Chapter 10. Interdisciplinary Pain Management Flashcards

1
Q
763. The second most common cause of pain in the
elderly is
(A) musculoskeletal
(B) cancer
(C) temporal arteritis
(D) postherpetic neuralgia
(E) diabetic neuropathy
A
  1. (B) Many other studies have verified that the
    predominant cause of pain in the elderly is, by
    far, musculoskeletal. The second most common
    source of pain is caused by cancer. Rheumatologic
    diseases are, therefore, important to the pain
    practitioner because these diseases are usually
    amenable to various treatment modalities. Other
    types of pain found commonly in the elderly
    include herpes zoster, postherpetic neuralgia,
    temporal arteritis, polymyalgia rheumatica,
    atherosclerotic and diabetic peripheral vascular
    disease, cervical spondylosis, trigeminal neuralgia,
    sympathetic dystrophies, and neuropathies
    from diabetes mellitus, alcohol abuse, and
    malnutrition.
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2
Q
  1. Pain assessment in the elderly is usually more
    difficult than in the young because it is often
    complicated by
    (A) good health status which may confuse
    the physician
    (B) poor memory
    (C) depression, which is only seen in cancer
    pain patients
    (D) most complains are psychiatric as
    opposed to organic
    (E) none of the above
A
  1. (B) Pain assessment in the elderly is usually
    more difficult than in the young because it is
    often complicated by poor health, poor
    memory, psychosocial concerns, depression,
    denial, and distress. Caution in not attributing
    new pain complaints to preexisting disease
    processes is mandatory. Most pain complaints
    in the elderly are of organic, not psychiatric,
    origin. Nonetheless, concomitant depression is
    also usually present among the elderly with
    chronic, nonmalignant pain.
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3
Q
  1. Which of the following includes recommendations
    by the American Geriatric Society for pain
    patients?
    (A) Pain and its response to treatment do
    not necessarily need to be measured
    (B) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
    (NSAIDs) are contraindicated in older
    patients
    (C) Acetaminophen is the drug of choice for
    relieving mild to moderate pain
    (D) Nonopioid analgesic medications may
    be appropriate for some patients with
    neuropathic pain and other chronic pain
    syndromes
    (E) Nonpharmacologic approaches (eg,
    patient and caregiver education,
    cognitive-behavioral therapy, exercise)
    have no role in the management of geriatric
    pain
A
  1. (C) Recommendations from the American Geriatric
    Society for the management of patients with
    pain are
  2. Pain should be an important part of each
    assessment of older patients; along with
    efforts to alleviate the underlying cause,
    pain itself should be aggressively treated.
  3. Pain and its response to treatment should be
    objectively measured, preferably by a validated
    pain scale.
  4. NSAIDs should be used with caution. In
    older patients, NSAIDs have significant side
    effects and are the most common cause of
    adverse drug reactions.
  5. Acetaminophen is the drug of choice for
    relieving mild to moderate musculoskeletal
    pain.
  6. Opioid analgesic drugs are effective for
    relieving moderate to severe pain.
  7. Nonopioid analgesic medications may be
    appropriate for some patients with neuropathic
    pain and other chronic pain syndromes.
  8. Nonpharmacologic approaches (eg, patient
    and caregiver education, cognitive-behavioral
    therapy, exercise), used alone or in combination
    with appropriate pharmacologic strategies,
    should be an integral part of care plans
    in most cases.
  9. Referral to a multidisciplinary painmanagement
    center should be considered
    when pain-management efforts do not meet
    the patients’ needs. Regulatory agencies
    should review existing policies to enhance
    access to effective opioid analgesic drugs for
    older patients in pain.
  10. Pain-management education should be
    improved at all levels for all health care
    professionals.
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4
Q
  1. The functional pain scale has been standardized
    for the older population. Which of the following
    includes levels of assessment in this
    scale?
    (A) Rating pain as tolerable or intolerable
    (B) A functional component that adjusts the
    score depending on whether a person
    can respond verbally
    (C) A 0 to 5 scale that allows rapid comparison
    with previous pain levels
    (D) Only A and C are correct
    (E) A, B, and C are correct
A
  1. (E) The functional pain scale, which has been
    standardized in an older population for reliability,
    validity, and responsiveness, has three
    levels of assessment: first, the patient rates the
    pain as tolerable or intolerable. Second, a functional
    component adjusts the score depending
    on whether a person can respond verbally.
    Finally, the 0 to 5 scale allows rapid comparison with prior pain levels. Ideally all patients should reach a 0 to 2 level.
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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is a major concern
    regarding antiepileptic agents when used to
    treat neuropathic pain in the elderly patient?
    (A) Propensity to interfere with vitamin D
    metabolism
    (B) Need to use higher doses than those
    used in the young adult
    (C) May disrupt balance
    (D) Only A and C are correct
    (E) A, B, and C are correct
A
  1. (D) Antiepileptic medications are used to
    manage certain painful conditions, including
    trigeminal neuralgia. Gabapentin is indicated
    for postherpetic neuralgia and may be effective
    when administered initially at 100 mg
    orally one to three times per day and increased
    by 300 mg/d as needed. Clonazepam, phenytoin,
    and carbamazepine are other alternatives.
    The greatest concern with antiepileptic agents
    is their propensity to disrupt balance and to
    interfere with vitamin D metabolism.
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6
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding opioid
    use in the geriatric patient?
    (A) Use of long-acting opioids may facilitate
    tolerance and lead to higher opioid
    dosage requirements for adequate pain
    control
    (B) μ-Receptor antagonists are less desirable
    in the elderly
    (C) Meperidine is an excellent choice alone
    or in combination with adjuvant medications
    for intractable pain
    (D) Moderate to severe pain responds well
    to agonists-antagonists agents
    (E) The transdermal route of fentanyl
    should be used as the first choice in the
    elderly, in order to increase compliance
    with the treatment
A
  1. (B)
    A. Use of short-acting opioids (not long-acting
    opioids) may facilitate tolerance and lead
    to higher opioid dosage requirements for
    adequate pain control.
    B. Opioids that are antagonistic to the μ-
    receptor are less desirable, given the high
    prevalence of unrecognized and untreated
    depression in seniors who can benefit from
    the euphoric component that occurs with
    binding to the μ-receptor.
    C. Meperidine has been associated with a host
    of adverse events in seniors and should be
    avoided either alone or in combination with
    a product such as hydroxyzine, which is
    anticholinergic and can be associated with
    orthostatic hypotension and confusion.
    D. There is no role for the geriatric patient for
    agonist-antagonists.
    E. Transdermal fentanyl patch may be useful
    when oral medications cannot be administered
    and subcutaneous and intrathecal
    routes are too cumbersome. In the older
    patient, these patches should be carefully
    considered before using as a first-line
    agent because age-related changes in body
    temperature and subcutaneous fat may
    cause fluctuations in absorption.
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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about the elderly
    and pain?
    (A) Incidence of chronic pain in the
    community-dwelling elderly is the same
    as in nursing home residents
    (B) The prevalence of pain in patients older
    than 60 years of age is twice the incidence
    of those younger than 60 years of age
    (C) The geriatric population in the United
    States consumes more than 50% of all
    prescription drugs
    (D) The elderly often report pain differently
    from other patients because of
    decreased pain threshold
    (E) None of the above
A
  1. (B)
    A. Of the community-dwelling elderly, 25% to
    50% suffer from chronic pain. Of nursing
    home residents, 45% to 80% have chronic
    pain.
    B. The prevalence of pain is twofold higher in
    those older than 60 years (250 per 1000)
    compared with those younger than 60 years
    (125 per 1000).
    C. Older Americans make up approximately
    13% of the US population, yet consume
    30% of all prescription drugs (including
    pain medications) and about 50% of all
    over-the-counter medications purchased.
    D. The elderly often report pain very differently
    from the younger people suffering
    from pain and are more stoic, consequently
    underreporting their pain.
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8
Q
770. When referring to pharmacokinetics in the elderly,
which of the following variables is altered
in the elderly?
(A) Volume of distribution (Vd)
(B) Clearance of drugs (Cl)
(C) Elimination half-life (t1/2 β)
(D) Receptor binding affinity
(E) All of the above
A
  1. (E)
    A. Vd is a function of drug protein binding
    and its lipid solubility. Vd is altered significantly
    in the elderly, in that the lipid content
    increases from 14% to 30%, with a
    decrease in the lean body mass between
    ages 25 and 75 years. As a result of the
    increased lipid content in older people,
    lipid-soluble drugs (opioids, benzodiazepines,
    barbiturates) can therefore have
    dramatically altered elimination t1/2 in this
    patient population.
    B. The clearance of drugs from the body (Cl) is
    the rate at which drugs are removed from
    the blood (ie, mL/min/m2). This elimination
    of drugs usually occurs in the liver and
    kidneys, but lungs and other organs may
    also contribute. In general, most drugs
    undergo somewhat slower biotransformation
    and demonstrate prolonged clinical
    effects if they require hepatic or renal
    degradation.
    C. Aging adversely affects the elimination t1/2
    of drugs.
    D. Receptor-binding affinity is a pharmacodynamic
    variable.
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9
Q
771. Which of the following is true regarding pharmacodynamics
in the elderly?
(A) Pharmacodynamic changes in the elderly
are closely associated with agerelated
decline in central nervous
system (CNS) function
(B) Decreased sensitivity to benzodiazepines
(C) Increased sensitivity to β-blockers
(D) Decreased sensitivity to opioids
(E) When compared to the young adult,
there are no changes in pharmacodynamics
in the elderly
A
  1. (A) Pharmacodynamic principles describe the
    responsiveness of cell receptors at the effector
    site. In general, the elderly usually have
    increased sensitivity to centrally acting drugs
    (ie, benzodiazepines and opioids), whereas the
    adrenergic and cholinergic autonomic nervous
    systems generally have decreased sensitivity
    to receptor-specific drugs (ie, β-blockers). Pharmacodynamic changes in the elderly are
    closely associated with age-related decline in
    CNS function.
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10
Q
772. Which of the following includes factors with
clear associations contributing to poor compliance
in the elderly?
(A) Race
(B) Religious beliefs
(C) Physician-patient communication
(D) Only A and C are correct
(E) A, B, and C are correct
A
  1. (D) The rate of compliance with long-term
    medication regimens is approximately 50%
    across most age groups. Many reasons have
    been cited for this low rate, but the major factor
    predicting compliance is because of simply the
    total number of different medications taken;
    the more the medications, the worse the compliance.
    Other factors with clear associations
    contributing to poor compliance in the elderly
    include race, drug and dosage form, cost, insurance
    coverage, and physician-patient communication.
    Alternatively, inconsistent findings
    regarding compliance and the following factors
    have also been noted: age, sex, comorbidity,
    socioeconomic status, living arrangement,
    number of physician visits, and knowledge,
    attitudes, and beliefs about one’s health.
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11
Q
  1. An 82-year-old male suffers from low back pain
    caused by facet arthropathy. His pain has been
    well under control with weak opioids for several
    years. Over the last year pain has increased in
    severity and current pain medications, although
    still make him slightly drowsy, do not provide
    adequate pain relief. The next step in the management
    of this patient’s pain should be
    (A) switching to strong opioids
    (B) diagnostic lumbar facet blocks
    (C) radiofrequency lesions to the lumbar
    medial branches
    (D) using a combination of two different
    weak opioids
    (E) intrathecal opioids
A
  1. (B) In the elderly, if weak opioids are not efficacious
    in attenuating pain intensity, an
    analysis of the risk to benefit ratio would recommend
    that therapeutic nerve blocks or lowrisk
    neuroablative pain procedures should be
    employed prior to strong opioids. For example,
    a geriatric patient with severe lower back pain
    resulting from facet arthropathy might significantly
    benefit from a facet rhizotomy after a
    diagnostic nerve block with local anesthetic
    proves efficacious. In this case, the risk to benefit
    ratio is tilted toward minimally invasive
    pain procedures, as opposed to opioid therapy,
    since opioid therapy has the potential to impair
    both cognitive and functional status in addition
    to its many other known side effects.
