Chapter 11 Flashcards

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1
Q

Most frequently reported section in the CPT and is located first in the manual

A

E/M section

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2
Q

Types of services rendered

A

Office visits, hospital visits, and consultations

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3
Q

The assignment of codes from the E/M section is determined by three factors

A
  1. place of service
  2. type of service
  3. patient status
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4
Q

Why are the place/type of service and patient status important in coding procedures and services in this section?

A

Place and type of service have an obvious impact on the complexity and cost of patient treatment

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5
Q

Place of service explains

A

the setting

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6
Q

Types of services include

A

consultations, admissions, office visits, prolonged services, etc.

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7
Q

define consultation

A

request to obtain an opinion or advice about a diagnosis or management option from another physician or other appropriate source

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8
Q

define admission

A

attention to an acute illness or injury that results in admission to a hospital

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9
Q

define office visit

A

face-to-face encounter physician and a patient that allows for primary management of the patient’s health care status

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10
Q

Four patient status types consist of

A

new patient
established patient
outpatient
inpatient

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11
Q

Patient who has not received professional service in the past three years from the physician now providing services or from another physician with the exact same specialty and subspecialty who is in the same medical group as that physician

A

new patient

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12
Q

Why is the treatment of a new patient more labor intensive for physicians and staff than treatment of an established patient?

A

New patients require more extensive workups to determine their current medical status

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13
Q

Any patient not classified as as new

A

established patient

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14
Q

What differences would you expect in the way third-party payers process claims for new and established patients treated for the same condition during an office visit?

A

New patients require a higher level of service than do established patients, a higher level of reimbursement would be made for treatment of the new patient than for treatment of the established patient.

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15
Q

Patients that have not been formally admitted to a health care facility. Treated in a clinic, a same-day surgery center, or in a hospital under observation status

A

Outpatient

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16
Q

When are inpatient services coded?

A

Third-party carriers prohibit billing for both the original outpatient and subsequent inpatient services when delivered on the same day

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17
Q

Patients who have been formally admitted to a health care facility including a hospital or nursing facility

A

Inpatient

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18
Q

During inpatient visits, the physician may

A

admission orders, request consultations, order any services or procedures required to meet the patient’s immediate needs following admission.

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19
Q

Must the admitting physician be present at the health care facility during the admission to bill for initial inpatient services required by the patient?

A

No. These services may be provided at another facility

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20
Q

Dictates admission orders, dictates history and physical examinations, requests consultations, and orders services and procedures

A

attending physician

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21
Q

Levels of E/M services are based on

A

documented evidence found in the patient’s medical record of the nature of the presenting problem, and amounts of skill, effort required or assumed, time, responsibility, and medical knowledge used by the physician to provide service to the patient

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22
Q

foundation for the level of service

A

nature of the presenting problem

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23
Q

How would you expect the E/M level to change if a physician’s assistant provided a service, rather than the physician?

A

A physician’s assistant has less medical knowledge and less responsibility than the physician does. As a result, compensation may be less when services are performed by a PA

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24
Q

What is important when determining reimbursement for E/M services and procedures

A

level of service is the main consideration

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25
Q

The greater the level of each key component or contributory factor required to treat a patient, the ____ the level of service coded

A

higher

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26
Q

Key components are

A

history, examination, and medical decision making

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27
Q

Contributory factors are

A

conditions that help the physician determine the extent of the history, examination, and decision making required to treat the patient

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28
Q

Four contributory factors used are

A

counseling, coordination of care, nature of the presenting complaint, and time

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29
Q

The nature of the presenting complaint will (2)

A
  1. determine the need for counseling and coordination of care and whether time is a factor to be considered
  2. influence the extent of history, examination, and decision making required
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30
Q

Four elements of a history

A
  1. chief complaint
  2. history of present illness
  3. review of systems
  4. past, family, and/or social history
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31
Q

Why is it important to have the CC stated in the patient’s own words?

A

When stated in the patient’s own words, the C is an unaltered account of the reason for the visit

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32
Q

History of Present Illness consists of

A

subjective information provided by the patient

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33
Q

History of Present Illness is a

A

chronological description of how the patient’s present illness developed from the first sign and/or symptom or from the previous encounter to the present

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34
Q

History of Present Illness includes

A

location, quality, severity, duration, timing, context modifying factors, and associated signs and symptoms

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35
Q

HPI is ordinarily obtained as part of a

A

dialogue between patient and physician

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36
Q

Who must document the HPI?

