Chapter 11, 12, 13, & 14

Question 1

——— are the “signs of life” or outward signs that give clues to what is happening inside the body.

Answer 1

Vital signs

Question 2

The vital signs that you will measure are:

Answer 2

-respiration
-pulse
-skin
-pupils
-blood pressure
-pulse oximetry (SpO2)

Question 3

What are the other vital signs an EMT may perform?

Answer 3

-capnography (EtCO2)
-blood glucose
-pain assessment
-body temp

Question 4

Taking —- or more sets of vital signs and comparing them will reveal changes in the patients condition and may indicate how effectively you are managing the patients injury or illness, or if the patient is deteriorating.

Answer 4

Two

Question 5

The first set of measurements you take are known as the ——-, to which subsequent measurements can be compared

Answer 5

Baseline vital signs

Question 6

Vital signs in stable patients should be taken every — minutes, whereas vital signs in an unstable patient should be taken every — minutes

Answer 6

-15
-5

Question 7

What is a sphygmomanometer?

Answer 7

Blood pressure cuff

Question 8

What are the vital signs to be assessed for respiration?

Answer 8

-respiratory rate
-respiratory quality
-respiratory rhythm

Question 9

The —— is assessed by observing the patients chest rise and fall

Answer 9

Respiratory rate

Question 10

Typically, respiratory rates that are less than — or greater than — per minute are of concern

Answer 10

-8
-24

Question 11

The resting respiratory rate of the elderly is typically higher, with an average of —- to —- breaths per minute

Answer 11

20 to 24

Question 12

Any adult patient breathing at a rate greater than — per minute or an infant or young child breathing greater than — per minute should receive assisted ventilation

Answer 12

-40
-60

Question 13

Range of normal respirations per min in adults and adolescents age 12-15

Answer 13

12-20

Question 14

Range of normal respirations per min in a preschooler 3-5 years

Answer 14

20-28

Question 15

Range of normal respirations per min in a toddler 1-2 years

Answer 15

22-37

Question 16

Range of normal respirations per min in an infant less than or greater to 1 year

Answer 16

30-53

Question 17

Range of normal respirations per min in neonate birth -1 month

Answer 17

40-60

Question 18

The quality of respiration is an assessment of ——

Answer 18

Tidal volume

Question 19

A —— quality correlates with an —— tidal volume, whereas an —— quality is usually an indication of an —— tidal volume

Answer 19

-normal quality, adequate tidal volume
-abnormal quality, inadequate tidal volume

Question 20

——- respiration involves average chest wall motion, which is at least 1 inch of expansion in an outward direction

Answer 20

Normal

Question 21

——- respiration is indicated by only slight chest or abdominal wall expansion upon inhalation

Answer 21

Shallow

Question 22

——- respiration, where the patient is working hard to breathe, is indicated by an abnormal sound of breathing that may include grunting or stridor; the use of accessory muscles in the neck, chest, or abdomen to breathe; nasal flaring and sometimes gasping

Answer 22

Labored

Question 23

—— respiration, or an abnormal sound of breathing may include snoring, wheezing, gurgling, crowing, or stridor

Answer 23

Noisy

Question 24

What is the potential cause of snoring?

Answer 24

Tongue partially blocking the upper airway at the level of the pharynx

Question 25

What is the potential cause of gurgling?

Answer 25

Fluid in the upper airway

Question 26

What is the potential cause of stridor or crowing?

Answer 26

Partial obstruction of the upper airway at the level of the larynx

Question 27

What is the potential cause of wheezing?

Answer 27

Constriction (narrowing) and inflammation reducing the internal diameter of the bronchioles in the lungs

Question 28

What is the potential cause of crackles or rales?

Answer 28

Fluid surrounding and filling the alveoli

Question 29

What is the potential cause of rhonchi?

Answer 29

Mucus blocking the larger bronchioles

Question 30

The respiratory rate and tidal volume gradually increase and gradually decrease followed by a period of apnea for up to 10 seconds, what is this known as?

Answer 30

Cheyne stokes

Question 31

Similar to cheyne stokes except that the tidal volume doesn’t change, but the respiratory pattern is interrupted by a period of apnea, what is this known as?

Answer 31

Biot

Question 32

Characterized by prolonged periods of inhalation, what is this known as?

Answer 32

Apneustic

Question 33

An irregular pattern of rate and tidal volume, what is this known as?