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12
Q
  1. Chronic use of NSAIDs in the geriatric patient
    should be accompanied by
    (A) monitoring liver function test when
    appropriate
    (B) monitoring renal function
    (C) concomitant use of medications such as
    misoprostol or histamine-2 (H2)-blockers
    (D) occasional testing for occult blood in stool
    (E) all of the above
A
  1. (E) Chronic use of NSAIDs in the elderly must
    be accompanied by vigilance in monitoring for
    the various side effects. This vigilance includes
    determining (when appropriate) liver function
    tests, hematocrit, renal function, and occult
    blood in stool. Long-term use should probably
    also include use of misoprostol, which can
    reduce the incidence of NSAID-induced
    ulcers; empirical data suggest that other drugs
    (H2-blockers, sucralfate, antacids, H+ pump
    blockers) may have similar effects.
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13
Q
  1. When opioid therapy is first begun in the geriatric
    patient which of the following should be
    considered?
    (A) It is desirable to use drugs with short
    half-life (t1/2)
    (B) Close monitoring of side effects should
    occur for the first three t1/2 while a therapeutic
    blood level is obtained
    (C) Meperidine would be a better choice as
    an initial opioid than hydromorphone
    (D) Methadone is an excellent choice owing
    to its t1/2
    (E) If pain control with minimal side effects
    has been established with a short-acting
    opioid, it is never recommended to
    switch to a controlled-release formulation
    of the opioid
A
  1. (A) When opioid therapy is first begun, it is
    desirable to use drugs with short t1/2 so that a
    therapeutic blood level of drug can be reached
    relatively quickly. It is during this initial trial of
    opioids that close monitoring for side effects
    must occur, especially during the first six t1/2
    while a therapeutic blood level of drug is being
    obtained. Consequently, drugs such as hydromorphone
    and oxycodone, which have minimal
    active metabolites and relatively short t1/2
    (ie, 2-3 hours), are more desirable than drugs
    with variable t1/2, such as methadone (ie, 12-
    190 hours) or meperidine with its accumulation
    of metabolites toxic to both the kidneys and
    the CNS.
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14
Q
  1. Which of the following is an important goal
    for the elderly patient undergoing physical
    therapy for pain management?
    (A) Obtaining a gainful employment
    (B) Live a more independent life with
    enhanced dignity
    (C) Improve sleeping pattern
    (D) Gain back the physical skills they had as
    a young adult
    (E) None of the above
A
  1. (B) Rehabilitation is an important treatment
    modality for the older patient in pain. By
    decreasing pain and improving function, rehabilitation
    allows the patient to live a more independent
    life with enhanced dignity. This is in
    contrast to the rehabilitation goals of persons
    younger than 65 years of age in whom the primary
    emphasis is on obtaining gainful employment.
    Rehabilitation among chronic geriatric
    pain patients involves adapting, in an optimal
    way, to the loss of physical, psychologic, or
    social skills they once possessed prior to complaints
    of chronic pain.
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15
Q
  1. Prior to a chemical neurolysis to be performed
    in an 80-year-old male for trigeminal neuralgia,
    potential risks must be explained to the patient.
    Which of the following is a potential hazard?
    (A) Motor weakness
    (B) Neuritis
    (C) Deafferentation pain
    (D) Persistent pain at the site of injection
    (E) All of the above
A
  1. (E) Prior to a chemical neurolysis, patients must
    have had successful pain relief after a diagnostic
    local anesthetic block and no intolerable
    side effects. They must also be fully informed
    of the risks, benefits, and options available to
    them prior to consenting for the procedure.
    Many medicolegal issues have resulted from
    this technique because of its complications.
    Most of these complications result from the
    spread of the neurolytic solution to the surrounding
    anatomic structures. Frequent side
    effects (depending on location) can include persistent
    pain at the site of injection, paresthesias,
    hyperesthesia, systemic hypotension,
    bowel and bladder dysfunction, motor weakness,
    deafferentation pain, and neuritis.
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16
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the definition
    of recurrent abdominal pain in childhood
    and adolescence?
    (A) Abdominal pain resulting from gastrointestinal
    disease occurring on at
    least three occasions over a 3-month
    period
    (B) Abdominal pain resulting from gastrointestinal
    disease, gynecologic conditions,
    or congenital anomalies, occurring
    on at least three occasions over a
    3-month period
    (C) Abdominal pain with no organic cause
    occurring on at least three occasions over
    a 3-month period that is severe enough
    to alter the child’s normal activity
    (D) Abdominal pain with an organic cause,
    such as metabolic disease, neurologic
    disorders, hematologic disease, gastrointestinal
    disease, gynecologic condition,
    or other, that occurs at least in three
    occasions over a 3-month period
    (E) Acute abdominal pain from intestinal,
    renal, and gynecologic disorders, which
    can be treated surgically
A
  1. (C)
    A. and B. The definition of recurrent abdominal
    pain in childhood excludes abdominal pain resulting from known medical conditions
    such as pain from neurologic disorders,
    metabolic disease (diabetes, porphyria,
    hyperparathyroidism), hematologic disease
    (sickle cell anemia), gastrointestinal disease,
    gynecologic conditions, chronic infection,
    and pain related to congenital anomalies
    C. The definition of recurrent abdominal pain
    in childhood and adolescence is pain with
    no organic cause occurring on at least three
    occasions over a 3-month period that is
    severe enough to alter the child’s normal
    activity.
    D. and E. The definition of recurrent abdominal
    pain in childhood excludes abdominal
    pain resulting from known medical conditions
    such as pain from neurologic disorders,
    metabolic disease (diabetes, porphyria,
    hyperparathyroidism), hematologic disease
    (sickle cell anemia), gastrointestinal disease,
    gynecologic conditions, chronic infection,
    and pain related to congenital anomalies. It
    also excludes acute pain from acute renal,
    intestinal, and gynecologic disorders, which
    can be treated surgically.
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17
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding
    migraine headaches in the pediatric population?
    (A) Incidence of migraine is higher in prepubertal
    children when compared to
    those who have reached puberty
    (B) In children with common migraine,
    there is unilateral localization of pain
    which is mostly preceded by an aura
    (C) Classic migraine usually present in children
    with an aura, followed by a
    bifrontal or bitemporal pain
    (D) Most children with common migraine
    present with abdominal pain
    (E) Ophthalmoplegic migraine is fairly
    common in children younger than
    4 years of age, and is usually accompanied
    by miosis
A
  1. (D)
    A. The incidence of migraine is about 3% to
    5% of prepubertal children. After puberty,
    the incidence of migraine increases notably,
    reaching 10% to 20% of children by age
    20 years.
    B. Common migraine is the type seen in children
    before puberty. Most recurrent childhood
    migraine is of this type. There is no
    aura before the headache and no unilateral
    focal localization of the pain. The pain is
    usually bifrontal or bitemporal.
    C. Classic migraine is different from common
    migraine; the former starts with a visual
    aura in 30% of children affected and a
    sensory, sensorimotor aura, or speech
    impairment in 10%. These auras are followed
    by severe, throbbing, hemicranial,
    well-localized headache.
    D. Migraine in children can be defined as
    recurrent headache accompanied by three
    of the following symptoms:
    • Recurrent abdominal pain with or without
    nausea or vomiting
    • Throbbing pain on one side of the cranium
    • Relief of the pain by rest
    • A visual, sensory, or motor aura
    • A family history of migraine
    About 70% of children with common
    migraine have abdominal pain.
    E. Ophthalmoplegic migraine is rare in children
    before 4 to 5 years of age, usually
    affects only one eye, and is often accompanied
    by mydriasis.
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18
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes chest
    pain during childhood?
    (A) Cardiac involvement is extremely rare;
    an electrocardiogram (ECG) is indicated
    but mainly for reassurance of the parents,
    since it will be normal in most cases
    (B) It is seen more often in children younger
    than 10 years of age
    (C) It is more common than abdominal pain
    or headaches
    (D) Costochondritis ranks second to cardiac
    involvement in being the most common
    cause of chest pain in this population
    (E) Muscle strain is the most common cause
    of chest pain in children
A
  1. (A)
    A. Identification of the origin of the pain and
    reassurance of the patient and family are
    often the most important elements of treatment
    provided that specific organic causes
    have been investigated. Since cardiac
    involvement is what worries the child and
    family most, it should be stressed that this
    cause is extremely rare. An ECG will be
    normal and is indicated only to reassure
    the parents.
    B. and C. Chest pain is relatively common in
    children. It ranks third in frequency after
    headache and abdominal pain and may be
    as common as limb pain. It is seen most
    often between 10 and 21 years of age.
    D. Costochondritis is the most common cause
    of chest pain in children. It often occurs
    after an upper respiratory infection, can
    radiate to the back, and can last from a few
    days to several months. The pain can be
    reproduced by palpating the painful area
    or by mobilizing the arm or shoulder.
    E. Costochondritis is the most common cause
    of chest pain in children. Trauma, muscle
    strain, chest wall syndrome, rib anomalies,
    and hyperventilation have been cited as
    other causes of the pain.
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19
Q
  1. Which of the following is false regarding sickle
    cell anemia in children?
    (A) Pain occurs when and where there is
    occlusion of small blood vessels by sickled
    erythrocytes, usually small bones of
    the extremities in smaller children and
    abdomen, chest, long bones, and lower
    back in older children
    (B) Tricyclic antidepressants are recommended
    for analgesia during the acute
    phase of a vasoocclusive crisis
    (C) Use of opioids is indicated in patients
    with severe pain
    (D) Painful crisis can be triggered by hypoxemia,
    cold, infection, and hypovolemia
    (E) In children with excruciating pain that
    does not respond to nonnarcotic analgesics,
    and inadequate treatment of the
    painful crisis can lead to drug-seeking
    behavior and profound psychosocial
    problems
A
  1. (B)
    A. Sickle cell anemia is the most common
    hemoglobinopathy in the United States. It
    occurs in 0.3% to 1.3% of the African
    American population. Pain occurs during
    vasoocclusive crisis, the frequency of which is unpredictable and ranges from less than
    one crisis a year to a crisis several times a
    year or several times a month. Pain occurs
    when and where there is occlusion of small
    blood vessels by sickled erythrocytes, usually
    small bones of the extremities in smaller
    children and abdomen, chest, long bones,
    and lower back in older children.
    B. Tricyclic antidepressants are not recommended
    for analgesia during the acute
    phase of a vasoocclusive crisis because they
    do not act quickly enough. They can, however,
    be useful for long-term use in patients
    who have frequent crises.
    C. and E. Although the use of narcotics can
    lead to complications such as respiratory
    depression as well as complications from
    atelectasis and focal pulmonary hypoxia,
    this issue alone should not preclude the use
    of potent analgesics for patients in severe
    pain. On the contrary, these children can
    have excruciating pain that does not
    respond to nonnarcotic analgesics, and inadequate
    treatment of the painful crisis can
    lead to drug-seeking behavior and profound
    psychosocial problems.
    D. The painful crisis can be triggered by
    hypoxemia, cold, infection, and hypovolemia
    and evolves in three phases:
  2. The prodromal phase occurs up to 2 days
    before the actual sickle crisis with paresthesias,
    numbness, and an increase in
    circulating sickle cells.
  3. The following phase or initial phase lasts
    1 to 2 days and includes pain, anorexia,
    and fear and anxiety.
  4. During the established phase, pain that
    lasts 3 to 7 days, inflammation, swelling,
    and leukocytosis are present.
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20
Q
782. Which of the following is the best choice for
management of the painful hemarthroses in
children suffering from hemophilia?
