Chapter 11, 12, 13, & 14 Flashcards
1
Q
——— are the “signs of life” or outward signs that give clues to what is happening inside the body.
A
Vital signs
2
Q
The vital signs that you will measure are:
A
-respiration
-pulse
-skin
-pupils
-blood pressure
-pulse oximetry (SpO2)
3
Q
What are the other vital signs an EMT may perform?
A
-capnography (EtCO2)
-blood glucose
-pain assessment
-body temp
4
Q
Taking —- or more sets of vital signs and comparing them will reveal changes in the patients condition and may indicate how effectively you are managing the patients injury or illness, or if the patient is deteriorating.
A
Two
5
Q
The first set of measurements you take are known as the ——-, to which subsequent measurements can be compared
A
Baseline vital signs
6
Q
Vital signs in stable patients should be taken every — minutes, whereas vital signs in an unstable patient should be taken every — minutes
A
-15
-5
7
Q
What is a sphygmomanometer?
A
Blood pressure cuff
8
Q
What are the vital signs to be assessed for respiration?
A
-respiratory rate
-respiratory quality
-respiratory rhythm
9
Q
The —— is assessed by observing the patients chest rise and fall
A
Respiratory rate
10
Q
Typically, respiratory rates that are less than — or greater than — per minute are of concern
A
-8
-24
11
Q
The resting respiratory rate of the elderly is typically higher, with an average of —- to —- breaths per minute
A
20 to 24
12
Q
Any adult patient breathing at a rate greater than — per minute or an infant or young child breathing greater than — per minute should receive assisted ventilation
A
-40
-60
13
Q
Range of normal respirations per min in adults and adolescents age 12-15
A
12-20
14
Q
Range of normal respirations per min in a preschooler 3-5 years
A
20-28
15
Q
Range of normal respirations per min in a toddler 1-2 years
A
22-37
16
Q
Range of normal respirations per min in an infant less than or greater to 1 year
A
30-53
17
Q
Range of normal respirations per min in neonate birth -1 month
A
40-60
18
Q
The quality of respiration is an assessment of ——
A
Tidal volume
19
Q
A —— quality correlates with an —— tidal volume, whereas an —— quality is usually an indication of an —— tidal volume
A
-normal quality, adequate tidal volume
-abnormal quality, inadequate tidal volume
20
Q
——- respiration involves average chest wall motion, which is at least 1 inch of expansion in an outward direction
A
Normal
21
Q
——- respiration is indicated by only slight chest or abdominal wall expansion upon inhalation
A
Shallow
22
Q
——- respiration, where the patient is working hard to breathe, is indicated by an abnormal sound of breathing that may include grunting or stridor; the use of accessory muscles in the neck, chest, or abdomen to breathe; nasal flaring and sometimes gasping
A
Labored
23
Q
—— respiration, or an abnormal sound of breathing may include snoring, wheezing, gurgling, crowing, or stridor
A
Noisy
24
Q
What is the potential cause of snoring?
A
Tongue partially blocking the upper airway at the level of the pharynx
25
What is the potential cause of gurgling?
Fluid in the upper airway
26
What is the potential cause of stridor or crowing?
Partial obstruction of the upper airway at the level of the larynx
27
What is the potential cause of wheezing?
Constriction (narrowing) and inflammation reducing the internal diameter of the bronchioles in the lungs
28
What is the potential cause of crackles or rales?
Fluid surrounding and filling the alveoli
29
What is the potential cause of rhonchi?
Mucus blocking the larger bronchioles
30
The respiratory rate and tidal volume gradually increase and gradually decrease followed by a period of apnea for up to 10 seconds, what is this known as?
Cheyne stokes
31
Similar to cheyne stokes except that the tidal volume doesn’t change, but the respiratory pattern is interrupted by a period of apnea, what is this known as?
Biot
32
Characterized by prolonged periods of inhalation, what is this known as?
Apneustic
33
An irregular pattern of rate and tidal volume, what is this known as?
Ataxic
34
Long periods of apnea with a gasping breath interposed, what is this known as?
Agonal
35
A rapid respiratory rate with a deep and labored tidal volume, what is this known as?
Kussmaul
36
A sustained deep and rapid respiratory rate of at least 25 breaths per minute with a regular pattern, what is this known as?