Answer 33

Ataxic

Question 34

Long periods of apnea with a gasping breath interposed, what is this known as?

Answer 34

Agonal

Question 35

A rapid respiratory rate with a deep and labored tidal volume, what is this known as?

Answer 35

Kussmaul

Question 36

A sustained deep and rapid respiratory rate of at least 25 breaths per minute with a regular pattern, what is this known as?

Answer 36

Central neurogenic hyperventilation

Question 37

Abnormal respiratory patterns include?

Answer 37

-cheyne stokes
-biot
-Apneustic
-ataxic
-Agonal
-kussmaul
-central neurogenic hyperventilation

Question 38

Taking the —- provides a measurement of heart rate and an assessment of pulse quality and rhythm.

Answer 38

Pulse

Question 39

The —— is the pressure wave generated by the contraction of the left ventricle

Answer 39

Pulse

Question 40

The pulses that can be found on either side of the neck in the groove between the trachea and the muscle mass are called?

Answer 40

Carotid artery

Question 41

The pulses that can be found in the crease between the lower abdomen and the upper thigh, what is this called?

Answer 41

Femoral artery

Question 42

The pulses that can be found proximal to the thumb on the palmar surface of the wrist, what are these called

Answer 42

Radial artery

Question 43

The pulses that can be found on the medial aspect of the arm, midway between the shoulder and the elbow between the biceps and tricep muscles what are these called

Answer 43

Brachial artery

Question 44

The pulses that can be found in the crease behind the knee, what are these called

Answer 44

Popliteal artery

Question 45

The pulses that can be found behind the medial malleolus (ankle bone) what are these called

Answer 45

Posterior tibial artery

Question 46

The pulses that can be found on the top of the foot on the big toe side what are these called

Answer 46

Dorsalis pedis artery

Question 47

A —— pulse should be assessed in all patients 1 year or older

Answer 47

Radial pulse

Question 48

Assess the —— pulse in patients who are less than 1 year of age

Answer 48

Brachial pulse

Question 49

What is the normal heart rate per min in adults and adolescents age 12-15?

Answer 49

60-100

Question 50

What is the normal heart rate per min in a school aged child 6-11 years

Answer 50

75-118

Question 51

What is the normal heart rate per min in a preschooler 3-5 years

Answer 51

80-120

Question 52

What is the normal heart rate per min for a toddler 1-2 years

Answer 52

98-140

Question 53

What is the normal heart rate per min for an infant 1-12 months

Answer 53

100-180

Question 54

What is the normal heart rate per min in neonate birth 1 month

Answer 54

100-205

Question 55

In an adult patient, a heart rate greater than 100 bpm is termed——- and heart rate less than 60 bpm is termed ———-

Answer 55

-tachycardia
-bradycardia

Question 56

What is the possible problem if the pulse is rapid, regular, and full?

Answer 56

Exertion, fright, fever, high blood pressure, or very early stage of blood loss

Question 57

What is the possible problem if the pulse is rapid, regular, and thready

Answer 57

Reliable sign of shock, often evident in early stage of blood loss

Question 58

What is the possible problem when the pulse is slow

Answer 58

Head injury, barbiturate or narcotic use, some poisons, possible cardiac problem or other medical conditions such as hypothyroidism

Question 59

What is the possible problem if a patient has no pulse

Answer 59

Cardiac arrest, profound hypotension

Question 60

This refers to a pulse that is both full and normally strong.

Answer 60

Strong pulse

Question 61

This refers to a pulse that doesn’t feel full or may be difficult to find and palpate.

Answer 61

Weak pulse

Question 62

The general term for a weak, rapid pulse is called?

Answer 62

Thready

Question 63

This refers to a normal pulse that occurs at regular intervals with a smooth rhythm

Answer 63

Regular pulse

Question 64

This refers to a pulse that occurs at irregular intervals which may indicate a cardiac disease

Answer 64

Irregular pulse

Question 65

A —— pulse typically indicates that not enough blood is being ejected from the left ventricle, as associated with volume loss, or that the blood is not being ejected from the left ventricle with enough force, as seen in heart failure

Answer 65

Weak pulse

Question 66

——- is a decrease in the strength of the pulse during the inspirations phase of the patient.

Answer 66

Pulsus paradoxus

Question 67

What is the possible problem if the skin color is pallor (white) ?