(A) Aspirin
(B) Pentazocine
(C) Cortisone
(D) Ibuprofen
(E) Acetaminophen
A
  1. (E)
    A. Analgesic therapy is an important part of
    the management of hemophilia, although
    it is secondary to replacement therapy.
    Aspirin and drugs that inhibit platelet
    function should be avoided, but acetaminophen,
    codeine, hydromorphone, and
    methadone can be given orally.
    B. Pentazocine is never indicated in patients
    with painful hemarthroses secondary to
    hemophilia because it causes dysphoria.
    C. and D. Steroids and NSAIDs can be used to
    relieve pain from arthritis, but caution
    should be exercised when these drugs are
    used because they inhibit platelet activity.
    E. Acetaminophen, codeine, hydromorphone,
    and methadone can be given orally for the
    treatment of painful hemarthroses in these
    patients.
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21
Q
  1. Which of the following is false regarding complex
    regional pain syndrome type I (CRPS I) in
    children?
    (A) The affected area is usually the upper
    limb as opposed to the lower limb in
    adults
    (B) Physical therapy is withheld for cases
    that do not respond to oral medication
    and/or sympathetic blocks in the first
    place
    (C) Multidisciplinary treatment combining
    transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation
    (TENS), physical therapy, psychotherapy
    using behavior modification
    techniques, and oral medications is
    effective in most children
    (D) Typical children with CRPS I or CRPS II
    show a profile of being intelligent,
    driven overachievers who are involved
    in very competitive activities and who
    often react to the loss of this activity
    with depression
    (E) Sympathetic blocks are indicated to permit
    more vigorous physical therapy if
    pain prevents the start of these therapies
A
  1. (B)
    A. CRPS I has been reported in children as
    young as 3 years. It is characterized by
    severe pain, often burning in quality, persisting
    much longer than would be
    expected after the initial injury. The
    affected area, more often an upper limb
    than a lower limb in children (most common
    areas are hand or wrist, elbow, shoulder,
    or hip), is intermittently swollen, mottled,
    and alternately red or cyanotic.
    B. Physical therapy is probably the most
    important intervention and combines cautious
    manipulation of the affected limb,
    hot and cold therapy, whirlpool massages,
    and a program of intense active exercise.
    C. Multidisciplinary treatment combining
    TENS, physical therapy, psychotherapy
    using behavior modification techniques,
    and oral medications is effective in most
    children. The TENS unit is worn for a few
    hours every day or for 1 to 2 hours before
    going out for some activity or to school.
    TENS brings some degree of pain relief to
    many patients and produces spectacular
    results in a few. Behavior modification is
    an important part of the treatment and
    should be instituted from the beginning of
    the therapeutic plan. Patients are taught
    relaxation techniques and are given relaxation
    tapes to use at home. An NSAID and an antidepressant at a low analgesic dose
    are often given, as is an anticonvulsant.
    D. Sometimes a particular psychologic profile
    can be seen in children with CRPS I or
    CRPS II. The children are intelligent, driven
    overachievers who are involved (usually with success) in very competitive activities
    and who often react to the loss of this activity
    with depression. Other psychologic
    issues such as family discord or divorce and
    enmeshment with one parent are found.
    School attendance is often an issue.
    E. In patients with CRPS, if pain or dysfunction
    prevents the start of physiotherapy or
    persists despite these treatments, sympathetic
    blocks such as lumbar, stellate ganglion,
    or epidural with dilute solutions of
    local anesthetics are indicated. The goals of
    the sympathetic blockade are to
  2. Ascertain the sympathetic origin of the
    disorder.
  3. Break the vicious circle of sympathetically
    maintained pain.
  4. Permit more vigorous physical therapy.
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22
Q
784. Which of the following is true regarding sport
injuries in the pediatric patient?
(A) The injuries encountered are overuse
injuries similar to those found in the
adult recreational athlete who does not
train correctly, usually doing too much
in too short a time
(B) Growth is not an important factor in
these injuries
(C) Growth spurts in children cause tendon
and muscle tightness, both of which
minimize the chances of a sport injury
(D) Treatment options such as oral acetaminophen,
NSAIDs and aspirin do not
provide adequate pain relief and should
not be used in these cases
(E) Sport injuries are responsible for less
than 10% of the cases of low back pain
in children
A
  1. (A)
    A. The sports injuries encountered in children
    are overuse injuries similar to those found
    in the adult recreational athlete who does
    not train correctly, usually doing too much
    in too short a time. The causes of these
    injuries also include muscle-tendon imbalance,
    anatomical malalignment, inadequate
    footwear, and growth.
    B. and C. Growth is an important factor in
    sports injuries for two reasons:
  2. Growth cartilage is less resistant to
    injury than the adult-type cartilage.
  3. Growth spurts in children cause tendon
    and muscle tightness, leading to pain
    and sometimes stress fracture. These
    fractures are most often seen in the tibia
    or the fibula.
    D. Treatment consists of immobilization of
    fractures, straight leg strengthening exercises
    with use of leg braces in cases of knee
    injuries, rest, and use of orthotic footwear.
    NSAIDs and minor pain medicine, such as
    aspirin and acetaminophen, are useful
    when pain is present. These injuries usually
    respond well to these conservative measures
    but are best avoided through primary
    prevention, because it is recognized that
    they are bound to happen in young children
    involved in sports.
    E. Low back pain is rare in children and shares
    neither the etiology nor the poor prognosis
    with the adult form. Most cases of low back
    pain in children and adolescents are sportsrelated
    and occur during the growth spurt
    phase. A tendency for lordosis of the spine
    to develop appears at that time. With overuse,
    low back pain may develop.
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23
Q
785. Which of the following statements is false
regarding pediatric cancer pain?
(A) Phantom sensations and phantom limb
pain are common among children following
amputation for cancer in an
extremity
(B) Phantom pain in children tends to
increase with time
(C) Some patients have chronic lower
extremity pain caused by avascular
necrosis of multiple joints
(D) An example of a neuropathic pain syndrome
in pediatric cancer patients is
postherpetic neuralgia
(E) Children with cancer pain often present
with longstanding myofascial pain
A
  1. (B)
    A. and B. Phantom sensations and phantom
    limb pain are common among children following
    amputation for cancer in an extremity.
    Phantom pain in children tends to
    decrease with time. Preamputation pain in
    the diseased extremity may be a predictor
    for subsequent phantom pain.
    C., D., and E. Long-term survivors of childhood
    cancer occasionally experience chronic pain.
    Neuropathic pains include peripheral neuralgias
    of the lower extremity, phantom limb
    pain, postherpetic neuralgia, and central
    pain after spinal cord tumor resection. Some
    patients have chronic lower extremity pain
    caused by a mechanical problem with an
    internal prosthesis or a failure of bony union
    or avascular necrosis of multiple joints.
    Others have long-standing myofascial pains
    and chronic abdominal pain of uncertain etiology.
    Some patients treated with shunts for
    brain tumors have recurrent headaches that
    appear unrelated to intracranial pressure or
    changes in shunt functioning.
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24
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false
    regarding interventional approaches for pediatric
    cancer pain management?
    (A) In the pediatric cancer population, many
    children and parents are reluctant to
    consider procedures with the potential
    for irreversible loss of somatic function
    (B) Dose requirements vary dramatically for
    spinal infusions in children, and they
    require individualized attention
    (C) For pediatric spinal infusions, the
    process of converting from systemic to
    spinal drug is often quite unpredictable,
    with the potential for either oversedation
    or withdrawal symptoms
    (D) As opposed to the adult population,
    celiac plexus blockade barely produces
    pain relief for children with severe pain
    caused by massively enlarged upper
    abdominal viscera owing to tumor
    (E) In pediatric patients, it is recommended
    to place catheters while patients are
    under general anesthesia or deep sedation,
    not awake
A
  1. (D)
    A. and D. As with adults, celiac plexus blockade
    can provide excellent pain relief for
    children with severe pain caused by massively
    enlarged upper abdominal viscera
    owing to a tumor. Many children and
    parents are reluctant to consider procedures
    with the potential for irreversible loss
    of somatic function. Decompressive operations
    on the spine can in occasional cases
    produce dramatic relief of pain.
    B., C., and E. Spinal infusions can provide excellent
    analgesia in refractory cases, but they
    require individualized attention and should
    not be undertaken by inexperienced practitioners
    without guidance. Dose requirements
    vary dramatically, and the process of
    converting from systemic to spinal drug is
    often quite unpredictable, with the potential
    for either oversedation or withdrawal symptoms.
    If children with spinal infusions are to
    be treated at home, it is essential to have
    resources available to manage new symptoms,
    such as terminal dyspnea and air
    hunger. In pediatric patients, it is recommended
    to place catheters while patients are
    under general anesthesia or deep sedation,
    not awake.
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25
Q
  1. In the immediate postoperative period, why
    are parenteral pain medications best given by
    continuous infusion rather than intermittent
    intravenous (IV)/intramuscular (IM) boluses?
    (A) Opioid infusions do not cause nausea or
    vomiting
    (B) Continuous infusions are associated with
    higher serum concentrations of the drug
    (C) Opioid infusions are not associated with
    somnolence or respiratory depression, as
    opposed to intermittent opioid dosing
    (D) No need of monitoring pediatric
    patients with continuous opioid infusions
    as opposed to constant monitoring
    in patients with intermittent boluses
    (E) Boluses are associated with frequent
    periods of inadequate pain relief
A
  1. (E)
    A., B., C., and D. The most common side
    effects found with narcotic administration
    are nausea or vomiting and pruritus. The
    former usually respond to perphenazine or
    prochlorperazine and the latter to diphenhydramine
    or promethazine. Because somnolence
    and respiratory depression can
    also occur, patients receiving infusions of
    narcotics require close attention, especially
    when the pain is so well-controlled that the
    pain stimulus of respiration is no longer
    present.
    E. Drugs can be given as boluses or continuous
    infusions. Boluses are easy to administer
    and provide rapid pain relief; however,
    they have the disadvantage of providing
    short periods of analgesia sometimes associated
    with side effects when serum drug
    concentration peaks, followed by inadequate
    pain relief while the level decreases
    until the next injection. Continuous infusions,
    conversely, avoid this roller coaster
    of pain relief followed by pain and provide
    continuous analgesia with low plasma levels
    of drugs even in newborns and infants.
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26
Q
788. Which of the following is an acceptable alternative
for postoperative pain management in
children when able to tolerate the oral route?
(A) Codeine
(B) Acetaminophen
(C) Methadone
(D) Immediate-release morphine
(E) All of the above
A
  1. (E) Postoperatively, when the oral route can
    again be used, methadone can be prescribed at
    a dose one- to twofold that of the IV route. Oral
    morphine sulfate can also provide adequate pain relief for moderate to severe pain. Codeine
    can be given orally alone or in combination with
    acetaminophen or aspirin for moderate pain;
    mild pain is relieved by acetaminophen alone in
    most cases. In any case, the most important
    aspect of postoperative pain control is to assess
    pain repeatedly with simple pain and behavior
    scales and to adapt pain medication to the pain
    scores provided by these scales and physiological
    findings.
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27
Q
789. Which of the following is true regarding pediatric
regional anesthesia?
(A) Epidural catheters placed in the thoracic
or lumbar spine should not be left in
place for more than 2 days because of
concerns about infection, displacement,
or discomfort
(B) Caudal epidural catheters are contraindicated
for postoperative pain management
in small children because of
the high incidence of infection
(C) Spinal anesthesia has had limited indications
in children and adolescents
because of the incidence of postspinal
headache in this age group
(D) In newborns and infants, spinal anesthesia
provides anesthesia with a profound
motor block for a prolonged period of
time, making it a useful alternative for
postoperative pain relief
(E) All of the above
A
  1. (C)
    A. and B. These catheters can be left in place
    for as long as a week or more without concerns
    about infection, displacement, or discomfort.