Central neurogenic hyperventilation
37
Abnormal respiratory patterns include?
-cheyne stokes
-biot
-Apneustic
-ataxic
-Agonal
-kussmaul
-central neurogenic hyperventilation
38
Taking the —- provides a measurement of heart rate and an assessment of pulse quality and rhythm.
Pulse
39
The —— is the pressure wave generated by the contraction of the left ventricle
Pulse
40
The pulses that can be found on either side of the neck in the groove between the trachea and the muscle mass are called?
Carotid artery
41
The pulses that can be found in the crease between the lower abdomen and the upper thigh, what is this called?
Femoral artery
42
The pulses that can be found proximal to the thumb on the palmar surface of the wrist, what are these called
Radial artery
43
The pulses that can be found on the medial aspect of the arm, midway between the shoulder and the elbow between the biceps and tricep muscles what are these called
Brachial artery
44
The pulses that can be found in the crease behind the knee, what are these called
Popliteal artery
45
The pulses that can be found behind the medial malleolus (ankle bone) what are these called
Posterior tibial artery
46
The pulses that can be found on the top of the foot on the big toe side what are these called
Dorsalis pedis artery
47
A —— pulse should be assessed in all patients 1 year or older
Radial pulse
48
Assess the —— pulse in patients who are less than 1 year of age
Brachial pulse
49
What is the normal heart rate per min in adults and adolescents age 12-15?
60-100
50
What is the normal heart rate per min in a school aged child 6-11 years
75-118
51
What is the normal heart rate per min in a preschooler 3-5 years
80-120
52
What is the normal heart rate per min for a toddler 1-2 years
98-140
53
What is the normal heart rate per min for an infant 1-12 months
100-180
54
What is the normal heart rate per min in neonate birth 1 month
100-205
55
In an adult patient, a heart rate greater than 100 bpm is termed——- and heart rate less than 60 bpm is termed ———-
-tachycardia
-bradycardia
56
What is the possible problem if the pulse is rapid, regular, and full?
Exertion, fright, fever, high blood pressure, or very early stage of blood loss
57
What is the possible problem if the pulse is rapid, regular, and thready
Reliable sign of shock, often evident in early stage of blood loss
58
What is the possible problem when the pulse is slow
Head injury, barbiturate or narcotic use, some poisons, possible cardiac problem or other medical conditions such as hypothyroidism
59
What is the possible problem if a patient has no pulse
Cardiac arrest, profound hypotension
60
This refers to a pulse that is both full and normally strong.
Strong pulse
61
This refers to a pulse that doesn’t feel full or may be difficult to find and palpate.
Weak pulse
62
The general term for a weak, rapid pulse is called?
Thready
63
This refers to a normal pulse that occurs at regular intervals with a smooth rhythm
Regular pulse
64
This refers to a pulse that occurs at irregular intervals which may indicate a cardiac disease
Irregular pulse
65
A —— pulse typically indicates that not enough blood is being ejected from the left ventricle, as associated with volume loss, or that the blood is not being ejected from the left ventricle with enough force, as seen in heart failure
Weak pulse
66
——- is a decrease in the strength of the pulse during the inspirations phase of the patient.
Pulsus paradoxus
67
What is the possible problem if the skin color is pallor (white) ?
Vasoconstriction, blood loss, shock, heart attack, fright, anemia, fainting, or emotional distress
68
What is the possible problem is the skin is cyanotic?
Inadequate oxygenation or perfusion, inadequate respiration, or heart attack
69
What is the possible problem if the skin is flushing or red?
Heat exposure or carbon monoxide poisoning (late)
70
What is the possible problem if the skin is jaundice?
Liver disease
71
What is the possible problem if the skin is mottling (gray blue)?
Blotchy pattern
72
What is the possible problem if the temperature of the patient is hot?
Fever or heat exposure
73
What is the possible problem if the skin temperature is cool?
Poor perfusion or cold exposure
74
What is the possible problem is the skin temperature is cold?
Extreme cold exposure
75
What is the possible problem if the skin is wet or moist?
Shock, heat emergency, or diabetic emergency
76
What is the possible problem if the skin is abnormally dry?