Answer 67

Vasoconstriction, blood loss, shock, heart attack, fright, anemia, fainting, or emotional distress

Question 68

What is the possible problem is the skin is cyanotic?

Answer 68

Inadequate oxygenation or perfusion, inadequate respiration, or heart attack

Question 69

What is the possible problem if the skin is flushing or red?

Answer 69

Heat exposure or carbon monoxide poisoning (late)

Question 70

What is the possible problem if the skin is jaundice?

Answer 70

Liver disease

Question 71

What is the possible problem if the skin is mottling (gray blue)?

Answer 71

Blotchy pattern

Question 72

What is the possible problem if the temperature of the patient is hot?

Answer 72

Fever or heat exposure

Question 73

What is the possible problem if the skin temperature is cool?

Answer 73

Poor perfusion or cold exposure

Question 74

What is the possible problem is the skin temperature is cold?

Answer 74

Extreme cold exposure

Question 75

What is the possible problem if the skin is wet or moist?

Answer 75

Shock, heat emergency, or diabetic emergency

Question 76

What is the possible problem if the skin is abnormally dry?

Answer 76

Spinal injury, dehydration, heat stroke, poisoning, or hypothyroidism

Question 77

What is conjunctiva?

Answer 77

Mucous membranes that line the eyelid

Question 78

What is the term used to describe profuse sweating?

Answer 78

Diaphoresis

Question 79

The time it takes for compressed capillaries to fill up again with blood is called ——

Answer 79

Capillary refill time

Question 80

What is the possible problem if the pupils are dilated?

Answer 80

Cardiac arrest, drug use such as LSD, amphetamines, or cocaine

Question 81

What is the possible problem if the pupils are constricted?

Answer 81

Central nervous system disorder or narcotic use

Question 82

What is the possible problem if the pupils are unequal?

Answer 82

Stroke, head injury, artificial eye (occasionally a normal finding), eye drops, or eye trauma

Question 83

What is the possible problem if the pupils are non reactive?

Answer 83

Cardiac arrest, brain injury, eye drops, or drug intoxication or overdose

Question 84

The pressure that is exerted on the walls of the arteries by the blood flowing through them is referred to as:

Answer 84

Blood pressure

Question 85

The top number of blood pressure is always the ——- pressure, which is the amount of pressure exerted on the walls of the arteries during the contraction and ejection of blood from the left ventricle

Answer 85

Systolic blood pressure

Question 86

The bottom number of blood pressure is always the ——— pressure, which is the amount of pressure on the artery walls while the ventricle is at rest and not contracting

Answer 86

Diastolic

Question 87

What is the average blood pressure of an adult?

Answer 87

120 or less / 80 or less

Question 88

What is the average blood pressure of an adolescent 12-15 years?

Answer 88

100-132 / 64-84

Question 89

What is average blood pressure for a preadolescent 10-12 years?

Answer 89

102-120 / 61-80

Question 90

What is the average blood pressure for a school aged child 6-9 years?

Answer 90

98-115 / 58-76

Question 91

What is the average blood pressure for a preschooler 3-5 years?

Answer 91

90-112 / 46-72

Question 92

What is the average blood pressure for a toddler 1-2 years?

Answer 92

86-106 / 42-64

Question 93

What is the average blood pressure for an infant 1-12 months

Answer 93

72-104 / 38-56

Question 94

What is the average blood pressure of a neonate birth 1 month

Answer 94

68-84 / 36-54

Question 95

The difference between the systolic blood pressure and the diastolic blood pressure is called the——-

Answer 95

Pulse pressure

Question 96

What are the two methods of measuring blood pressure with a sphygmomanometer?

Answer 96

-Auscultation
-palpation

Question 97

Listening for the systolic and diastolic sounds through a stethoscope is called?

Answer 97

Auscultation

Question 98

Feeling for the return of the pulse as the blood pressure cuff is deflated is known as?

Answer 98

Palpating

Question 99

———- is a method of measuring oxygen saturation levels in the blood. The device used to measure the percentage of hemoglobin saturated with oxygen is called a ——-

Answer 99

• Pulse oximetry
• pulse oximeter

Question 100

A normal pulse oximeter reading for a person breathing in room air is in the high 90’s typically, ———

Answer 100

97-100% SpO2

Question 101

A pulse oximeter reading that is less than ——% in a patient may indicate hypoxia, while a pulse oximeter reading of —-% is a definite indication of hypoxia.