    An alternate approach to the
    epidural space is catheter placement via the
    caudal route, but its proximity to the anus
    raises concern about puncture site infection
    in the postoperative period, especially in
    small children.
    C. and D. Spinal anesthesia has had limited
    indications in children and adolescents
    because of the incidence of postspinal
    headache in this age group. In newborns
    and infants, it provides anesthesia with a
    profound motor block for a short time (45-
    100 minutes) and thus cannot be used for
    postoperative pain relief. It is indicated in
    infants born prematurely and are less than
    45 to 60 weeks’ postconceptual age in whom
    general anesthesia and sedation have been
    shown to induce postoperative apnea.
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28
Q
  1. In pediatric patients taking high doses of opioids,
    it is advised that an opioid contract should
    be signed by all parties involved. Which of the
    following should be included in this contract?
    (A) Use of multiple prescriptions for all
    pain-related medications
    (B) Use of as many pharmacies as possible
    (C) A statement specifying that there is no
    need for monitoring compliance of treatment
    since this does not apply to pediatric
    patients
    (D) Need for random urine or serum medication
    levels screening, regardless that
    the patient is a child
    (E) None of the above
A
  1. (D) Opioid contracts are used in many adult
    practices, but their use is not common in pediatrics.
    The opioid contract clearly defines the
    expectations and responsibilities of the patient,
    parent, and medical caregiver. Guidelines from
    the Medical Society of Virginia’s special
    Pain Management Subcommittee have been
    employed by many pain physicians throughout
    the United States.
    Written documentation of both physician
    and patient responsibilities must include
  2. Risks and complications associated with
    treatment using opioids
  3. Use of a single prescriber for all painrelated
    medications
  4. Use of a single pharmacy, if possible
  5. Monitoring compliance of treatment
    a. Urine or serum medication levels
    screening (including checks for nonprescribed
    medications and substances)
    when requested
    b Number and frequency of all prescription
    refills
    c. Reasons for which opioid therapy
    may be discontinued
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29
Q
  1. Which of the following includes common misconceptions
    regarding pediatric pain?
    (A) It appears that adults are more likely to
    be believed than children when they
    complain of pain or discomfort
    (B) Neonates and young children do not
    display learned pain behavior and
    therefore do not express pain in an adult
    fashion
    (C) Silence is interpreted as a sign of being
    comfortable
    (D) Immobility without facial grimace or
    focus on the pain source is interpreted
    as absence of pain
    (E) All of the above
A
  1. (E) There are several distinctions between pediatric
    pain concerns and adult pain concerns.
    Misconceptions about a child’s inability to feel
    pain persists. The belief that children “tolerate
    pain well” still prevails. Children continue to
    receive fewer analgesics than adults do in comparable
    settings.
    Adults indirectly require that children
    prove their pain to merit the administration of
    pain interventions. If a child does not act as if
    he or she is experiencing severe pain, the child
    is less likely to receive analgesic care. It appears
    that adults are more likely than children to be
    believed when they complain of pain or discomfort.
    Studies show that for similar surgeries
    in adult and pediatric patients, the adults
    receive more doses of analgesic medications.
    Neonates and young children do not display
    learned pain behavior and therefore do not
    express pain in an adult fashion. Adult caregivers
    often miss pain cues that are developmentally
    appropriate. Silence is interpreted as a
    sign of being comfortable. Similarly, immobility
    without facial grimace or focus on the pain
    source is interpreted as absence of pain. Yet, on
    direct questioning about the existence of pain,
    many children do affirm that they are experiencing
    pain. Children may lie quietly and enjoy
    television; however, they do not want to move
    because of fear of increased pain.
30
Q
  1. Differences between opioid abuse and opioid
    physical dependence include
    (A) physical dependence involves loss of
    control and compulsive use regardless
    of the adverse consequences
    (B) opioid abuse is characterized by presence
    of withdrawal symptoms during
    abstinence
    (C) physical dependence is a physiologic
    state characterized by the presence of
    withdrawal symptoms during abstinence
    (D) physical dependence and addiction are
    synonymous
    (E) patients presenting opioid abuse are not
    likely to develop addiction in the future
A
  1. (C) The term “addiction” is familiar to medical
    and private sectors, but both factions often
    misuse the term as describing both physical and
    psychologic dependence. Addiction is a disease
    process involving the use of opioids wherein
    there is a loss of control, compulsive use, and
    continued use despite adverse social, physical,
    psychologic, occupational, or economic consequences.
    Physical dependence is a physiological
    state of adaptation to a specific opioid characterized
    by the emergence of a withdrawal syndrome
    during abstinence, which may be
    relieved totally or in part by readministration of
    the substance. Physical dependence is predictable
    sequelae of regular, legitimate opioid
    or benzodiazepine use and is not identical to
    addiction. The incidence of addiction in children
    receiving prescribed opioids is low.
    The present climate of drug-abuse prevention
    has, in part, emphasized the predatory
    nature of drug addiction and heightens fear in
    children and adults. More education is
    needed by lay people and health care professionals
    in distinguishing addiction from physical
    dependence. Patients who receive analgesics
    for a recognized pain complaint are not
    more likely to become addicted than the general
    population. The incidence of addiction in
    children receiving prescribed opioids is low.
31
Q
  1. The term “whiplash injury” that results in
    chronic neck pain describes the resultant injury
    caused by an abrupt
    (A) hyperflexion of the neck from a direct
    force
    (B) hyperextension of the neck from an
    indirect force
    (C) hyperflexion of the neck from an indirect
    force
    (D) hyperextension of the neck from a direct
    force
    (E) rotation of the neck from a direct force
A
  1. (B) Neck injuries often are a result of motor
    vehicle accidents. Some studies have shown
    that up to 60% of patients injured in car accidents
    present to the hospital with neck pain.
    The term “whiplash” describes the resultant
    injury caused by an abrupt hyperextension of
    the neck from an indirect force.
32
Q
  1. After sustaining a rear-end collision in a car
    accident, a 25-year-old male patient complains
    of neck pain. Which of the following are the
    cervical structures involved in this whiplash
    injury?
    (A) Sternocleidomastoid muscle
    (B) Longus colli muscle
    (C) Scalene muscles
    (D) Only A and C are correct
    (E) A, B, and C are correct
A
  1. (E) After a whiplash injury, symptoms may
    occur 12 to 24 hours later. This is because of the
    fact that muscular hemorrhage and edema may
    need to evolve prior to inciting a nociceptive
    response. The cervical flexors, specifically the
    sternocleidomastoid, scalene, and the longus
    colli undergo acute stretch reflex. Some fibers
    are torn.
33
Q
795. Which of the following is a prognostic indicator
of chronic symptoms after sustaining a
whiplash injury?
(A) Use if a cervical collar for more than
12 weeks
(B) Physical therapy restarted more than
once
(C) Numbness and pain in the upper
extremity
(D) Requirement of home traction
(E) All of the above
A
  1. (E) A substantial number of patients with
    whiplash have chronic symptoms. Prognostic
    indicators for chronic symptoms include
    numbness and pain in the upper extremity, use
    of a cervical collar for more than 12 weeks,
    requirement of home traction, physical therapy
    restarted more than once.
34
Q
  1. A32-year-old male sustained a blunt trauma to
    the left supraorbital area of his face. The patient
    manifests burning pain, occasional tingling,
    and intermittent stabbing. Which of the following
    is true about this patient’s pain?
    (A) This is a self-limiting condition that generally
    resolves spontaneously within
    several years
    (B) With trophic changes, edema, and redness,
    CRPS I should be suspected
    (C) Sympathetic blockade of the stellate
    ganglion may be effective
    (D) Amitriptyline may reduce pain
    (E) All of the above
A
  1. (E) Facial pain may occur after trauma.
    Examples include bullet wounds, maxillofacial surgery, and dental procedures. Some patients
    manifest constant burning pain, occasionally
    with tingling and intermittent stabbing. With
    trophic changes, edema, and redness, CRPS I
    should be suspected. In patients with burning
    pain, sympathetic blockade of the stellate ganglion
    may be effective. Amitriptyline may
    reduce pain.
35
Q
797. Which of the following variables may improve
significantly in a patient with multiple rib fractures
and an epidural infusion of epidural
bupivacaine?
(A) Vital capacity (VC)
(B) Hematocrit
(C) Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
(D) Platelet aggregation
(E) Hemoglobin oxygen saturation
A
  1. (A) Rib fracture pain may cause a decrease in
    ventilatory function and increase in incidence of
    pulmonary morbidity. It has been found that
    epidural analgesia is an independent predictor
    of decreased mortality and incidence of pulmonary
    complications. Significant improvements
    in VC and FEV1 (forced expiratory
    volume) occur in patients with rib fractures who
    receive thoracic epidural bupivacaine compared
    with those that receive lumbar epidural morphine.
    There are no changes in hematocrit,
    oxygen saturation, platelet aggregation, or expiratory
    reserve volume.
36
Q
  1. Flail chest because of multiple rib fractures may
    result in
    (A) changes in oxygenation, but not in ventilation
    status
    (B) mild pain that usually does not results
    in splinting or atelectasis
    (C) increase in shunt fraction
    (D) increase in ventilation and hypocarbia
    (E) shunt, but no ventilation and perfusion
    mismatch
A
  1. (C) Trauma to the chest is a significant cause of
    morbidity and mortality. The pathophysiologic
    sequelae of multiple rib fractures, especially
    with flail chest, are pain and hypoxia. Hypoxia
    results from the ventilation and perfusion mismatch
    in the underlying contused lung.
    Uncontrolled pain can result in splinting and
    muscle spasms, which lead to decreased ventilation
    and atelectasis. The compromise in pulmonary
    function causes hypoxemia, an
    increase in shunt fraction, or infection.
37
Q
  1. When sustaining trauma to the spine, which of
    the following statements regarding elements
    injured is correct?
    (A) Disc injuries are common in the thoracic
    spine
    (B) Vertebral end-plate fractures are common
    in the cervical spine
    (C) Injury to the thoracic facets is more
    common than to the cervical facets
    (D) Disc injuries are predominant in the cervical
    spine
    (E) The posterior elements of the vertebral
    fractures are never involved
A
  1. (D) When comparing injuries in the thoracic
    and cervical spine areas after sustained trauma,
    it is observed that there are similar incidences
    of facet injuries in the upper thoracic spine and
    the cervical spine. By contrast, in the anterior
    elements, vertebral end-plate fracture and bone
    bruising are more common in the thoracic
    spine, whereas disc injuries predominate in the
    cervical spine. This raises the question whether
    interscapular pain is referred from the neck or
    arises locally. Investigations of pathology, to be
    correlated with the effect of local anesthetic
    blocks, should enable the clinician to distinguish
    the true pain source.
38
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding the
    management of pain in the traumatic injury
    pain patients?
    (A) Obtaining hemodynamic stability is one
    of the main goals
    (B) It is important to sustain sympathetic
    hyperactivity
    (C) Uncontrolled pain may contribute to
    the development of posttraumatic stress
    disorder
    (D) When pain is adequately treated, these
    patients will always present with
    impairment of consciousness
    (E) None of the above
A
  1. (C) Hemodynamic stability, minimal impairment
    of the patient’s level of consciousness and
    responsiveness, and adequate analgesia to
    reduce sympathetic hyperactivity and to allow
    patient rehabilitation efforts are the primary
    goals in the management of the patient with
    pain after traumatic injury. Uncontrolled pain
    following traumatic injury compounds the anxiety
    and posttraumatic sympathetic nervous
    system hyperactivity. Uncontrolled pain following
    traumatic injury has been associated
    with the development of posttraumatic stress
    disorder.