A

the provider

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37
Q

quality

A

description of the pain or symptom

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38
Q

quality includes

A

sharp, throbbing, burning, constant, dull, and squeezing

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39
Q

duration

A

how long has the pain been present

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40
Q

severity

A

is the pain intense, moderate, mild

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41
Q

location

A

specific location of pain

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42
Q

severity

A

progression from onset to current time frame

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43
Q

timing

A

when it occurs – continuously, at night, in the morning –can also mean the frequency of when it occurs

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44
Q

differences in timing may suggest

A

different diagnoses and treatment plans

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45
Q

context

A

the circumstances in which the CC occurs – when does it hurt most or is there correlation to a specific activity

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46
Q

modifying factors

A

the circumstances that make the CC better or worse

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47
Q

determining the level of history: brief and extended

A

details required to use the category

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48
Q

determining the level of history: brief

A

1 to 3 elements are in the notes

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49
Q

determining the level of history: extended

A

4 or more elements in the notes

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50
Q

ROS definition

A

a thorough inventory of anatomical body systems obtained through a series of question designed to identify signs and symptoms the patient may be experiencing

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51
Q

Why is the ROS needed?

A

Patients may be so focused on their CC that they overlook other signs and symptoms that could be important to the diagnosis and treatment

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52
Q

ROS is the

A

series of questions the physician asks or reviews in the patient’s medical record when trying to identify signs and/or symptoms the patient may be experiencing or has experienced

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53
Q

the extent of the ROS depends on

A

the CC

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54
Q

Medical necessity for the number of ROSs inventoried must be

A

implied or documented

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55
Q

Systems (14)

A
  1. constitutional symptoms
  2. ophthalmologic
  3. otolaryngologic
  4. cardiovascular
  5. respiratory
  6. gastrointestinal
  7. genitourinary
  8. musculoskeletal
  9. integumentary
  10. neurological
  11. psychiatric
  12. endocrine
  13. hematologic/lymphatic
  14. allergic/immunologic
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56
Q

Problem-pertinent ROS includes

A

the patient’s responses for the system related only to the problem – 1 system is evaluated by the physician in the ROS

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57
Q

Expanded ROS includes

A

the patient’s responses for 2 to 9 of the systems

58
Q

Complete ROS includes

A

the system(s) noted in the HPI and all additional body systems; at least 10 of the 14 organ systems must be reviewed

59
Q

Past history is the

A

patient’s illnesses, operations, hospitalizations, injuries. allergies, current medications, immunizations, and dietary status

60
Q

Social history is a

A

set of questions relating to oast and current activities common for the patient’s age

61
Q

Social history contains

A

relevant information about living arrangements, other relevant social factors, and social drug/tobacco/alcohol use

62
Q

Family history includes the

A

medical events in the patient’s family including diseases that may be hereditary, could put the patient at risk, or are relevant to the patient’s chief complaint

63
Q

Pertinent PFSH reviews the

A

history area(s) for the CC. At least 1 item from any of the 3 history areas must be noted

64
Q

Complete PFSH reviews ____ or all three of the areas, depending on the level of service

A

2

65
Q

Established office visits must have

A

2 of the 3 areas documented

66
Q

New patient office-visits must have

A

all 3 areas documented

67
Q

Initial visits require at least

A

one item from all three PFSH areas

68
Q

For subsequent hospital care, followup inpatient consultation, and subsequent nursing facility care, the CPT only requires

A

an “interval” history, the the PFSH

69
Q

What is the goal with a problem-focused history?

A

To obtain detailed information about the CC and the chronology of the development of associated symptoms

70
Q

Brief HPI of a problem-focused history

A

1-3 of the eight elements of the HPI

71
Q

Problem-focused history has a brief HPI but no

A

ROS or PFSH

72
Q

Brief HPI of an expanded problem-focused history

A

1-3 of the eight elements or 1-2 chronic problems

73
Q

ROS of expanded problem-focused history

A

as it pertains to the presenting problem

74
Q

Expanded problem-focused history has no PFSH but has

A

an ROS and a Brief HPI

75
Q

How does the expanded problem-focused history differ from the problem-focused history?