Answer 101

-94%
-90%

Question 102

—— represents the measurement of the CO2 concentration at the end of expiration

Answer 102

EtCO2

Question 103

—- represents the partial pressure of CO2 in the arterial blood

Answer 103

PaCO2

Question 104

——- is the measurement of expired CO2. Provides a numeric display.

Answer 104

Capnometry

Question 105

——— refers to the visual representation of the expired CO2 waveform throughout the phases of breathing

Answer 105

Capnogram

Question 106

The body normally maintains blood glucose levels within a wide range of ———- mg/dL

Answer 106

70-140 mg/dL

Question 107

What do the different letters in SAMPLE stand for?

Answer 107

• signs and symptoms
  -allergies
  -medications
  -pertinent past history
  -last oral intake
  -events leading to the injury or illness

Question 108

What do the letters OPQRST stand for?

Answer 108

-onset
-provocation/palliation/ position
-quality
-radiation
-severity
-time

Question 109

The ———- history is a medical history of the patient that you gather by asking questions of the patient, family, and bystanders.

Answer 109

SAMPLE history

Question 110

——— is a mnemonic for remembering the questions to ask when assessing the patients chief complaint or major symptoms, such as pain, that the patient can tell you about.

Answer 110

OPQRST

Question 111

What are the two basic categories of problems seen in patients?

Answer 111

-trauma
-medical

Question 112

When arriving on the scene of a suspected trauma, look for the ————-, this refers to how the patient was injured

Answer 112

Mechanism of injury

Question 113

The ———— is the degree of your anticipation that the patient has been injured, or has been injured in a specific way, based on your knowledge that certain mechanisms usually produce certain types of injuries.

Answer 113

Index of suspicion

Question 114

What type of crash it is considered when the motorcycle driver is propelled forward off of the motorcycle?

Answer 114

Head on collision

Question 115

What type of crash is it when the motorcycle driver strikes an object?

Answer 115

Angular impact

Question 116

What type of crash is it when the motorcycle rider is thrown from the motorcycle and impacts the ground, the object involved in the collision, or both?

Answer 116

Ejection

Question 117

What type of crash is it when the motorcycle rider purposefully lays the bike down on its side to avoid another, potentially more serious impact?

Answer 117

“Laying the bike down”

Question 118

In a patient who is not injured but is suffering from a medical condition, you will begin to determine the ———- during the scene size up.

Answer 118

Nature of the illness

Question 119

If a mechanism of injury that you have identified is severe enough to cause you to suspect spinal cord or vertebral injury, or if the patient complains of neck or back pain, or loss of motor or sensory function, or abnormal sensations in the extremities, you will perform some form of ———.

Answer 119

Spinal motion restriction (SMR)

Question 120

The patient is instructed to bring his head and neck in line with his umbilicus and not to move it, this is referred to as?

Answer 120

Self restriction

Question 121

——- is a force that pierces the skin and body tissues, often from gunshots and knives but also sometimes from screwdrivers, ice picks, handlebars, broken glass, metal, wood, or any other sharp object.

Answer 121

Penetrating trauma

Question 122

——- is caused by a force that impacts or is applied to the body but is not sharp enough to penetrate it.

Answer 122

Blunt trauma

Question 123

The ——- is the patients answer to the question “why did you call Ems today?”

Answer 123

Chief complaint

Question 124

What are some immediate life threats that may be obvious during the general impression?

Answer 124

-an airway that is compromised by blood, vomitus, secretions, the tongue, bone, teeth, or other substances or objects
-obvious open wounds to the chest
-paradoxical movement of a segment of the chest ( inward movement on inhalation and outward movement on exhalation)
-major bleeding ( steady slow or spurting)
-unresponsive with no breathing or no normal breathing (Agonal or gasping breaths)

Question 125

The patients level of responsiveness can be rapidly assessed by using the —— mnemonic

Answer 125

AVPU

Question 126

What do the letters in AVPU stand for?

Answer 126

-alert
-verbal stimulus
-painful stimulus
-unresponsive

Question 127

What is it called when you pinch the trapezius muscle that extends from along the base of the neck to the shoulder to get the patient to respond to painful stimuli?

Answer 127

Trapezius pinch

Question 128

What is it called when you slide your finger under the upper ridge of the eye socket and apply upward pressure to get the patient to respond to painful stimuli?