39
Q
  1. Techniques in the management of pain in
    patients with spinal cord injury (SCI) include
    (A) opioid analgesics via IV patientcontrolled
    analgesia (PCA)
    (B) bedside placement of epidural catheters
    for continuous infusion
    (C) bedside placement of intrathecal
    catheters for continuous infusion
    (D) no need for oral adjuvant medications
    besides opioids
    (E) all of the above
A
  1. (A) Patients with spine injury are usually managed
    with systemic analgesic techniques
    because of the risk of SCI or obscuring ongoing
    neurologic assessment with epidural analgesic
    techniques. Systemic opioid analgesic techniques,
    such as intravenous PCA, allow patient
    titration of analgesia and ongoing neurologic
    evaluation. Adjuvant analgesics, such as acetaminophen,
    may improve pain relief while
    reducing opioid requirements and opioidrelated
    side effects. Intraoperative administration
    of epidural or intrathecal opioid analgesics
    with epidural catheter placement and maintenance
    of continuous postoperative epidural
    opioid analgesia is an excellent technique for
    postsurgical analgesia. The percutaneous exit
    site for the epidural catheter can be made some
    distance lateral to the surgical incision, minimizing
    the effects on wound healing or infection.
40
Q
  1. Which of the following is a good alternative
    for pain control in the patient with post–burn
    injury pain?
    (A) Scheduled around-the-clock opioid
    boluses
    (B) Continuous IV infusion of hydromorphone
    (C) Transdermal fentanyl
    (D) Intramuscular morphine given only as
    needed
    (E) None of the above
A
  1. (B) Post–burn injury pain has two primary
    components: a relatively constant background
    pain and an intermittent procedure-related
    pain. Continuous IV infusion of opioid analgesics
    is an effective method of managing the
    background pain component. Morphine and
    fentanyl have been extensively used in this setting
    although rapid escalation of opioid dose
    requirement and hemodynamic instability are
    not uncommonly seen. Hydromorphone is
    another alternative. A continuous IV titration
    paradigm for methadone has been described
    which produces effective and stable analgesia
    with minimal hemodynamic effects. Patients
    receive an IV loading dose by IV infusion of methadone over an initial period of 2 hours at
    0.1 mg/kg/h. The infusion is terminated prior
    to the end of the initial 2-hour period if the
    patient develops signs of excessive somnolence
    or respiratory depression. This initial loading
    dose infusion is followed by a maintenance
    infusion of 0.01 mg/kg/h of methadone.
    Transdermal preparations are not appropriate.
41
Q
  1. In the patient with trauma injuries involving an
    extremity it is important to monitor for compartment
    syndrome. When using a regional technique
    for pain control, methods that may help
    monitoring compartment syndrome include
    (A) use of epidural infusion containing local
    anesthetics at doses where motor block
    is present
    (B) continuous plexus catheter using high
    concentration of local anesthetics to
    avoid incidental pain with movement
    (C) continuous peripheral nerve catheter
    using low-dose local anesthetic
    (D) continuous IV local anesthetic infusion
    (E) all of the above
A
  1. (C) Trauma patients with extremity injuries can
    be managed with a variety of techniques, including
    peripheral neural blockade, epidural analgesia,
    and systemic opioid analgesia. Adjuvant
    analgesics, such as acetaminophen and NSAIDs,
    are particularly effective in providing supplemental
    analgesia for orthopedic injuries, reducing
    opioid requirements and opioid-related side
    effects. Brachial plexus or peripheral neural
    blockade is effective for upper extremity injuries,
    whereas lumbar plexus or sciatic or femoral
    neural blockade techniques are effective for
    many lower extremity injuries. Continuous analgesia
    can be maintained with continuous plexus
    or peripheral nerve catheter techniques or continuous
    epidural analgesia. Monitoring for compartment
    syndrome may be necessary in some
    patients with extremity trauma, although low
    concentrations of local anesthetics (bupivacaine
    0.125% or ropivacaine 0.2%) and opioids allow
    continued monitoring of compartment pressures
    and subjective changes in pain report in most
    patients. Intermittent interruption in continuous
    local anesthetic infusions may provide a greater
    margin of safety in patients at high risk for development
    of compartment syndrome.
42
Q
  1. In the trauma patient with chest injury, epidural
    analgesia has been proven to provide excellent
    pain control and to
    (A) avoid endotracheal intubation is some
    cases
    (B) shorten the stay at the intensive care
    unit (ICU)
    (C) decrease ventilator dependence
    (D) shorten hospital stay
    (E) all of the above
A
  1. (E) Effective analgesia is especially important in
    the postinjury rehabilitation of the patient with
    a chest injury such as rib fractures, flail chest,
    sternal fractures, or thoracostomy drainage
    tubes because of the risk of chest wall splinting
    and inadequate lung expansion and clearance
    of pulmonary secretions secondary to pain.
    Several studies have demonstrated a significant
    benefit in avoidance of endotracheal intubation,
    earlier postinjury extubation, decreased
    ventilator dependence, shorter stay in the ICU,
    shorter hospital stay, and improved postinjury
    rehabilitation with the use of continuous
    epidural analgesia with local anesthetic and opioid or intercostal neural blockade for pain
    management following chest injury.
43
Q
805. Types of pain commonly treated after major
abdominal surgery for patients with a wellknown
history SCI are
(A) musculoskeletal pain
(B) visceral pain
(C) at-level neuropathic pain
(D) below-level neuropathic pain
(E) all of the above
A
  1. (E)
    A. Most patients who sustain an injury to the
    spinal cord have also received massive
    trauma to the vertebral column and its supporting
    structures, and will have acute
    nociceptive pain arising from damage to
    structures such as bones, ligaments, muscles,
    intervertebral discs, and facet joints.
    Some acute musculoskeletal pain is also
    related to structural spinal damage and
    instability without necessarily having
    spinal cord damage.
    B. Pathology in visceral structures, such as urinary
    tract infections, bowel impaction, and
    renal calculi, will generally give rise to nociceptive
    pain, although the level of the injury
    will affect the quality of the pain. Therefore
    paraplegic patients may experience visceral
    pain that is identical to that in patients who
    have no spinal cord damage. However,
    tetraplegic patients may experience more
    vague generalized symptoms of unpleasantness
    that are difficult to interpret.
    C. The diagnosis of neuropathic pain is largely
    based on descriptors (sharp, shooting, electric,
    burning, and stabbing), and the pain is
    located in a region of sensory disturbance.
    Neuropathic at-level pain refers to pain
    with these features, and present in a segmental
    or dermatomal pattern within two
    segments above or below the level of injury.
    This type of pain is also referred to as segmental,
    transitional zone, border zone, end
    zone, and girdle zone pain, names that
    reflect its characteristic location in the dermatomes
    close to the level of injury. It is
    often associated with allodynia or hyperesthesia
    of the affected dermatomes.
    D. This type of pain, which is also referred to
    as central dysesthesia syndrome, central
    pain, phantom pain, or deafferentation
    pain, presents with spontaneous and/or
    evoked pain that is present often diffusely
    caudal to the level of SCI. It is characterized
    by sensations of burning, aching, stabbing,
    or electric shocks, often with hyperalgesia and it often develops sometime after the
    initial injury. It is constant but may fluctuate
    with mood, activity, infections, or other
    factors, and is not related to position or
    activity. Sudden noises or jarring movements
    may trigger this type of pain. Differences
    in the nature of below-level neuropathic
    pain may be apparent between those with
    complete and incomplete lesions. Both
    complete and partial injuries may be associated
    with the diffuse, burning pain that
    appears to be associated with spinothalamic
    tract damage. However, incomplete
    injuries are more likely to have an allodynia
    component because of sparing of tracts conveying
    touch sensations.
44
Q
  1. Characteristics of below-level neuropathic pain
    in patients with SCI include
    (A) spontaneous pain cephalad to the level
    of SCI
    (B) not related to position or activity
    (C) only present in patients with partial
    injuries to the spinal cord
    (D) associated to sensation of dull ache
    (E) intermittent, but never constant
A
  1. (B)
45
Q
807. Which of the following medications have
proven to be useful in the treatment of neuropathic
pain of patients with SCI?
(A) IV propofol infusion
(B) IV ketamine infusion
(C) Intrathecal clonidine
(D) Only A and C are correct
(E) A, B, and C are correct
A
  1. (E)
    A. IV administration of propofol, a GABAA
    receptor agonist, has been reported to be
    more effective than placebo in relieving
    neuropathic SCI pain.
    B. The efficacy of IV ketamine infusion in the
    management of neuropathic SCI pain has
    been evaluated. IV infusion of ketamine
    (bolus 60 μg followed by 6 μg/kg/min)
    results in a significant reduction in the
    evoked and spontaneous neuropathic pains
    associated with SCI.
    C. Clonidine administered spinally either
    alone or in combination with morphine may
    also be effective for the control of neuropathic
    SCI pain. Clonidine has been found
    to be more effective than morphine for pain
    relief in patients with SCI. Combinations of
    clonidine with other agents may also be
    effective.
46
Q
  1. Drug exposure prior to organogenesis (before
    the fourth menstrual week) usually results in
    (A) an all-or-none effect; either the embryo
    does not survive, or it develops without
    abnormalities
    (B) single-organ abnormalities
    (C) multiple-organ abnormalities
    (D) developmental syndromes
    (E) intrauterine growth retardation
A
  1. (A) Drug exposure before organogenesis
    (before the fourth menstrual week) usually
    causes an all-or-none effect; either the embryo
    does not survive, or it develops without abnormalities.
    Drug effects later in pregnancy typically
    lead to single- or multiple-organ involvement,
    developmental syndromes, or intrauterine
    growth retardation
47
Q
  1. The US Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
    have developed a five-category labeling system
    for all approved drugs in the United States.
    Which if the following is not a category in the
    mentioned system?
    (A) Category A: controlled human studies
    indicate no apparent risk to fetus. The
    possibility of harm to the fetus seems
    remote (eg, multivitamins)
    (B) Category B: Animal studies do not indicate
    a fetal risk or animal studies do
    indicate a teratogenic risk, but well-controlled
    human studies have failed to
    demonstrate a risk (eg, acetaminophen,
    caffeine, fentanyl, hydrocodone)
    (C) Category C: studies indicate teratogenic
    or embryocidal risk in animals, but no
    controlled studies have been done in
    women or there are no controlled studies
    in animals or humans (eg, aspirin,
    ketorolac, codeine, gabapentin)
    (D) Category D: there is positive evidence of
    human fetal risk, but in certain circumstances,
    the benefits of the drug may
    outweigh the risks involved (eg,
    amitriptyline, imipramine, diazepam,
    phenobarbital, phenytoin)
    (E) Category E: there is positive evidence of
    significant fetal risk, and the risk clearly
    outweighs any possible benefit (eg,
    ergotamine)
A
  1. (E)
    A. The FDA has developed a five-category
    labeling system for all approved drugs in
    the United States. This labeling system rates
    the potential risk for teratogenic or embryotoxic
    effects, according to available scientific
    and clinical evidence. Category A: controlled
    human studies indicate no apparent risk to
    fetus. The possibility of harm to the fetus
    seems remote (eg, multivitamins).
    B. Category B: animal studies do not indicate a
    fetal risk or animal studies do indicate a teratogenic
    risk, but well-controlled human
    studies have failed to demonstrate a risk (eg,
    acetaminophen, butorphanol, nalbuphine,
    caffeine, fentanyl, hydrocodone, methadone,
    meperidine, morphine, oxycodone, oxymorphone,
    ibuprofen, naproxen, indomethacin,
    metoprolol, paroxetine, fluoxetine, and
    prednisolone).