A

With the expanded problem-focused history, information about the body system affected by the chief complaint is obtained, as in the HPI

76
Q

A detailed history has an

A

Extended HPI, Extended ROS, and a Pertinent PFSH

77
Q

Extended HPI of a detailed history

A

4 or more of the 8 elements

3 or more of the chronic conditions

78
Q

Extended ROS of a detailed history

A

2-9 elements

79
Q

Pertinent PFSH of a detailed history

A

1 of the 3 histories

80
Q

How does the detailed history differ from the problem-focused or expanded problem-focused history?

A

The detailed history expands on the information gathered for the expanded problem focused history to include information about additional organ systems that may be related to the treatment of the current problem and to include pertinent personal and family information and family information

81
Q

Extended HPI of a comprehensive history

A

4 or more of the 8 elements

3 or more chronic conditions

82
Q

Complete ROS of a comprehensive history

A

10 or more elements

83
Q

Complete PFSH of a comprehensive history

A

2 or 3 histories (2 for an establish patient and 3 for a new patient)

84
Q

Why is a comprehensive history not taken in all cases?

A

A great deal of time and effort is required to take a comprehensive patient history

85
Q

The extent of examinations performed and documented depends on (2)

A
  1. clinical judgement

2. nature of the presenting problem(s)

86
Q

The examinations range from (2)

A
  1. limited exams of single body areas

2. general multi-system or complete single-organ system exams

87
Q

Body areas include the following:

A

head, including the face; neck; chest, including breasts and axillae; abdomen; genitalia, groin, buttocks; back, including the spine; each extremity

88
Q

Organ systems include

A

constitutional; eyes; ears, nose, mouth, and throat; cardiovascular; respiratory; gastrointestinal; genitourinary; musculoskeletal; skin; neurologic(al); psychiatric; and hematological/lymphatic/immunologic

89
Q

Problem-focused exam is limited to

A

1 body area or organ system

90
Q

Expanded problem-focused exam is the

A

affected body area or organ system and other symptomatic or related organ system(s) with the requirements of 2 to 7 body areas and/organ systems

91
Q

Detailed exam includes

A

an extended exam of the affected body area(s) or organ system(s) and other symptomatic or related organ systems with the requirements of 2 to 7 body areas and/or organ systems

92
Q

Comprehensive exam includes

A

a general multisystem exam or a complete exam of a single organ system with requirements of 8 or more body areas and/or organ systems

93
Q

1995 CMS Guidelines (Body areas/organ systems): problem focused

A

limited to the affected 1 BA or OS

94
Q

1995 CMS Guidelines (Body areas/organ systems): expanded-problem focused

A

limited to the affect BA or OS and other related OS(s): 2-7 limited

95
Q

1995 CMS Guidelines (Body areas/organ systems): detailed

A

extended of the affected BA(s) and other related OS(s): 2-7 extended

96
Q

1995 CMS Guidelines (Body areas/organ systems): comprehensive

A

General multisystem (OSs only)

97
Q

1997 CMS Guidelines (Bulleted elements): problem focused

A

fewer than 6 bullets

98
Q

1997 CMS Guidelines (Bulleted elements): expanded-problem focused

A

6 or more bullets

99
Q

1997 CMS Guidelines (Bulleted elements): detailed

A

12 or more bullets

100
Q

1997 CMS Guidelines (Bulleted elements): comprehensive

A

18 or more bullets

101
Q

1997 CMS Guidelines (multisystem exam): detailed examination

A

At least 2 bullets from any 6 BAs/OSs

At least 12 bullets from 2 or more BAs/OSs

102
Q

1997 CMS Guidelines (multisystem exam): comprehensive examination

A

All bullets in at least 9 BAs/OSs and document at least 2 bullets from each side of the 9 BAs/OSs

103
Q

Single-System Examinations

A

Ear, Nose Throat exam; Eye exam, Genitourinary exam, Hematologic/Lymphatic/Immunologic exam, Musculoskeletal exam, Neurological exam, Psychiatric exam, Respiratory exam, and Skin exam

