not involved in the development of this acid-base imbalance.
4. The respiratory system is not involved in this acid-base imbalance.

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8
Q

9) A patient’s arterial blood gases (ABGs) are as follows: pH 7.30, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, HCO3 14 mEq/L, and PaO2 50. The nurse evaluates these ABGs as representing which acid-base imbalance?
1. Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis with moderate hypoxemia
2. Compensated metabolic acidosis with severe hypoxemia
3. Partially compensated metabolic acidosis with moderate hypoxemia
4. Partially compensated respiratory alkalosis with mild hypoxemia

A

Answer: 3
Explanation: 1. These ABGs do not represent an uncompensated state.
2. These ABGs do not represent a fully compensated state because the pH is not normal.
3. The patient has a partially compensated metabolic acidosis with moderate hypoxemia because the pH is still within the acid range. The HCO3 is the primary acidic metabolic component causing the acidic pH. In an attempt to correct the metabolic acidosis, the CO2 is being blown off as indicated by the alkaline PaCO2. The PaO2 falls within the moderate range of hypoxemia (60 to 40 mm Hg).
4. These ABGs do not indicate respiratory alkalosis.

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9
Q

8) A patient was extubated in the postanesthesia recovery room prior to transfer to the intensive care unit (ICU). Upon admission to the ICU the patient is sedated, but will arouse when stimulated. Blood pressure is 106/68 mm/Hg, heart rate is 68 and regular, temperature is 97.8°F, and respirations are 12 bpm. The nurse would monitor this patient for which changes in arterial blood gases?
1. Increase in pH and decrease in PaCO2
2. Increase in pH and increase in HCO3
3. Decrease in pH and increase in PaCO2
4. Decrease in pH and decrease in HCO3

A

Answer: 3
Explanation: 1. An increase in pH and decrease in PaCO2 indicates respiratory alkalosis is occurring. This is not the expected change with this patient.
2. Increase in pH and increase in HCO3 indicates metabolic alkalosis. This is not the expected change with this patient.
3. The patient is at risk for respiratory acidosis, which is associated with these arterial blood gas (ABG) changes, as a result of decreased, shallow respirations that can cause alveolar hypoventilation. Carbon dioxide is not being blown off and carbonic acid levels can rise.
4. Decrease in pH and decrease in HCO3 indicates metabolic acidosis. This is not the expected change in this patient.

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10
Q

11) The nurse is assessing the nutritional intake of a patient diagnosed with chronic carbon dioxide retention. Which patient report indicates the patient requires additional information about dietary choices?
1. “I try to eat salad with lunch every day.”
2. “I drink a cup of coffee in the morning with breakfast.”
3. “I usually eat a sandwich and pasta salad for lunch.”
4. “I have been trying to increase the protein in my diet.”

A

Answer: 3
Explanation: 1. Salad is a low-fat, high-fiber option that would benefit this patient’s nutrition.
2. There is no indication that coffee is not appropriate for this patient.
3. The patient who retains carbon dioxide should avoid high carbohydrate meals. Carbohydrates increase the overall carbon dioxide load in the body.
4. A protein-calorie deficit weakens muscles, including respiratory muscles. The patient’s attempts to increase protein in the diet should be reinforced.

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11
Q

10) A patient’s PaO2 level is 76 mm Hg. The nurse would be least concerned regarding this finding in which patient?
1. The patient is 83 years old.
2. The patient is recovering from anesthesia.
3. The patient is a smoker.
4. The patient is intubated.

A

Answer: 1
Explanation: 1. Age affects normal ABG values. The older adult has a 25% to 30% decrease in PaO2 between the ages of 30 and 80 years.
2. Low oxygen levels in a patient who is recovering from anesthesia would alert the nurse to a possible problem.
3. Smoking can decrease oxygenation, but the nurse would be concerned if the level was this low.
4. The patient who is intubated should have a PaO2 higher than 76 mm Hg. The nurse would be concerned about an obstruction in the tube or developing pathology.