    C. Category C: studies indicate teratogenic or
    embryocidal risk in animals, but no controlled
    studies have been done in women
    or there are no controlled studies in animals
    or humans. (eg, aspirin, ketorolac,
    codeine, propoxyphene, gabapentin, lidocaine,
    mexiletine, nifedipine, propranolol,
    sumatriptan).
    D. Category D: there is positive evidence of
    human fetal risk, but in certain circumstances,
    the benefits of the drug may outweigh
    the risks involved (eg, amitriptyline,
    imipramine, diazepam, phenobarbital,
    phenytoin, valproic acid).
    E. Category E is not part of the FDA labeling
    system. Category X is part of the FDA
    labeling system and includes drugs were
    there is positive evidence of significant
    fetal risk, and the risk clearly outweighs
    any possible benefit (eg, ergotamine).
48
Q
810. Acetaminophen falls in which of the following
FDA labeling categories regarding risk of teratogenic
or embryotoxic effects?
(A) Category A
(B) Category B
(C) Category C
(D) Category D
(E) Category X
A
  1. (B)
    A. The FDA has developed a five-category
    labeling system for all approved drugs in
    the United States. This labeling system
    rates the potential risk for teratogenic or
    embryotoxic effects, according to available
    scientific and clinical evidence. Category A: Controlled human studies indicate no
    apparent risk to fetus. The possibility of
    harm to the fetus seems remote (eg, multivitamins).
    B. Category B Animal studies do not indicate a
    fetal risk or animal studies do indicate a teratogenic
    risk, but well-controlled human
    studies have failed to demonstrate a risk. (eg,
    acetaminophen, butorphanol, nalbuphine,
    caffeine, fentanyl, hydrocodone, methadone,
    meperidine, morphine, oxycodone, oxymorphone,
    ibuprofen, naproxen, indomethacin,
    metoprolol, paroxetine, fluoxetine, prednisolone).
    C. Category C: studies indicate teratogenic or
    embryocidal risk in animals, but no controlled
    studies have been done in women
    or there are no controlled studies in animals
    or humans. (eg, aspirin, ketorolac,
    codeine, propoxyphene, gabapentin, lidocaine,
    mexiletine, nifedipine, propranolol,
    sumatriptan).
    D. Category D: there is positive evidence of
    human fetal risk, but in certain circumstances,
    the benefits of the drug may outweigh
    the risks involved. (eg, amitriptyline,
    imipramine, diazepam, phenobarbital,
    phenytoin, valproic acid).
    E. Category X is part of the FDA labeling system
    and includes drugs were there is positive
    evidence of significant fetal risk, and
    the risk clearly outweighs any possible
    benefit. (eg, ergotamine).
49
Q
811. During pregnancy, NSAIDs may
(A) accelerate the onset of labor
(B) increase amniotic fluid volume
(C) decrease the newborn’s risk for pulmonary
hypertension
(D) increase the risk of renal injury
(E) all of the above
A
  1. (D)
    A. Aspirin remains the prototypical NSAID
    and is the most thoroughly studied of this
    class of medications. Prostaglandins appear
    to trigger labor, and the aspirin-induced
    inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis may
    result in prolonged gestation and protracted
    labor.
    B. and D. The use of ibuprofen during pregnancy
    may result in reversible oligohydramnios
    (reflecting diminished fetal urine output) and
    mild constriction of the fetal ductus arteriosus.
    Similarly, no data exist to support any
    association between naproxen administration
    and congenital defects. Because it shares the renal and vascular effects of ibuprofen,
    naproxen should be considered to have the
    potential to diminish ductus arteriosus diameter
    and to cause oligohydramnios.
    C. Circulating prostaglandins modulate the
    patency of the fetal ductus arteriosus.
    NSAIDs have been used therapeutically in
    neonates with persistent fetal circulation to
    induce closure of the ductus arteriosus via
    inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis.
    Patency of the ductus arteriosus in utero is
    essential for normal fetal circulation.
    Indomethacin has shown promise for the
    treatment of premature labor, but its use
    has been linked to antenatal narrowing
    and closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus.
50
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding use of
    opioids during pregnancy?
    (A) Mixed agonist-antagonist opioid analgesic
    agents are superior to pure opioid
    agonists in providing analgesia
    (B) Opioids are excreted into breast milk in
    negligible amounts
    (C) Methadone is not compatible with
    breast-feeding
    (D) Significant accumulation of normeperidine
    is unlikely in the parturient who
    receives single or infrequent doses
    (E) All of the above
A
  1. (D)
    A. Although mixed agonist-antagonist opioid
    analgesic agents are widely used to provide
    analgesia during labor, they do not appear
    to offer any advantage when compared to
    pure opioid agonists. When compared,
    meperidine and nalbuphine provide comparable
    labor analgesia as well as similar
    neonatal Apgar and neurobehavioral
    scores. Use of either nalbuphine or pentazocine
    during pregnancy can lead to neonatal
    abstinence syndrome.
    B. Opioids are excreted into breast milk.
    Pharmacokinetic analysis has demonstrated
    that breast milk concentrations of codeine
    and morphine are equal to or somewhat
    greater than maternal plasma concentrations.
    Meperidine use in breast-feeding
    mothers via PCA resulted in significantly
    greater neurobehavioral depression of the
    breast-feeding newborn than equianalgesic
    doses of morphine
    C. Methadone levels in breast milk appear sufficient
    to prevent opioid withdrawal symptoms
    in the breast-fed infant. The American
    Academy of Pediatrics considers methadone
    doses of up to 20 mg/d to be compatible
    with breast-feeding. Recognition of infants
    at risk for neonatal abstinence syndrome
    and institution of appropriate supportive and
    medical therapy typically results in little
    short-term consequence to the infant. The long-term effects of in utero opioid exposure
    are unknown.
    D. Meperidine undergoes extensive hepatic
    metabolism to normeperidine, which has a
    long elimination t1/2 (18 hours). Repeated
    dosing can lead to accumulation, especially
    in patients with renal insufficiency.
    Normeperidine causes excitation of the
    CNS, manifested as tremors, myoclonus,
    and generalized seizures. Significant accumulation
    of normeperidine is unlikely in the
    parturient who receives single or infrequent
    doses; however, meperidine offers no advantages
    over other parenteral opioids.
51
Q
  1. A25-year-old primigravida just gave birth to a
    healthy baby boy. She had an epidural infusion
    containing lidocaine for labor analgesia.
    She asks you how long does she has to wait after the infusion is turned off in order to be
    able to breast-feed her son. Your answer is
    (A) she should wait at least 24 hours since
    concentration of lidocaine in breast milk
    may be toxic at this time
    (B) it is safe to breast-feed her son since
    concentration of lidocaine is minimal in
    breast milk after an epidural infusion
    (C) it would be safer to breast-feed if the
    infusion had bupivacaine, but since
    lidocaine was used, she will need to
    wait 36 hours
    (D) mothers who had an epidural infusion
    for labor should not be allowed to
    breast-feed until 1 week postpartum
    (E) none of the above
A
  1. (B) Few studies have focused on the potential
    teratogenicity of local anesthetic agents.
    Lidocaine and bupivacaine do not appear to
    pose significant developmental risk to the fetus.
    Only mepivacaine had a suggestion of teratogenicity
    in one study. However, the number of
    patient exposures was inadequate to draw conclusions.
    Animal studies have found that continuous
    exposure to lidocaine throughout
    pregnancy does not cause congenital anomalies
    but may decrease neonatal birth weight.
    Neither lidocaine nor bupivacaine appears in
    measurable quantities in the breast milk after
    epidural local anesthetic administration during
    labor. IV infusion of high doses (2-4 mg/min)
    of lidocaine for suppression of cardiac arrhythmias
    led to minimal levels in breast milk. Based
    on these observations, continuous epidural
    infusion of dilute local anesthetic solutions for
    postoperative analgesia should result in only
    small quantities of drug actually reaching the
    fetus. The American Academy of Pediatrics
    considers local anesthetics to be safe for use in
    the nursing mother.
52
Q
  1. A 23-year-old female patient with chronic low
    back pain as a result of a motor vehicle accident
    becomes pregnant. For the past 4 years she has
    been taking diazepam for muscle spasms and to
    help her sleep at night. She asks for your advice
    in terms of continuing or quitting diazepam
    during her pregnancy. Your answer should be
    (A) second-trimester exposure to benzodiazepines
    may be associated with an
    increased risk of congenital
    malformations
    (B) diazepam’s association with cleft lip,
    cleft palate, and congenital inguinal hernia
    has been disregarded recently
    (C) neonates who are exposed to benzodiazepines
    in utero usually do not experience
    withdrawal symptoms after birth
    since the amount that crosses the placenta
    is negligible
    (D) it appears most prudent to avoid any
    use of benzodiazepines during organogenesis,
    near the time of delivery, and
    during lactation
    (E) all of the above
A
  1. (D)
    A. and B. Benzodiazepines are among the
    most frequently prescribed of all drugs and
    are often used as anxiolytic agents, as an
    aid to sleep in patients with insomnia, and
    as skeletal muscle relaxants in patients with
    chronic pain. First-trimester exposure to
    benzodiazepines may be associated with an
    increased risk of congenital malformations.
    Diazepam may be associated with cleft lip
    and cleft palate as well as congenital
    inguinal hernia. However, epidemiologic
    evidence has not confirmed the association
    of diazepam with cleft abnormalities; the
    incidence of cleft lip and palate remained
    stable after the introduction and widespread
    use of diazepam. Epidemiologic
    studies have confirmed the association of
    diazepam use during pregnancy with congenital
    inguinal hernia.
    C. and D. Aside from the risks of teratogenesis,
    neonates who are exposed to benzodiazepines
    in utero may experience withdrawal
    symptoms immediately after birth. In the
    breast-feeding mother, diazepam and its
    metabolite desmethyldiazepam can be
    detected in infant serum for up to 10 days
    after a single maternal dose. This is caused by
    the slower metabolism in neonates than in
    adults. Clinically, infants who are nursing
    from mothers receiving diazepam may show
    sedation and poor feeding. It appears most
    prudent to avoid any use of benzodiazepines
    during organogenesis, near the time of delivery,
    and during lactation.
53
Q
  1. A 28-year-old female with myofascial pain is
    taking tricyclic antidepressants for pain control
    with good results. She is planning to
    become pregnant in the next few months.
    Which of the following is true regarding use of
    tricyclic antidepressants during pregnancy?
    (A) Amitriptyline, nortriptyline, and
    imipramine are all safe to use since they
    are rated risk Category D by the FDA
    (B) Amitriptyline, nortriptyline, and
    desipramine are found in high quantities
    in breast milk, and are not safe to
    use while breast-feeding
    (C) The selective serotonin reuptake
    inhibitors (SSRIs) fluoxetine and paroxetine
    are rated FDA risk Category B.
    These are safe to administer while
    breast-feeding
    (D) Withdrawal syndromes have not been
    reported in neonates born to mothers
    using nortriptyline, imipramine, and
    desipramine
    (E) All of the above
A
  1. (C)
    A. and C. Antidepressants are often employed
    in the management of migraine headaches as
    well as for analgesic and antidepressant purposes
    in chronic pain states. Amitriptyline,
    nortriptyline, and imipramine are all rated
    risk Category D by the FDA. The SSRIs, fluoxetine
    and paroxetine, are rated FDA risk
    Category B. Desipramine and all other conventional
    antidepressant medications are
    Category C.
    B. Amitriptyline, nortriptyline, and desipramine
    are all excreted into human milk.
    Pharmacokinetic modeling suggests that
    infants are exposed to about 1% of the
    maternal dose. Amitriptyline, nortriptyline,
    desipramine, clomipramine, and
    sertraline were not found in quantifiable
    amounts in nurslings and that no adverse
    effects were reported.
    D. Withdrawal syndromes have been reported
    in neonates born to mothers using nortriptyline,
    imipramine, and desipramine with symptoms that include irritability,
    colic, tachypnea, and urinary retention.