Answer 128

Supraorbital pressure

Question 129

What is it called when you apply hard downward pressure to the center of the sternum with the knuckles of your hand to get the patient to respond to painful stimuli?

Answer 129

Sternal rub

Question 130

What is it called when you pinch the soft tissue portion of the earlobe to get the patient to respond to painful stimuli?

Answer 130

Earlobe pinch

Question 131

What is it called when you pinch the skin and underlying tissue along the margin of the armpit to get the patient to respond to painful stimuli?

Answer 131

Armpit pinch

Question 132

In ——- also known as decorative posturing, the patient arches the back and flexes the arms inward toward the chest.

Answer 132

Flexion posturing

Question 133

In ———, also known as decerebrate posturing, the patient arches the back and extends the arms straight out parallel to the body.

Answer 133

Extension posturing

Question 134

Both flexion posturing and extension posturing are signs of serious —— .

Answer 134

Head injury

Question 135

A closed or blocked or —— airway is an immediately life threatening condition.

Answer 135

Occluded

Question 136

Your patient will not survive without a —— (open) airway, no matter how diligent your emergency care.

Answer 136

Patent

Question 137

A rough, snoring type sound on inspiration and/or expiration is called?

Answer 137

Snoring (sonorous)

Question 138

A sound similar to air rushing through water on inspiration and/or expiration is called?

Answer 138

Gurgling

Question 139

A sound like a cawing crow on inspiration is called?

Answer 139

Crowing

Question 140

Harsh, high pitched sound on inspiration what is this called?

Answer 140

Stridor

Question 141

In a ——- patient, if the patient exhibits any signs of poor perfusion or shock, a high concentration of oxygen should be administered. A nasal cannula or nonrebreather mask can be used to maintain an SpO2 of at least 94%

Answer 141

Medical

Question 142

In a —— patient, if the patient exhibits any signs of major bleeding, poor perfusion, or shock, a high concentration of oxygen should be administered via a nonrebreather mask at 10-15 LPM to maintain an SpO2 of at least 95%.

Answer 142

Trauma

Question 143

In an ———- patient, if the patient is dyspneic or hypoxemic, has obvious signs of heart failure, or has an SpO2 of less than 90% supplemental oxygen should be administered to establish and maintain an SpO2 of 90%.

Answer 143

Acute coronary syndrome

Question 144

Assessment of circulation during the primary assessment should occur in this sequence:

Answer 144

-pulse
-possible major bleeding
-skin color, temp, and condition
-capillary refill

Question 145

——— is a pneumonic that is used to guide trauma assessment and care under tactical combat conditions; however, it is easily applied to the trauma patient in the prehospital environment.

Answer 145

MARCH

Question 146

What do the letters for MARCH stand for?

Answer 146

-massive hemorrhage
-airway
-respirations
-circulation
-hypothermia

Question 147

The “trauma triad of death” identifies three conditions that lead to significant causes of death in trauma, what are they?

Answer 147

-hypothermia (low body core temp)
-hydrogen (an increase in the amount of oxygen ions causing acidosis and reducing the bloods ability to carry oxygen and decrease effective action of enzymes)
-hypocoagulation (coagulopathy) the bloods inability to clot effectively

Question 148

The ——— pneumonic also focuses on hemorrhage as a critical factor to identify and treat as one of the first priorities in the primary assessment.

Answer 148

XABCDE

Question 149

What do the letters in XABCDE stand for?

Answer 149

-eXsanguinating hemorrhage
-airway
-breathing
-circulation
-expose/environment

Question 150

After you have conducted the scene size up and the primary assessment to identify and manage immediately life threatening conditions involving the airway, breathing, oxygenation, and circulation, your next step is to conduct the ——— to identify any additional injuries or conditions that might also be life threatening

Answer 150

Secondary assessment

Question 151

What are the components of the secondary assessment?

Answer 151

-conduct a physical exam
-take vital signs
-obtain a history

Question 152

A clear fluid flowing from the ear is most likely ———, a clear fluid that surrounds and cushions the brain and spinal cord.

Answer 152

Cerebrospinal fluid

Question 153

——- (black and blue discoloration) to the mastoid area is known as the battle sign. This is a late sign of possible skull or head injury that may not appear until hours after the injury.