Spinal injury, dehydration, heat stroke, poisoning, or hypothyroidism
77
What is conjunctiva?
Mucous membranes that line the eyelid
78
What is the term used to describe profuse sweating?
Diaphoresis
79
The time it takes for compressed capillaries to fill up again with blood is called ——
Capillary refill time
80
What is the possible problem if the pupils are dilated?
Cardiac arrest, drug use such as LSD, amphetamines, or cocaine
81
What is the possible problem if the pupils are constricted?
Central nervous system disorder or narcotic use
82
What is the possible problem if the pupils are unequal?
Stroke, head injury, artificial eye (occasionally a normal finding), eye drops, or eye trauma
83
What is the possible problem if the pupils are non reactive?
Cardiac arrest, brain injury, eye drops, or drug intoxication or overdose
84
The pressure that is exerted on the walls of the arteries by the blood flowing through them is referred to as:
Blood pressure
85
The top number of blood pressure is always the ——- pressure, which is the amount of pressure exerted on the walls of the arteries during the contraction and ejection of blood from the left ventricle
Systolic blood pressure
86
The bottom number of blood pressure is always the ——— pressure, which is the amount of pressure on the artery walls while the ventricle is at rest and not contracting
Diastolic
87
What is the average blood pressure of an adult?
120 or less / 80 or less
88
What is the average blood pressure of an adolescent 12-15 years?
100-132 / 64-84
89
What is average blood pressure for a preadolescent 10-12 years?
102-120 / 61-80
90
What is the average blood pressure for a school aged child 6-9 years?
98-115 / 58-76
91
What is the average blood pressure for a preschooler 3-5 years?
90-112 / 46-72
92
What is the average blood pressure for a toddler 1-2 years?
86-106 / 42-64
93
What is the average blood pressure for an infant 1-12 months
72-104 / 38-56
94
What is the average blood pressure of a neonate birth 1 month
68-84 / 36-54
95
The difference between the systolic blood pressure and the diastolic blood pressure is called the——-
Pulse pressure
96
What are the two methods of measuring blood pressure with a sphygmomanometer?
-Auscultation
-palpation
97
Listening for the systolic and diastolic sounds through a stethoscope is called?
Auscultation
98
Feeling for the return of the pulse as the blood pressure cuff is deflated is known as?
Palpating
99
———- is a method of measuring oxygen saturation levels in the blood. The device used to measure the percentage of hemoglobin saturated with oxygen is called a ——-
- Pulse oximetry
- pulse oximeter
100
A normal pulse oximeter reading for a person breathing in room air is in the high 90’s typically, ———
97-100% SpO2
101
A pulse oximeter reading that is less than ——% in a patient may indicate hypoxia, while a pulse oximeter reading of —-% is a definite indication of hypoxia.
-94%
-90%
102
—— represents the measurement of the CO2 concentration at the end of expiration
EtCO2
103
—- represents the partial pressure of CO2 in the arterial blood
PaCO2
104
——- is the measurement of expired CO2. Provides a numeric display.
Capnometry
105
——— refers to the visual representation of the expired CO2 waveform throughout the phases of breathing
Capnogram
106
The body normally maintains blood glucose levels within a wide range of ———- mg/dL
70-140 mg/dL
107
What do the different letters in SAMPLE stand for?
- signs and symptoms
-allergies
-medications
-pertinent past history
-last oral intake
-events leading to the injury or illness
108
What do the letters OPQRST stand for?
-onset
-provocation/palliation/ position
-quality
-radiation
-severity
-time
109
The ———- history is a medical history of the patient that you gather by asking questions of the patient, family, and bystanders.
SAMPLE history
110
——— is a mnemonic for remembering the questions to ask when assessing the patients chief complaint or major symptoms, such as pain, that the patient can tell you about.
OPQRST
111
What are the two basic categories of problems seen in patients?
-trauma
-medical
112
When arriving on the scene of a suspected trauma, look for the ————-, this refers to how the patient was injured
Mechanism of injury
113
The ———— is the degree of your anticipation that the patient has been injured, or has been injured in a specific way, based on your knowledge that certain mechanisms usually produce certain types of injuries.
Index of suspicion
114
What type of crash it is considered when the motorcycle driver is propelled forward off of the motorcycle?