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12
Q

13) The nurse is auscultating a patient’s lung fields and hears a coarse sound like bubbling water. The sounds are heard best on expiration and in the center of the patient’s chest. How should the nurse document these sounds?
1. Crackles
2. Rhonchi
3. Wheeze
4. Stridor

A

Answer: 2
Explanation: 1. Crackles are discrete, delicate popping sounds heard best on inspiration.
2. Rhonchi are course bubbly sounds that frequently occur during expiration and are heard over the larger airways.
3. Wheezes are musical sounds that may be high-pitched or low-pitched. They are heard both on inspiration and expiration and are of long duration.
4. Stridor is a type of wheeze. It is high-pitched, inspiratory, and heard best over the neck.

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13
Q

12) The patient complains that he awakens “two or three” times every night because he is so short of breath. The nurse would ask additional assessment questions about which condition?
1. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
2. Pneumonia
3. Stroke
4. Kidney infection

A

Answer: 1
Explanation: 1. The patient is describing episodes of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, which is related to left ventricular failure. The prolonged supine position allows dependent fluid from the lower extremities to recirculate causing volume overload and sudden severe dyspnea.
2. Pneumonia results in consolidation of lung tissue. It is not associated with sudden dyspnea during the night.
3. There is no indication that a neurological problem is causing this patient’s symptoms.
4. There is no indication that this patient is experiencing shortness of breath at night due to a kidney infection. Kidney infection might result in need to urinate frequently during the night.

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14
Q

14) The nurse is planning to use a respiratory spirometer to measure the amount of air that moves in and out of a patient’s lungs with each normal breath. How will the nurse document the results of this test?
1. Tidal volume
2. Vital capacity
3. Forced expiratory volume
4. Minute ventilation

A

Answer: 1
Explanation: 1. Tidal volume is the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs with each normal breath.
2. Vital capacity is the maximum amount of air expired after a maximal inspiration.
3. Forced expiratory volume testing generally is not conducted as a bedside trending parameter.
4. Minute ventilation is the total volume of expired air in 1 minute and is not a direct measurement but a simple calculation.

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15
Q

15) A patient is undergoing testing to differentiate her airway disorder as being restrictive or obstructive. The nurse would evaluate a normal result on which test to indicate a restrictive disorder is present?
1. Vital capacity
2. Tidal volume
3. Minute ventilation
4. Forced expiratory volume

A

Answer: 4
Explanation: 1. Vital capacity is the maximum amount of air expired after a maximal inspiration. Vital capacity decreases in the presence of restrictive pulmonary diseases.
2. Tidal volume is the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs with each normal breath. Tidal volume decreases when lung diseases exist. Results do not differentiate between restrictive and obstructive disorders.
3. Minute ventilation measures total lung ventilation changes. It may be abnormal in either restrictive or obstructive diseases.
4. Forced expiratory volume measures how rapidly a person can forcefully exhale air after a maximal inhalation, measuring volume over time. Patients who have a restrictive airway problem can push air forcefully out of their lungs at a normal rate.

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16
Q

16) A 40-year-old postoperative patient has a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL and an SaO2 of 95%. Considering all aspects, what conclusion would the nurse make about this patient’s condition?
1. The patient is stable and at no special risk.
2. Oxygenation is adequate for a postoperative patient.
3. This patient has a potential risk of hypoxia.
4. The patient’s SaO2 is higher than expected for the patient’s age.

A

Answer: 3
Explanation: 1. This patient’s test results do indicate a risk potential.
2. It is not possible to accurately assess this patient’s true oxygenation status from the test results provided.
3. The patient has a potential risk for hypoxia because SaO2 is the measure of percentage of oxygen combined with hemoglobin compared to the total amount it could carry. Although the patient’s SaO2 is within normal range, the hemoglobin is only 8 g/dL, indicating that all 8 grams are adequately being saturated. Should the patient’s oxygen demand increase, as it frequently will in a postoperative patient, the potential for hypoxia may exist because of the lower hemoglobin and inability to carry more oxygen to meet the demand.
4. The SaO2 is within normal limits for the patient’s age; however, its applicability to oxygenation is in doubt.