Answer 153

Ecchymosis

Question 154

Look for any segments of the chest that are moving inward during inspiration and outward during exhalation, opposite to the direction of the rest of the chest. This is referred to as ——— and is a sign of a flail segment.

Answer 154

Paradoxical movement

Question 155

A ——— is an immediately life threatening injury that needs supplemental oxygen to maintain an SpO2 of 95% or greater and may require an application of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) or positive pressure ventilation, depending on the tidal volume and respiratory rate.

Answer 155

Flail segment

Question 156

——- is a persistent erection of the penis in a male patient that is a sign of a possible spinal cord injury.

Answer 156

Priapism

Question 157

What should the respiratory system assessment include?

Answer 157

-chest shape and symmetry
-accessory muscle use
-auscultation

Question 158

What should the cardiovascular system assessment include?

Answer 158

-peripheral and central pulse
-blood pressure

Question 159

What should the neurological system assessment include?

Answer 159

-mental status
-posture and motor activity
-facial expression
-speech and language
-mood
-thoughts and perceptions
-thought process
-thought content
-memory and attention

Question 160

What should the musculoskeletal system assessment contain?

Answer 160

-pelvic region
-lower extremities
-upper extremities
-peripheral vascular system,
-perfusion
-posterior body

Question 161

A severe and detrimental condition that may occur in a head injury is called ——. This occurs when a significant amount of swelling and/or bleeding to or around the brain creates excessive pressure within the skull and causes the brain to be compressed and pushed downward toward the brain steam at the base of the skull.

Answer 161

Brain herniation

Question 162

——- is air trapped under the lower layer of the skin.

Answer 162

Subcutaneous emphysema

Question 163

In a medical patient, JVD may be a sign of ——- or late left sided heart failure

Answer 163

Right sided heart failure

Question 164

The patient may also complain of the inability to breathe or shortness of breathe while lying flat, which is termed ——.

Answer 164

Orthopnea

Question 165

The —— is conducted following the secondary assessment.

Answer 165

Reassessment

Question 166

The three reasons for performing a reassessment are:

Answer 166

-detect any changes in the patients condition
-identify any missed injuries or conditions, especially those that are life threatening
-to adjust the emergency care as needed

Question 167

Weak or absent ——— pulses typically indicate poor perfusion status or a decrease in cardiac output. Shock must be suspected in this case

Answer 167

Peripheral pulses

Question 168

——- occurs when a person either knowingly or unknowingly discriminates against people who are old

Answer 168

Ageism

Question 169

A —— is generally described as a drug or other substance that is used as a remedy for illness.

Answer 169

Medication

Question 170

A —— is a chemical substance that is used to treat or prevent a disease or condition.

Answer 170

Drug

Question 171

The study of drugs is referred to as :

Answer 171

Pharmacology

Question 172

—— is most often defined as a person who takes five or more medications daily

Answer 172

Polypharmacy

Question 173

——- medications are those that a patient takes for a short specific period of time to treat most often an acute illness or an exacerbation of a chronic illness

Answer 173

Acute medications

Question 174

A ——- medication is taken as a maintenance medication over long periods of time, months to years, and is used to treat chronic illnesses or diseases

Answer 174

Chronic medication

Question 175

A ——— inhaler (MDI) is used by a patient who has some type of respiratory disease, commonly used for asthma, emphysema, and chronic bronchitis

Answer 175

Metered dose inhaler

Question 176

The beta 2 specific medication administered via a metered dose inhaler can also be delivered through a ——.

Answer 176

Small volume nebulizer

Question 177

——- is administered to a patient with a history of diabetes who is suspected of having a low blood glucose level

Answer 177

Oral glucose

Question 178

—— is administered to a patient who is having chest discomfort or pain that is or may be related to a deficiency in oxygen getting to the heart (acute coronary syndrome)

Answer 178

Aspirin

Question 179

—— is used to treat patients with diseases of the heart that involve partial blockages or spasms or coronary arteries

Answer 179

Nitroglycerin

Question 180

———- should not be administered to a patient with a systolic blood pressure of less than 90 mmHg or a systolic pressure that drops greater than 30 mmHg from the baseline blood pressure

Answer 180

Nitroglycerin

Question 181

——- is used to treat patients suffering from the severe allergic reactions known as anaphylaxis

Answer 181

Epinephrine

Question 182

Epinephrine stimulates 4 receptors, what are these?