Head on collision
115
What type of crash is it when the motorcycle driver strikes an object?
Angular impact
116
What type of crash is it when the motorcycle rider is thrown from the motorcycle and impacts the ground, the object involved in the collision, or both?
Ejection
117
What type of crash is it when the motorcycle rider purposefully lays the bike down on its side to avoid another, potentially more serious impact?
“Laying the bike down”
118
In a patient who is not injured but is suffering from a medical condition, you will begin to determine the ———- during the scene size up.
Nature of the illness
119
If a mechanism of injury that you have identified is severe enough to cause you to suspect spinal cord or vertebral injury, or if the patient complains of neck or back pain, or loss of motor or sensory function, or abnormal sensations in the extremities, you will perform some form of ———.
Spinal motion restriction (SMR)
120
The patient is instructed to bring his head and neck in line with his umbilicus and not to move it, this is referred to as?
Self restriction
121
——- is a force that pierces the skin and body tissues, often from gunshots and knives but also sometimes from screwdrivers, ice picks, handlebars, broken glass, metal, wood, or any other sharp object.
Penetrating trauma
122
——- is caused by a force that impacts or is applied to the body but is not sharp enough to penetrate it.
Blunt trauma
123
The ——- is the patients answer to the question “why did you call Ems today?”
Chief complaint
124
What are some immediate life threats that may be obvious during the general impression?
-an airway that is compromised by blood, vomitus, secretions, the tongue, bone, teeth, or other substances or objects
-obvious open wounds to the chest
-paradoxical movement of a segment of the chest ( inward movement on inhalation and outward movement on exhalation)
-major bleeding ( steady slow or spurting)
-unresponsive with no breathing or no normal breathing (Agonal or gasping breaths)
125
The patients level of responsiveness can be rapidly assessed by using the —— mnemonic
AVPU
126
What do the letters in AVPU stand for?
-alert
-verbal stimulus
-painful stimulus
-unresponsive
127
What is it called when you pinch the trapezius muscle that extends from along the base of the neck to the shoulder to get the patient to respond to painful stimuli?
Trapezius pinch
128
What is it called when you slide your finger under the upper ridge of the eye socket and apply upward pressure to get the patient to respond to painful stimuli?
Supraorbital pressure
129
What is it called when you apply hard downward pressure to the center of the sternum with the knuckles of your hand to get the patient to respond to painful stimuli?
Sternal rub
130
What is it called when you pinch the soft tissue portion of the earlobe to get the patient to respond to painful stimuli?
Earlobe pinch
131
What is it called when you pinch the skin and underlying tissue along the margin of the armpit to get the patient to respond to painful stimuli?
Armpit pinch
132
In ——- also known as decorative posturing, the patient arches the back and flexes the arms inward toward the chest.
Flexion posturing
133
In ———, also known as decerebrate posturing, the patient arches the back and extends the arms straight out parallel to the body.
Extension posturing
134
Both flexion posturing and extension posturing are signs of serious —— .
Head injury
135
A closed or blocked or —— airway is an immediately life threatening condition.
Occluded
136
Your patient will not survive without a —— (open) airway, no matter how diligent your emergency care.
Patent
137
A rough, snoring type sound on inspiration and/or expiration is called?
Snoring (sonorous)
138
A sound similar to air rushing through water on inspiration and/or expiration is called?
Gurgling
139
A sound like a cawing crow on inspiration is called?
Crowing
140
Harsh, high pitched sound on inspiration what is this called?
Stridor
141
In a ——- patient, if the patient exhibits any signs of poor perfusion or shock, a high concentration of oxygen should be administered. A nasal cannula or nonrebreather mask can be used to maintain an SpO2 of at least 94%
Medical
142
In a —— patient, if the patient exhibits any signs of major bleeding, poor perfusion, or shock, a high concentration of oxygen should be administered via a nonrebreather mask at 10-15 LPM to maintain an SpO2 of at least 95%.
Trauma
143
In an ———- patient, if the patient is dyspneic or hypoxemic, has obvious signs of heart failure, or has an SpO2 of less than 90% supplemental oxygen should be administered to establish and maintain an SpO2 of 90%.