104
Q

CMS 1997 Guidelines (multisystem): problem focused

A

1 to 5 elements identified by a bullet

105
Q

CMS 1997 Guidelines (multisystem exam): expanded problem focused

A

at least 6 elements divided by a bullet

106
Q

CMS 1997 Guidelines (multisystem exam): detailed

A

at least 12 elements identified by a bullet

107
Q

CMS 1997 Guidelines (multisystem exam): comprehensive

A

Perform all elements identified by a bullet; document every element in each box with a shaded border and at least 1 element in each box with an unshaded border

108
Q

swelling of tissues, usually in the lower limbs, die to accumulation of fluids

A

peripheral edema

109
Q

1995 Guidelines: Problem focused exam

A

1 affected organ system or body area

110
Q

1995 Guidelines: Expanded problem-focused exam

A

limited exam of 2-7 organ systems and/or body areas

111
Q

1995 Guidelines: Detailed exam

A

Extended exam of 2-7 organs systems and/or body areas

112
Q

1995 Guidelines: Comprehensive exam

A

8 or more organ systems or body areas - a general multisystem exam

113
Q

unaffected or asymptomatic organ system is listed as

A

“negative” or “normal”

114
Q

Medical decision making includes

A
  1. how complex the physician’s decision is to determine the diagnosis and/or choose the plan to manage the situation
  2. the amount and/or complexity of data to review
  3. the risk of significant complications, morbidity, and/or mortality
115
Q

problems that are improving or resolving…

A

take less decision making than diagnoses that are worsening or failing to change as expected

116
Q

Treatments include

A

management options consisting of patient instructions, nursing instructions, therapies, and medications

117
Q

For referrals, consultations requested, or advice sought, the notes should state…

A

the specifics about “who”

118
Q

point system: self-limited, minor, or improving

A

1 pt. (max. 2 pts. per case)

119
Q

a problem that runs a definite and prescribed course, is transient in nature, and is not likely to permanently alter health status OR has a good prognosis with management/compliance

A

self-limited or minor

120
Q

point system: established patient; stable/improved

A

1 pt

121
Q

point system: each established worsening problems

A

2 pts.

122
Q

point system: a new problem with no additional work planned

A

3 pts.

123
Q

point system: a new problem with additional workup planned

A

4 pts.

124
Q

workup

A

the procedures done to arrive at a diagnosis, including history taking, laboratory tests, x-rays, and so on

125
Q

diagnosis/management: minimal

A

1 pt or less

126
Q

diagnosis/management: limited

A

2 pts

127
Q

diagnosis/management: multiple

A

3 pts

128
Q

diagnosis/management: extensive

A

4 pts or more

129
Q

Amount and/or Complexity of Data to Review covers

A

the types of diagnostic testing ordered or reviewed

130
Q

All tests and procedures should be _____, whether ordered, planned, scheduled, or performed at the time of service

A

documented

131
Q

An entry in a chart note such as “WBC elevated” or “chest x-ray unremarkable” documents a review of a test but must include

A

the physician’s initials and date on the report

132
Q

Statements including “old records reviewed” or “additional history obtained from family”…

A

do NOT document the physician’s review in the patient’s record

133
Q

Risk of Significant Complications, Morbidity, and/or Mortality includes

A

risks associated with the CC, diagnostic procedure(s), and possible management options

134
Q

Self-limited, minor problem runs

A

a definite and prescribed course, is transient in nature, and is not likely to alter health status permanently or has a positive prognosis with management and compliance

135
Q

Level of Risk is based on the:

A
  1. Presenting Problem
  2. Diagnostic Procedures Order
  3. Management Options Selected
136
Q

Presenting Problem is the ____ column

A

first

137
Q

Diagnostic Procedures Ordered is the _____ column

A

second

138
Q

Management Options Selected is the _____ column

A

third

139
Q

The overall measure of risk is the

A

highest level circled

140
Q

Steps for choosing the E/M Code

A

New or established patient?
Identify the place of service
Choose the code matching the level of service
(NP = 3 of 3, EP = 2 of 3)

141
Q

Choosing the Correct E/M Level: new-patient

A

All 3 of the key components must meet or exceed the stated CPT requirements for the code

142
Q

Choosing the Correct E/M Level: established-patient

A

2 of the 3 key components must meet or exceed the stated CPT requirements