Answer 182

-alpha 1
-alpha 2
-beta 1
-beta 2

Question 183

Naloxone hydrochloride, commonly known as ——, is used to treat a known or suspected opioid overdose

Answer 183

Narcan

Question 184

———, commonly known under the trade name of Tylenol, is used to treat pain and fever.

Answer 184

Acetaminophen

Question 185

—— is a parasympathetic drug that blocks the parasympathetic nervous system and also reverses the effects of cholinergic poisons and drugs.

Answer 185

Atropine

Question 186

———, also known under the trade names protopam, 2PAM antidote, and pralidoxime auto injector is a cholinergic toxicity antidote

Answer 186

Pralidoxime chloride (2PAM)

Question 187

—— and ——- come in an auto injector known as DuoDote, which has two barrels compromised of 600 mg of pralidoxime chloride in the back chamber and 2.1 mg of atropine in the front chamber

Answer 187

-pralidoxime chloride
-atropine

Question 188

How many mg should be administered of ibuprofen to a 12 years or older patient?

Answer 188

200 mg orally, could increase to 400 mg, repeat every 4-6 hours

Question 189

How many mg should be administered of ibuprofen for 1 year to 12 years old patient?

Answer 189

5-10 mg/kg orally, every 6-8 hours

Question 190

How many mg of ibuprofen should be administered in a 6 month - 24 month old with a weight of 18-23 pounds?

Answer 190

75 mg orally, every 6-8 hours

Question 191

How many mg of ibuprofen should be administered to a child 6months to 24 months with a weight scale of 12-17 pounds?

Answer 191

50 mg orally every 6-8 hours

Question 192

How many mg of Tylenol should be administered to a patient 12 years or older extra strength?

Answer 192

1,000 mg every 6 hours

Question 193

How many mg of Tylenol regular strength should be administered to a patient 12 years or older?

Answer 193

650 mg every 4-6 hours

Question 194

How many mg of Tylenol should be administered to children 6-12 years regular strength?

Answer 194

325 mg orally every 4-6 hours

Question 195

The —— name describes the drugs chemical structure. It is usually the first name associated with the drug

Answer 195

Chemical name

Question 196

The ——- name also referred to as the nonproprietary name, this still reflects the chemical characteristics of the drug, but in a shorter form than the full chemical name

Answer 196

Generic name

Question 197

The —— name, also referred to as the brand name, is assigned when the drug is released for commercial distribution

Answer 197

Trade name

Question 198

Drugs meeting the requirements of the US Pharamcopoeia or national formulary are given an —— name.

Answer 198

Official

Question 199

The —- is how the medication is given to or taken by the patient

Answer 199

Route

Question 200

What is it called when medication is placed under the patients tongue?

Answer 200

Sublingual

Question 201

What medication is typically given in a sublingual route?

Answer 201

Nitroglycerin tablets and spray

Question 202

What is it called when the medication is taken by mouth or swallowed?

Answer 202

Oral

Question 203

What are some medications taken orally or swallowed?

Answer 203

-aspirin
-oral glucose
-activated charcoal

Question 204

What is it called when the medication is prepared as a gas or aerosol and is inhaled by the patient?

Answer 204

Inhalation

Question 205

What are some medications taken using the inhalation route?

Answer 205

-oxygen
-metered dose inhaler
-small volume nebulizer

Question 206

What is it called when the medication is injected into a muscle mass?

Answer 206

Intramuscular injection

Question 207

What are some medications given intramuscularly?

Answer 207

-epinephrine
-naloxone hydrochloride

Question 208

What is it called when a medication is sprayed into one or both nostrils using a special delivery device called a mucosal atomizer device (MAD) ?

Answer 208

Intranasal

Question 209

What are some medications given through the intranasal route?

Answer 209

-naloxone hydrochloride by syringe and MAD
- narcan nasal spray

Question 210

What is it called when a medication is injected under the skin into the subcutaneous layer?

Answer 210

Subcutaneous injection

Question 211

The —- usually limits administration to one specific route.

Answer 211

Form

Question 212

What are the common forms of medications an EMT administers?

Answer 212

-compressed powder or tablet
-liquid solution for injection or intranasal administration
-gel
-suspension
-fine powder for inhalation
-small volume nebulizer
-gas
-spray

Question 213

The —— for a medication include the most common uses of the drug in treating a specific condition. Geared towards the relief of signs, symptoms, or specific conditions.