Acute coronary syndrome
144
Assessment of circulation during the primary assessment should occur in this sequence:
-pulse
-possible major bleeding
-skin color, temp, and condition
-capillary refill
145
——— is a pneumonic that is used to guide trauma assessment and care under tactical combat conditions; however, it is easily applied to the trauma patient in the prehospital environment.
MARCH
146
What do the letters for MARCH stand for?
-massive hemorrhage
-airway
-respirations
-circulation
-hypothermia
147
The “trauma triad of death” identifies three conditions that lead to significant causes of death in trauma, what are they?
-hypothermia (low body core temp)
-hydrogen (an increase in the amount of oxygen ions causing acidosis and reducing the bloods ability to carry oxygen and decrease effective action of enzymes)
-hypocoagulation (coagulopathy) the bloods inability to clot effectively
148
The ——— pneumonic also focuses on hemorrhage as a critical factor to identify and treat as one of the first priorities in the primary assessment.
XABCDE
149
What do the letters in XABCDE stand for?
-eXsanguinating hemorrhage
-airway
-breathing
-circulation
-expose/environment
150
After you have conducted the scene size up and the primary assessment to identify and manage immediately life threatening conditions involving the airway, breathing, oxygenation, and circulation, your next step is to conduct the ——— to identify any additional injuries or conditions that might also be life threatening
Secondary assessment
151
What are the components of the secondary assessment?
-conduct a physical exam
-take vital signs
-obtain a history
152
A clear fluid flowing from the ear is most likely ———, a clear fluid that surrounds and cushions the brain and spinal cord.
Cerebrospinal fluid
153
——- (black and blue discoloration) to the mastoid area is known as the battle sign. This is a late sign of possible skull or head injury that may not appear until hours after the injury.
Ecchymosis
154
Look for any segments of the chest that are moving inward during inspiration and outward during exhalation, opposite to the direction of the rest of the chest. This is referred to as ——— and is a sign of a flail segment.
Paradoxical movement
155
A ——— is an immediately life threatening injury that needs supplemental oxygen to maintain an SpO2 of 95% or greater and may require an application of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) or positive pressure ventilation, depending on the tidal volume and respiratory rate.
Flail segment
156
——- is a persistent erection of the penis in a male patient that is a sign of a possible spinal cord injury.
Priapism
157
What should the respiratory system assessment include?
-chest shape and symmetry
-accessory muscle use
-auscultation
158
What should the cardiovascular system assessment include?
-peripheral and central pulse
-blood pressure
159
What should the neurological system assessment include?
-mental status
-posture and motor activity
-facial expression
-speech and language
-mood
-thoughts and perceptions
-thought process
-thought content
-memory and attention
160
What should the musculoskeletal system assessment contain?
-pelvic region
-lower extremities
-upper extremities
-peripheral vascular system,
-perfusion
-posterior body
161
A severe and detrimental condition that may occur in a head injury is called ——. This occurs when a significant amount of swelling and/or bleeding to or around the brain creates excessive pressure within the skull and causes the brain to be compressed and pushed downward toward the brain steam at the base of the skull.
Brain herniation
162
——- is air trapped under the lower layer of the skin.
Subcutaneous emphysema
163
In a medical patient, JVD may be a sign of ——- or late left sided heart failure
Right sided heart failure
164
The patient may also complain of the inability to breathe or shortness of breathe while lying flat, which is termed ——.
Orthopnea
165
The —— is conducted following the secondary assessment.
Reassessment
166
The three reasons for performing a reassessment are:
-detect any changes in the patients condition
-identify any missed injuries or conditions, especially those that are life threatening
-to adjust the emergency care as needed
167
Weak or absent ——— pulses typically indicate poor perfusion status or a decrease in cardiac output. Shock must be suspected in this case
Peripheral pulses
168
——- occurs when a person either knowingly or unknowingly discriminates against people who are old
Ageism
169
A —— is generally described as a drug or other substance that is used as a remedy for illness.
Medication
170
A —— is a chemical substance that is used to treat or prevent a disease or condition.