54
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding the
    use of anticonvulsants for neuropathic pain
    during pregnancy?
    (A) In general, the use of anticonvulsants
    during lactation does not seem to be
    harmful to infants
    (B) Frequent monitoring of serum anticonvulsant
    levels and folate supplementation
    should be initiated, and maternal α-
    fetoprotein screening may be considered
    to detect fetal neural tube defects
    (C) Pregnant women taking anticonvulsants
    for chronic pain have a lower risk of
    fetal malformations than patients taking
    the same medications for seizure control
    (D) Women who are taking anticonvulsants
    for neuropathic pain should strongly
    consider discontinuation during pregnancy,
    particularly during the first
    trimester
    (E) All of the above
A
  1. (A)
    A. The use of anticonvulsants during lactation
    does not seem to be harmful to
    infants. Phenytoin, carbamazepine, and
    valproic acid appear in small amounts in
    breast milk, but no adverse effects have
    been noted.
    B. and D. For patients contemplating childbearing
    who are receiving anticonvulsants,
    their pharmacologic therapy should be critically
    evaluated. Women who are taking
    anticonvulsants for neuropathic pain
    should strongly consider discontinuation
    during pregnancy, particularly during the
    first trimester. Consultation with a perinatologist
    is recommended if continued use of
    anticonvulsants during pregnancy is being
    considered. Frequent monitoring of serum
    anticonvulsant levels and folate supplementation
    should be initiated, and maternal
    α-fetoprotein screening may be considered
    to detect fetal neural tube defects.
    C. While anticonvulsants have teratogenic
    risk, epilepsy itself may be partially responsible
    for fetal malformations. Perhaps pregnant
    women taking anticonvulsants for
    chronic pain have a lower risk of fetal malformations
    than patients taking the same
    medications for seizure control.
55
Q
  1. Caffeine is found in many over-the-counter
    pain medications. Pregnant women should be
    careful because
    (A) caffeine ingestion of more than 300 mg/d
    is associated with decreased birth weight
    (B) caffeine ingestion combined with
    tobacco use increases the risk for delivery
    of a low-birth-weight infant
    (C) caffeine ingestion is associated with an
    increased incidence of tachyarrhythmias
    in the newborn
    (D) moderate caffeine ingestion during lactation
    does not appear to affect the
    infant
    (E) all of the above
A
  1. (E)
    A. and B. Early studies of caffeine ingestion
    during pregnancy suggested an increased
    risk of intrauterine growth retardation, fetal
    demise, and premature labor. However,
    these early studies did not control for concomitant
    alcohol and tobacco use.
    Subsequent work that controlled for these
    confounding factors found no added risks
    with moderate caffeine ingestion, although
    ingestion of more than 300 mg/d was associated
    with decreased birth weight. Caffeine
    ingestion combined with tobacco use
    increases the risk for delivery of a low-birthweight
    infant.
    C. Ingestion of modest doses of caffeine
    (100 mg/d) in caffeine-naïve subjects produces
    modest cardiovascular changes in
    both mother and fetus, including increased
    maternal heart rate and mean arterial pressure,
    increased peak aortic flow velocities,
    and decreased fetal heart rate. The modest
    decrease in fetal heart rate and increased frequency
    of fetal heart rate accelerations may
    confound the interpretation of fetal heart
    tracings. Caffeine ingestion is also associated
    with an increased incidence of tachyarrhythmias
    in the newborn, including
    supraventricular tachyarrhythmias, atrial
    flutter, and premature atrial contractions.
    D. Many over-the-counter analgesic formulations
    contain caffeine (typically in amounts
    between 30 and 65 mg per dose), and one
    must consider the use of these preparations
    when determining total caffeine exposure.
    Moderate ingestion of caffeine during lactation
    does not appear to affect the infant.
    Breast milk usually contains less than 1% of
    the maternal dose of caffeine, with peak
    breast milk levels appearing 1 hour after
    maternal ingestion. Excessive caffeine use
    may cause increased wakefulness and irritability
    in the infant.
56
Q
  1. A 23-year-old female at 24 weeks of gestation
    shows to the clinic with low back pain of sudden
    onset. She describes her pain as originating lateral
    to the left lumbosacral junction. The pain
    radiates to the posterior part of the left thigh
    and does not extend below the knee. Which of
    the following is the most likely diagnosis?
    (A) Transient osteoporosis of the hip
    (B) Sacroiliac joint pain
    (C) Osteonecrosis of the hip
    (D) Sciatica
    (E) None of the above
A
  1. (B)
    A. and C. Two relatively rare conditions—
    osteonecrosis and transient osteoporosis of
    the hip—both occur with somewhat greater
    frequency during pregnancy. Whereas the
    exact etiology is not known, high levels of
    estrogen and progesterone in the maternal
    circulation and increased interosseous pressure
    may contribute to the development of
    osteonecrosis. Transient osteoporosis of the
    hip is a rare disorder characterized by pain
    and limitation of motion of the hip and
    osteopenia of the femoral head. Both conditions
    present during the third trimester
    with hip pain that may be either sudden or
    gradual in onset.
    Osteoporosis is easily identified by plain
    radiography, which demonstrates osteopenia
    of the femoral head with preservation
    of the joint space. Osteonecrosis is best evaluated with magnetic resonance imaging
    (MRI), which shows changes before
    they appear on plain radiographs.
    B. and D. The hormonal changes that occur
    during pregnancy lead to widening and
    increased mobility of the sacroiliac synchondroses
    and the symphysis pubis as
    early as the 10th to 12th weeks of pregnancy.
    This type of pain is often described
    by pregnant women and is located in the
    posterior part of the pelvis distal and lateral
    to the lumbosacral junction. Many terms
    have been used in the literature to describe
    this type of pain, including “sacroiliac dysfunction,”
    “pelvic girdle relaxation,” and
    even “sacroiliac joint pain.” The pain radiates
    to the posterior part of the thigh and
    may extend below the knee, often resulting
    in misinterpretation as sciatica. The pain is
    less specific than sciatica in distribution
    and does not extend to the ankle or foot.
57
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a main cause of
    low back pain during pregnancy?
    (A) Increased incidence of herniated nucleus
    pulposus during pregnancy
    (B) The lumbar lordosis becomes markedly
    accentuated during pregnancy
    (C) Endocrine changes during pregnancy
    soften the ligaments around the pelvic
    joints and cervix
    (D) Direct pressure of the fetus on the lumbosacral
    nerves may cause radicular
    symptoms
    (E) Sacroiliac joint dysfunction is common
    during pregnancy
A
  1. (A)
    A. and D. Although radicular symptoms often
    accompany low back pain during pregnancy,
    the incidence of herniated nucleus
    pulposus is only 1:10,000. The prevalence
    of lumbar intervertebral disk abnormalities
    is not increased in pregnant women. Direct
    pressure of the fetus on the lumbosacral
    nerves has been postulated as the cause of
    radicular symptoms.
    B. Back pain occurs at some time in about
    50% of pregnant women and is so common
    that it is often looked on as a normal part
    of pregnancy. The lumbar lordosis becomes
    markedly accentuated during pregnancy
    and may contribute to the development of
    low back pain.
    C. Endocrine changes during pregnancy may
    also play a role in the development of back
    pain. Relaxin, a polypeptide secreted by
    the corpus luteum, softens the ligaments
    around the pelvic joints and cervix, allowing
    accommodation of the developing
    fetus and facilitating vaginal delivery. This
    laxity may cause pain by producing an
    exaggerated range of motion.
    E. The hormonal changes that occur during
    pregnancy lead to widening and increased
    mobility of the sacroiliac synchondroses
    and the symphysis pubis as early as the
    10th to 12th weeks of pregnancy.
58
Q
  1. Which of the following is a true statement
    regarding headaches during pregnancy?
    (A) In pregnant women with a history of
    migraines prior to pregnancy, more than
    50% will report worsening of migraine
    headaches during this period
    (B) In women of childbearing age, their first
    migraine headache will usually occur
    during pregnancy
    (C) Pregnant patients presenting with “the
    worst headache of my live” should have
    an immediate rule out of subarachnoid
    hemorrhage
    (D) Preeclampsia usually does not presents
    with headaches
    (E) Initial presentation of headaches during
    pregnancy should not precipitate thorough
    search for potential pathology
    unless the headaches continue after
    labor and delivery
A
  1. (C)
    A. Migraines occur more often during menstruation,
    because of decreased estrogen levels.
    During pregnancy, 70% of women report
    improvement or remission of migraines.
    B. and E. Migraine headaches rarely begin
    during pregnancy. Headaches that initially
    present during pregnancy should initiate a
    thorough search for potentially serious
    causes. Examples may include strokes,
    pseudotumor cerebri, tumors, aneurysms,
    atrioventricular malformations, and others.
    C. Patients presenting with their first severe
    headache should receive a complete neurologic
    examination, toxicology screen, serum
    coagulation profiles, and an MRI should be
    encouraged. In the patient who presents
    with “worst headache of my life,” subarachnoid
    hemorrhage should be ruled out.
    D. Progressively worsening of headaches in
    the setting of weight gain may be secondary
    to preeclampsia or pseudotumor cerebri.
    Preeclampsia has the triad of elevated
    blood pressure, proteinuria, and peripheral
    edema.
59
Q
  1. A 22-year-old female patient presents to the
    office with sudden onset of abdominal pain.
    She has a 10-week pregnancy history and no
    other symptoms upon questioning. Pain is
    localized to the lower portion of the abdomen.
    The differential diagnosis should not include
    (A) miscarriage
    (B) ovarian torsion
    (C) ectopic pregnancy
    (D) myofascial pain
    (E) sacroiliac joint pain
A
  1. (E)
    A., B., C., and D. One of the most common
    causes of abdominal pain early in pregnancy
    is miscarriage, presenting with
    abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding.
    Ectopic pregnancy and ovarian torsion may
    present with hypogastric pain and suprapubic
    tenderness. Once these conditions
    have been ruled out, myofascial causes of
    abdominal pain should be considered.
    E. Sacroiliac joint pain or sacroiliac dysfunction
    usually does not presents with
    abdominal pain, but with low back pain
    that may radiate to the hip and thigh area.
60
Q
822. Which of the following opioids is considered to
be compatible with breast-feeding by the
American Academy of Pediatrics?
(A) Codeine
(B) Methadone
(C) Fentanyl
(D) Propoxyphene
(E) All of the
A
  1. (E) Opioids are excreted into breast milk. It has been shown that concentrations of morphine and codeine are equal to or greater than maternal
    plasma concentrations. The American
    Academy of Pediatrics considers use of many
    opioid analgesics including codeine, fentanyl,
    methadone, morphine, and propoxyphene to
    be compatible with breast-feeding.
61
Q
  1. In the critically ill patient, true statements
    regarding pain assessment include all of the
    following, EXCEPT
    (A) pain assessment tools such as the visual
    analogue scale or numeric rating scale
    (NRS) are most useful
    (B) in noncommunicative patients, assessment
    of behavioral and physiologic
    indicators is necessary
    (C) the NRS may be preferable because it is
    applicable to many age groups and does
    not require verbal responses
    (D) patient self-reporting is not useful for
    the assessment of pain and the adequacy
    of analgesia
    (E) the patient and family should be
    advised of the potential for pain and
    strategies to communicate pain
A
  1. (D) Perception of pain is influenced by prior
    experiences, expectations, and the cognitive
    capacity of the patient. The patient and family
    should be advised of the potential for pain and
    strategies to communicate pain. Patient selfreporting
    is the gold standard for the assessment
    of pain and the adequacy of analgesia.
    Pain assessment tools such as the visual analogue
    scale or numeric rating scale are most
    useful. The numeric rating scale may be preferable
    because it is applicable to many age groups
    and does not require verbal responses. In noncommunicative
    patients, assessment of behavioral
    (movements, facial expressions, posturing)
    and physiologic (heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory
    rate) indicators is necessary.