Answer 213

Indications

Question 214

—— refers to the route and form in which the drug is given

Answer 214

Administration

Question 215

The —- is, in general, the effect the drug has on the body.

Answer 215

Action

Question 216

The —— effect is the intended positive response by the body

Answer 216

Therapeutic effect

Question 217

The ——— is how the drug works to create its effect on the body

Answer 217

Mechanism of action

Question 218

Even when given appropriately, drugs often have actions that are not desired and that occur in addition to the desired therapeutic effects, these are referred to as ——

Answer 218

Side effects

Question 219

Epinephrine can cause a side effect of ——

Answer 219

Tachycardia

Question 220

What are some side effects of nitroglycerin?

Answer 220

• lowering blood pressure (hypotension)
  -headache
  -pulse rate changes

Question 221

What are the “five rights” of medication administration?

Answer 221

-right patient
-right medication
-right route
-right dose
-right date (time)

Question 222

You know an EMT is correctly using a glucometer when they perform which procedural step?

Answer 222

Waste the first drop of blood obtained from the patients finger

Question 223

A mother has called 911 because her 2 year old daughter is fussing and not eating. When assessing the toddler, what would be the best indication of her perfusion status?

Answer 223

Skin color and temperature

Question 224

You have been called to assess a conscious and alert 5 year old child whose chief complaint is nausea and vomiting over the last 2 hours. When assessing his pulse, you should first check which pulse?

Answer 224

Radial

Question 225

In patients with which condition would an EMT most likely get an inaccurate pulse oximeter reading despite proper application of the sensor?

Answer 225

Low blood pressure

Question 226

You determine an adult patients heart rate to be 48/min. That heart rate would be categorized as:

Answer 226

Bradycardic

Question 227

While completing the secondary assessment of an unresponsive patient with a history of diabetes and hypotension, how often should you repeat the patients vitals?

Answer 227

Every 5 minutes

Question 228

A 41 year old male patient has fallen from a second story roof. He complains of right leg pain and pain to his pelvic region. When performing the secondary assessment on this patient, what should the EMT intentionally not perform?

Answer 228

Palpation of the pelvic region

Question 229

You are performing a secondary assessment and are assessing the patients chest. What finding would you associate most with fracture of the ribs?

Answer 229

Paradoxical chest wall motion

Question 230

A 43 year old male has called 911 with the complaint of difficulty breathing. Once on scene you note he is breathing at a rate of 18 breaths per min. He also exhibits intercostal retractions and nasal flaring. The pulse oximeter reads 93% on room air. The EMT should document this patients breathing as:

Answer 230

Dyspneic

Question 231

You have just determined that a 92 year old female patient found in bed is unresponsive, but still has a carotid pulse, your next action should be:

Answer 231

Open the airway manually

Question 232

You are assessing a medical patient who, you suspect has experienced a stroke. Currently he can open his eyes to verbal commands, his verbal responses are incomprehensible sounds, and he is able to localize painful stimuli when applied. What is the patients Glasgow coma scale score?

Answer 232

10

Question 233

A 31 year old male is complaining of left side flank pain that radiates into his groin. He is alert and oriented, and the primary assessment reveals no life threatening conditions. Given the patients status, your next step should be to:

Answer 233

Obtain a medical history from the patient

Question 234

En route to the hospital, you start the reassessment of a 22 year old trauma patient. You should begin this by:

Answer 234

Repeating the primary assessment

Question 235

How many mg of aspirin is typically administered?

Answer 235

324 mg

Question 236

How many mg of nitroglycerin is usually administered?

Answer 236

.4mg or 400mcg

Question 237

How many mg of narcan is usually administered?

Answer 237

.5mg

Question 238

How many mg of oral glucose is usually administered?

Answer 238

15mg

Question 239

How many mg of Albuterol is usually administered?

Answer 239

2.5 mg

Question 240

How many mg of epinephrine is typically given to adults and children?

Answer 240

Adults - .3mg
Children - .15 mg

Question 241

How many grams of activated charcoal is typically given?

Answer 241

25-50 g

Question 242

How many liters per minute should the BVM be set at typically?

Answer 242

10-15 LPM

Question 243

How many liters per minute should a non rebreather typically be set at?

Answer 243

10-15 LPM

Question 244

How many liters per minute should the nasal cannula typically be set at?

Answer 244

1-6 LPM