Drug
171
The study of drugs is referred to as :
Pharmacology
172
—— is most often defined as a person who takes five or more medications daily
Polypharmacy
173
——- medications are those that a patient takes for a short specific period of time to treat most often an acute illness or an exacerbation of a chronic illness
Acute medications
174
A ——- medication is taken as a maintenance medication over long periods of time, months to years, and is used to treat chronic illnesses or diseases
Chronic medication
175
A ——— inhaler (MDI) is used by a patient who has some type of respiratory disease, commonly used for asthma, emphysema, and chronic bronchitis
Metered dose inhaler
176
The beta 2 specific medication administered via a metered dose inhaler can also be delivered through a ——.
Small volume nebulizer
177
——- is administered to a patient with a history of diabetes who is suspected of having a low blood glucose level
Oral glucose
178
—— is administered to a patient who is having chest discomfort or pain that is or may be related to a deficiency in oxygen getting to the heart (acute coronary syndrome)
Aspirin
179
—— is used to treat patients with diseases of the heart that involve partial blockages or spasms or coronary arteries
Nitroglycerin
180
———- should not be administered to a patient with a systolic blood pressure of less than 90 mmHg or a systolic pressure that drops greater than 30 mmHg from the baseline blood pressure
Nitroglycerin
181
——- is used to treat patients suffering from the severe allergic reactions known as anaphylaxis
Epinephrine
182
Epinephrine stimulates 4 receptors, what are these?
-alpha 1
-alpha 2
-beta 1
-beta 2
183
Naloxone hydrochloride, commonly known as ——, is used to treat a known or suspected opioid overdose
Narcan
184
———, commonly known under the trade name of Tylenol, is used to treat pain and fever.
Acetaminophen
185
—— is a parasympathetic drug that blocks the parasympathetic nervous system and also reverses the effects of cholinergic poisons and drugs.
Atropine
186
———, also known under the trade names protopam, 2PAM antidote, and pralidoxime auto injector is a cholinergic toxicity antidote
Pralidoxime chloride (2PAM)
187
—— and ——- come in an auto injector known as DuoDote, which has two barrels compromised of 600 mg of pralidoxime chloride in the back chamber and 2.1 mg of atropine in the front chamber
-pralidoxime chloride
-atropine
188
How many mg should be administered of ibuprofen to a 12 years or older patient?
200 mg orally, could increase to 400 mg, repeat every 4-6 hours
189
How many mg should be administered of ibuprofen for 1 year to 12 years old patient?
5-10 mg/kg orally, every 6-8 hours
190
How many mg of ibuprofen should be administered in a 6 month - 24 month old with a weight of 18-23 pounds?
75 mg orally, every 6-8 hours
191
How many mg of ibuprofen should be administered to a child 6months to 24 months with a weight scale of 12-17 pounds?
50 mg orally every 6-8 hours
192
How many mg of Tylenol should be administered to a patient 12 years or older extra strength?
1,000 mg every 6 hours
193
How many mg of Tylenol regular strength should be administered to a patient 12 years or older?
650 mg every 4-6 hours
194
How many mg of Tylenol should be administered to children 6-12 years regular strength?
325 mg orally every 4-6 hours
195
The —— name describes the drugs chemical structure. It is usually the first name associated with the drug
Chemical name
196
The ——- name also referred to as the nonproprietary name, this still reflects the chemical characteristics of the drug, but in a shorter form than the full chemical name
Generic name
197
The —— name, also referred to as the brand name, is assigned when the drug is released for commercial distribution
Trade name
198
Drugs meeting the requirements of the US Pharamcopoeia or national formulary are given an —— name.
Official
199
The —- is how the medication is given to or taken by the patient
Route
200
What is it called when medication is placed under the patients tongue?
Sublingual
201
What medication is typically given in a sublingual route?
Nitroglycerin tablets and spray
202
What is it called when the medication is taken by mouth or swallowed?
Oral
203
What are some medications taken orally or swallowed?
-aspirin
-oral glucose
-activated charcoal
204
What is it called when the medication is prepared as a gas or aerosol and is inhaled by the patient?
Inhalation
205
What are some medications taken using the inhalation route?
-oxygen
-metered dose inhaler
-small volume nebulizer
206
What is it called when the medication is injected into a muscle mass?
Intramuscular injection
207
What are some medications given intramuscularly?
-epinephrine
-naloxone hydrochloride
208
What is it called when a medication is sprayed into one or both nostrils using a special delivery device called a mucosal atomizer device (MAD) ?