17
Q

17) A nurse is participating on a committee charged with the task of choosing capnography equipment for a new emergency department (ED). The nurse should present which information regarding these choices?
Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
Select all that apply.
1. Sidestream analyzers provide direct real-time measurements of ETCO2.
2. Mainstream analyzers require the patient to be intubated.
3. Colorimetric capnography is useful for determining accurate placement of endotracheal tubes.
4. Mainstream analyzers provide continuous ETCO2 measurements.
5. Colorimetric measurement provides a wide range of color results that are compared to a standard chart.

A

Answer: 2, 3, 4
Explanation: 1. The major disadvantage of sidestream analyzers is that values are indirect estimated measurements.
2. A major disadvantage to the mainstream technique is that it requires the patient to be intubated.
3. Colorimetric capnography can be used in the ED or in the field to determine accurate placement of endotracheal tubes.
4. Mainstream analyzers are placed in-line as part of the airway circuit and continuously measure the ETCO2. The measurement is real-time.
5. Colorimetric measurement responds to the patient’s exhaled CO2 with three color ranges.

18
Q

18) A patient with severe chronic respiratory illness suddenly develops a high fever. The nurse would plan care for this patient based on which understanding of the fever’s impact on the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve?
Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
Select all that apply.
1. The curve will shift to the right.
2. Additional oxygen will be released to the tissues.
3. Life-threatening tissue hypoxia may occur.
4. The change will be similar to what occurs with alkalosis.
5. Hemoglobin will bind more readily to oxygen.

A

Answer: 1, 2, 3
Explanation: 1. Increased temperature causes increased oxygen demand, which shifts the curve to the right.
2. Increasing body temperature increases oxygen demand, so additional oxygen will be released to the tissue to meet this demand.
3. Severe and rapid shifts in the curve can result in life-threatening tissue hypoxia.
4. Alkalosis causes an opposite response in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve and inhibits oxygen release at the tissue level.
5. Hemoglobin binds more readily to oxygen in the lungs when the patient is hypothermic.

19
Q

19) A patient’s PaO2 is 88 mm Hg while on FiO2 of 0.50. What can the nurse conclude about this patient’s intrapulmonary shunt?
Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
Select all that apply.
1. The shunt is estimated to be 176.
2. The shunt is estimated to be 568.
3. The shunt is below the minimum acceptable level.
4. This data has little use in determining oxygenation status of the patient who is retaining CO2.
5. No determination of intrapulmonary shunt can be made from this data.

A

Answer: 1, 3
Explanation: 1. Calculating the P/F ratio is the simplest way to estimate intrapulmonary shunt. In this case, the value is 176.
2. This is not a valid estimation of intrapulmonary shunt.
3. The minimum acceptable level is higher than this estimation of intrapulmonary shunt.
4. As long as the PaCO2 is stable, this estimation is valid and is applicable to oxygenation status.
5. Intrapulmonary shunt can be estimated by comparing this data.

20
Q

20) A nurse who is evaluating a patient’s arterial blood gases (ABGs) has determined that the patient’s pH is acidic. What is the next question the nurse would ask in this interpretation?
1. Is the patient symptomatic of an acidic condition?
2. Which individual ABG component matches the pH acid-base state?
3. Is the PaCO2 within normal range?
4. Is the acidosis compensated or uncompensated?

A

Answer: 3
Explanation: 1. The patient’s symptoms are not considered at this point in the evaluation.
2. The nurse has not yet assessed the components, so this question is premature.
3. After determining the pH status, the next step is evaluation of PaCO2.
4. Compensation is not assessed at this point.