62
Q
  1. A 27-year-old male patient is at the ICU after
    sustaining multiple body traumas in a motor
    vehicle accident. The patient is on a mechanical
    ventilator with mild sedation. He has acute
    renal insufficiency and vital signs show mild to
    moderate hypotension. Upon evaluation it is
    determined that he has moderate to severe pain
    in both upper extremities and in the chest area
    as a result of multiple fractures. Which of the
    following would be the best medication to provide
    by an IV infusion for pain control?
    (A) Fentanyl
    (B) Morphine sulfate
    (C) Ketorolac
    (D) Demerol
    (E) Hydromorphone
A
  1. (A)
    A. Opioids are the mainstay of pain management
    in the ICU. Desired properties of an
    opiate include rapid onset of action, ease
    of titration, lack of accumulation of parent
    drug or active metabolites, and low cost.
    The most commonly prescribed opioids
    are fentanyl, morphine, and hydromorphone.
    Fentanyl has a rapid onset of action
    and short t1/2 and generates no active
    metabolites. It is ideal for use in hemodynamically
    unstable patients or in combination
    with benzodiazepines for short
    procedures. Continuous infusion may result
    in prolonged effect owing to accumulation
    in lipid stores, and high dosing has been
    linked to muscle rigidity syndromes.
    B., D., and E. Morphine has a slower onset of
    action (compared to fentanyl) and longer t1/2.
    It may not be suitable for hemodynamically
    unstable patients because associated histamine
    release may lead to vasodilatation and
    hypotension. An active metabolite can accumulate
    in renal insufficiency. Morphine can
    also cause spasm of the sphincter of Oddi,
    which may discourage its use in patients
    with biliary disease. Hydromorphone has a
    t1/2 similar to morphine but generates no
    active metabolites and no histamine release.
    All opioid analgesics are associated with
    varying degrees of respiratory depression,
    hypotension, and ileus.
    C. Alternatives to opioids include acetaminophen
    and NSAIDs. Ketorolac is the only
    available intravenous NSAID. It is an
    effective analgesic agent used alone or in
    combination with an opioid. It is primarily
    eliminated by renal excretion, so it is relatively
    contraindicated in patients with
    renal insufficiency. Prolonged (> 5 days)
    use has been associated with bleeding
    complications.
63
Q
  1. In the critically ill patient, which of the following
    supports that epidural analgesia is a good
    alternative for pain control?
    (A) It results in more stable hemodynamics
    (B) There is reduced blood loss during
    surgery
    (C) Better suppression of surgical stress
    (D) Improved peripheral circulation
    (E) All of the above
A
  1. (E) Many benefits of epidural anesthesia have
    been reported, including better suppression of
    surgical stress, more stable hemodynamics,
    better peripheral circulation, and reduced
    blood loss. Aprospective, randomized study of
    1021 abdominal surgery patients demonstrated
    that epidural opioid analgesia provides better
    postoperative pain relief compared with parenteral
    opioids. Furthermore, in patients
    undergoing abdominal aortic operations, overall
    morbidity and mortality were improved and
    intubation time and ICU length of stay were
    shorter.
64
Q
826. In certain populations of patients, epidural
analgesia has been associated with
(A) prolonged intubation time
(B) fewer ICU stays
(C) respiratory failure after surgery
(D) poor pain relief if initiated prior to the
surgery
(E) none of the above
A
  1. (B) A large, multicenter, randomized investigation
    of epidural narcotics compared to parenteral
    narcotics performed in veterans affairs
    hospitals found that patients receiving epidural
    analgesia had better pain relief, shorter durations
    of intubation, and fewer ICU stays. In
    contrast, a multicenter trial in Australia that
    included both, men and women as well as very
    high-risk patients found that epidural analgesia
    had no effect on mortality or length of stay.
    Postoperative respiratory failure occurred significantly
    less frequently, however, in the
    patients receiving epidural analgesia. At a minimum,
    it appears that epidural analgesia can
    produce superior pain relief, particularly if it is
    initiated prior to the surgical incision, and it
    may be associated with fewer complications
    and a lower incidence of respiratory failure
    than parenteral narcotics in selected patients.
65
Q
  1. Which of the following is a reason for poor
    symptom management in critically ill patients
    with pain?
    (A) The majority of pain scales do not
    require patient self-report
    (B) For these patients it is easy to titrate
    sedatives and analgesics to their desired
    level of consciousness, but they are not
    encouraged to do so
    (C) Physicians and other caregivers feel
    uncomfortable about giving high doses
    of sedatives, analgesics, and other
    mood-altering agents
    (D) No need for pain medications as long as
    patient is sedated
    (E) None of the above
A
  1. (C)
    A. Pain and other symptoms also may be
    poorly managed because they are subjective
    experiences that are not easily assessed by
    objective methods. Pain and sedation scales
    have been developed to quantify the levels
    of pain and anxiety among patients who can
    self-report. Nevertheless, some patients cannot
    adequately communicate these sensations,
    either because they cannot find the
    words or because they are intubated and
    sedated. To detect pain in these patients,
    physicians and other caregivers must attend
    to patient grimacing and other admittedly
    nonspecific manifestations of pain, including
    tachycardia and hypertension.
    B. Some patients value symptom relief highly
    and would prefer to be rendered unconscious
    rather than to experience pain, anxiety,
    or dyspnea, especially at the end of
    life. Others, however, would be willing to
    tolerate these symptoms or have them mitigated
    only slightly in order to stay awake.
    Dying patients may find it difficult to
    titrate sedatives and analgesics to their
    desired level of consciousness, although
    they should be encouraged to do so.
    Physicians and caregivers may find it even
    more difficult to achieve the ideal level of
    sedation and analgesia for patients who
    cannot communicate or administer drugs
    to themselves.
    C., D., and E. Symptoms may be inadequately
    managed because physicians and other caregivers
    feel uncomfortable about giving high
    doses of sedatives, analgesics, and other
    mood-altering agents. In some instances, this
    discomfort stems from a reluctance to cause
    drug addiction in dying patients, a phenomenon
    irrelevant to the patients’ condition.
66
Q
  1. Which of the following is a nonpharmacologic
    intervention for pain relief in an ICU patient?
    (A) Provoking encephalopathy that results
    from the hypercapnia and hypoxia in
    chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
    (COPD) patients if tolerated
    (B) Ketosis in terminally ill patients that
    forgo nutrition and hydration
    (C) Placing patients in a quiet environment
    where family and friends may visit
    (D) Proper treatment of anxiety and
    depression
    (E) All of the above
A
  1. (E) Pain can be managed indirectly by nonpharmacologic
    means. For example, placing
    patients in a quiet environment where friends
    and family can visit may diminish the sense of
    pain, as may the proper treatment of anxiety
    and depression. Although respiratory depression
    caused by drugs or underlying disease
    usually is undesirable in patients with COPD,
    the encephalopathy that results from the hypercapnia
    and hypoxia may be tolerated, if not
    favored, in terminal patients because it attenuates
    pain. Similarly, patients who forgo nutrition
    and hydration at the end of life may
    develop a euphoria that has been attributed to
    the release of endogenous opioids or the analgesic
    effects of ketosis.
67
Q
829. Which of the following is a known fact about
opioid infusions?
A) Fentanyl is about 10 times more potent
than morphine
(B) Hydromorphone is more sedating than
morphine and produces more euphoria
(C) Release of histamine during morphine
administration may cause vasodilation
and hypotension
(D) Sedation, respiratory depression, constipation,
urinary retention, and nausea
are side effects that are only seen after
administration of morphine, but not
with the administration of fentanyl or
hydromorphone
(E) All of the above
A
  1. (C) Adirect approach to pain control generally
    centers on the use of opioids, and morphine is
    the opioid most commonly used. In addition
    to causing analgesia, morphine induces some
    degree of sedation, respiratory depression, constipation,
    urinary retention, nausea, and euphoria.
    It also produces vasodilation, which may
    cause hypotension, in part through the release
    of histamine. Fentanyl, a synthetic opioid that is
    approximately 100 times more potent than morphine,
    does not release histamine and therefore
    causes less hypotension. Hydromorphone, a
    semisynthetic morphine derivative, is more
    sedating than morphine and produces little
    euphoria.
68
Q
  1. A 37-year-old female is at the ICU recovering
    after major abdominal surgery. Patient is
    breathing spontaneously, has stable vital signs,
    and is not able to tolerate oral feedings at this
    time. Alternatives for administration of opioids
    for pain relief include
    (A) IV morphine PCA
    (B) oral controlled-release oxycodone
    (C) transdermal hydromorphone
    (D) oral immediate-release oxycodone
    (E) all of the above
A
  1. (A) Morphine, fentanyl, and hydromorphone
    can be administered orally, subcutaneously, rectally,
    or intravenously. Opioids usually are
    given by the IV route to ICU patients, including
    those who are dying. These agents may be
    administered to inpatients and outpatients
    alike through the technique of PCA. Longacting
    oral preparations of morphine and
    hydromorphone are available for outpatients.
    Fentanyl can be administered orally in the form
    of a lollipop. It can also be given by the transcutaneous
    route, which makes this agent particularly
    suitable for patients who have
    difficulty with oral medications.
69
Q
  1. A33-year-old male underwent major abdominal
    surgery and is transferred to the ICU for
    postoperative management. Which of the following
    would be the best choice for postoperative
    pain management?
    (A) IV hydromorphone PCA
    (B) IV fentanyl infusion
    (C) Controlled-release oxycodone via nasogastric
    tube
    (D) Bupivacaine and fentanyl mix via
    epidural catheter
    (E) None of the above
A
  1. (D) Many benefits of epidural anesthesia have
    been reported, including better suppression of
    surgical stress, more stable hemodynamics,
    better peripheral circulation, and reduced
    blood loss. Aprospective, randomized study of
    1021 abdominal surgery patients demonstrated
    that epidural opioid analgesia provides better
    postoperative pain relief compared with parenteral
    opioids. Furthermore, in patients undergoing
    abdominal aortic operations, overall morbidity and mortality were improved and
    intubation time and ICU length of stay were
    shorter.
70
Q
  1. In order to prevent atelectasis and pulmonary
    complications in patients at the ICU
    (A) pain management is important in maintaining
    a balance between splinting and
    sedation with hypoventilation
    (B) it is important to titrate opioids to the
    lowest possible since respiratory depression
    is detrimental in these patients
    (C) hyperventilation from mild to moderate
    pain is beneficial for faster recovery;
    opioids should not be administered during
    this period of time
    (D) epidural analgesia has no role in preventing
    pulmonary complications and
    minimizing intubation time in these
    patients
    (E) none of the above
A
  1. (A) Atelectasis is most often seen in postsurgical
    or immobilized patients. As alveoli collapse,
    there is increased shunting with resultant
    hypoxemia. Additional findings are related to
    the degree of atelectasis and include diminished
    breath sounds and reduced lung volume,
    elevated hemidiaphragm, or consolidation on
    chest radiography. Associated fever usually
    abates with reinflation, but the collapsed alveoli
    are prone to bacterial colonization with the
    development of pneumonia. Treatment is
    aimed at reexpansion of collapsed alveoli.
    Maintenance of airway patency and pulmonary
    toilet are of primary importance. Pain
    management is pivotal to balance splinting
    with sedation and hypoventilation. Pneumonia
    is common in the ICU, particularly among ventilated
    patients and those with direct lung
    injury. The clinical presentation involves fever,
    leukocytosis, hypoxia, a distinct radiographic
    infiltrate, and purulent sputum with bacterial
    colonization. Respiratory support, pulmonary
    toilet, and antibiotics are the fundamentals of
    treatment