Intranasal
209
What are some medications given through the intranasal route?
-naloxone hydrochloride by syringe and MAD
- narcan nasal spray
210
What is it called when a medication is injected under the skin into the subcutaneous layer?
Subcutaneous injection
211
The —- usually limits administration to one specific route.
Form
212
What are the common forms of medications an EMT administers?
-compressed powder or tablet
-liquid solution for injection or intranasal administration
-gel
-suspension
-fine powder for inhalation
-small volume nebulizer
-gas
-spray
213
The —— for a medication include the most common uses of the drug in treating a specific condition. Geared towards the relief of signs, symptoms, or specific conditions.
Indications
214
—— refers to the route and form in which the drug is given
Administration
215
The —- is, in general, the effect the drug has on the body.
Action
216
The —— effect is the intended positive response by the body
Therapeutic effect
217
The ——— is how the drug works to create its effect on the body
Mechanism of action
218
Even when given appropriately, drugs often have actions that are not desired and that occur in addition to the desired therapeutic effects, these are referred to as ——
Side effects
219
Epinephrine can cause a side effect of ——
Tachycardia
220
What are some side effects of nitroglycerin?
- lowering blood pressure (hypotension)
-headache
-pulse rate changes
221
What are the “five rights” of medication administration?
-right patient
-right medication
-right route
-right dose
-right date (time)
222
You know an EMT is correctly using a glucometer when they perform which procedural step?
Waste the first drop of blood obtained from the patients finger
223
A mother has called 911 because her 2 year old daughter is fussing and not eating. When assessing the toddler, what would be the best indication of her perfusion status?
Skin color and temperature
224
You have been called to assess a conscious and alert 5 year old child whose chief complaint is nausea and vomiting over the last 2 hours. When assessing his pulse, you should first check which pulse?
Radial
225
In patients with which condition would an EMT most likely get an inaccurate pulse oximeter reading despite proper application of the sensor?
Low blood pressure
226
You determine an adult patients heart rate to be 48/min. That heart rate would be categorized as:
Bradycardic
227
While completing the secondary assessment of an unresponsive patient with a history of diabetes and hypotension, how often should you repeat the patients vitals?
Every 5 minutes
228
A 41 year old male patient has fallen from a second story roof. He complains of right leg pain and pain to his pelvic region. When performing the secondary assessment on this patient, what should the EMT intentionally not perform?
Palpation of the pelvic region
229
You are performing a secondary assessment and are assessing the patients chest. What finding would you associate most with fracture of the ribs?
Paradoxical chest wall motion
230
A 43 year old male has called 911 with the complaint of difficulty breathing. Once on scene you note he is breathing at a rate of 18 breaths per min. He also exhibits intercostal retractions and nasal flaring. The pulse oximeter reads 93% on room air. The EMT should document this patients breathing as:
Dyspneic
231
You have just determined that a 92 year old female patient found in bed is unresponsive, but still has a carotid pulse, your next action should be:
Open the airway manually
232
You are assessing a medical patient who, you suspect has experienced a stroke. Currently he can open his eyes to verbal commands, his verbal responses are incomprehensible sounds, and he is able to localize painful stimuli when applied. What is the patients Glasgow coma scale score?
10
233
A 31 year old male is complaining of left side flank pain that radiates into his groin. He is alert and oriented, and the primary assessment reveals no life threatening conditions. Given the patients status, your next step should be to:
Obtain a medical history from the patient
234
En route to the hospital, you start the reassessment of a 22 year old trauma patient. You should begin this by:
Repeating the primary assessment
235
How many mg of aspirin is typically administered?
324 mg
236
How many mg of nitroglycerin is usually administered?
.4mg or 400mcg
237
How many mg of narcan is usually administered?
.5mg
238
How many mg of oral glucose is usually administered?
15mg
239
How many mg of Albuterol is usually administered?
2.5 mg
240
How many mg of epinephrine is typically given to adults and children?
Adults - .3mg
Children - .15 mg
241
How many grams of activated charcoal is typically given?
25-50 g
242
How many liters per minute should the BVM be set at typically?
10-15 LPM
243
How many liters per minute should a non rebreather typically be set at?
10-15 LPM
244
How many liters per minute should the nasal cannula typically be set at?
1-6 LPM
