Chapter 10: Instrument Flight Rules Informationa and Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

What does it mean when there are straight in approaches that have letters behind them the guidance system?

A

Multiple approaches with the same guidance. These approaches will start at Z and work backwards to A.

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2
Q

What does an approach labeled “VOR/DME-B” tell you?

A

It is one of multiple circling approaches

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3
Q

When operating IFR, when is your flight automatically canceled?

A

Upon landing at an airport with an operating control tower

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4
Q

When the term cruise followed by an altitude in a clearance is used, what does it mean?

A

It means the aviator is authorized to fly any altitude between the minimum IFR altitude and that assigned altitude.

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5
Q

What does VFR-on-Top clearance mean?

A

Aviators on IFR flight plans operating in VFR weather conditions may request VFR-On-Top in lieu of an assigned altitude. VFR-On-Top is an IFR clearance allowing aviators to fly VFR altitudes, which permits them to select an altitude or flight level of their choice (subject to any ATC restrictions).

By requesting a climb to VFR-On-Top, aviators can climb through a cloud, haze, smoke, or other meteorological formation and then either cancel their IFR flight plan or operate VFR-On-Top.

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6
Q

What is VFR-Over-the-Top?

A

VFR Over-The-Top is strictly a VFR operation in which the aviator maintains VFR cloud clearance requirements while operating on top of an undercast layer. This situation might occur when the departure airport and destination airport are reporting clear conditions, but a low overcast layer is present in between. The aviator could conduct a VFR departure, fly over the top of the undercast in VFR conditions, then complete a VFR descent and landing at the destination. VFR cloud clearance requirements are maintained at all times, and an IFR clearance is not required for any part of the flight.

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7
Q

What are the considerations concerning turning from one route structure to another

A

Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, aviators are required to adhere to the centerline of airways or routes being flown. Special attention must be given to this requirement during course changes. Turns that begin at or after fix passage may exceed airway or route boundaries. Thus, the FAA expects aviators to lead turns and take other actions considered necessary during course changes to adhere as closely as possible to the airways or route being flown. Aviators should attempt to adhere to course centerline whenever possible.

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8
Q

What are the 3 types of Off Airway of Direct navigation?

A

A) Navigational Aid Use (ie. NAVAID to NAVAID not exceeding the operational limit of the fix)

B) Degree-Distance Routing (only authorized for special military missions)

C) Random Area Navigation Routes

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9
Q

What must you do when depart IFR from an airport that does not authorize Diverse Departures?

A

A) Fly the Departure Procedure assigned by ATC.

B) If diverse departures are not authorized, consider AIM information and make the following checks:

  • Before departing an airport on an IFR flight, consider the type of terrain and other obstacles on or near the departure airport.
  • Comply with nonstandard IFR minimums and DPs.
  • Always follow the specific ATC departure instructions.
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10
Q

How does one conduct a Radar Controlled Departure?

A

An aviator departing IFR from airports in congested areas normally receives navigational guidance from departure control by radar vector. When the departure is to be vectored immediately following takeoff, the aviator is advised before takeoff of the initial heading to be flown. When given a turning vector, do not turn until achieving 400 feet above airport elevation. This information is vital in the case two-way radio communications are lost during departure.

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11
Q

How do you conduct an IFR departure from an airport without an operating control tower?

A

When departing from airports that have neither an operating tower nor an FSS, telephone the flight plan to the nearest ATC facility at least 30 minutes before the estimated departure time.

If weather conditions permit, the aviator could depart VFR and request IFR clearance as soon as radio contact is established with ATC.

If weather conditions make flying VFR undesirable, again telephone and request clearance. In this case, the controller issues a short-range clearance, pending establishment of radio contact, and might restrict the departure time to a certain period (for example, “Clearance void if not off by 0900”). This authorizes departure within the allotted period and authorization to proceed according to the clearance. In the absence of any specific departure instructions, the aviator is expected to proceed on course via the most direct route.

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12
Q

If you do not wish to use a STAR, how should you communicate that to ATC?

A

If the aviator does not wish to use a STAR, he or she should advise ATC by placing “NO STAR” in the remarks section of the filed flight plan or when first contacting ATC by radio.

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13
Q

What directions are the turns of a nonstandard holding pattern?

A

Left hand turns

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14
Q

What is the standard no-wind length of the inbound leg?

A

The standard no-wind length of the inbound leg of the holding pattern is one minute at or below 14,000 feet MSL and one-and-a-half minutes above 14,000 feet MSL

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15
Q

What is the standard rule of thumb when adjusting outbound heading for wind-drift correction?

A

When the aircraft is outbound, triple the inbound drift correction; if correcting left by 8 degrees when inbound, correct right by 24 degrees when outbound as shown in the following example.

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16
Q

You’ve just arrived at the fix to which you were cleared (ie your clearance limit) and have not received further instruction from ATC. What should you do?

A

When the aircraft arrives at the clearance limit before receiving clearance beyond the fix, ATC expects the aircraft to maintain the last assigned altitude and begin holding according to the depicted holding pattern. If no pattern is depicted, the aviator begins holding in a standard holding pattern on the course upon which the fix is approached. Immediately request further clearance.

17
Q

What is the maximum holding airspeed for COPTER/STOL (ie Short Take Off and Landing) only approaches?

A

100 KIAS

18
Q

What are the 3 types of entry into holding and the procedures for each?

A

A) Direct Entry, used when approaching the holding fix from the holding side within 70 deg of the inbound course or from the non-holding side within 110 deg of the inbound course. Cross the holding fix and immediately turn to the outbound heading

B) Parallel Entry, used when approaching the holding fix from the holding side within 110 deg of the outbound heading or on the outbound heading. Cross the holding fix and turn to an outbound course that parallels the inbound course on the non-holding side. Continue for one minute, then turn to the holding side to the inbound course.

C) Teardrop Entry, used when approaching the holding fix from the non-holding side within 70 deg of the outbound heading or on the outbound heading. Cross the fix and turn 30 deg to the holding side of the outbound heading. Continue for one minute then turn to the inbound course.

19
Q

What is a standard rate turn?

A

180 deg in a minute

20
Q

What is the purpose of an EFC?

A

The purpose of the EFC time is twofold:

A) First, the EFC lets the aviator know how long that he or she is expected to remain in a holding pattern.

B) Second, it provides him or her with a clearance time to leave the holding pattern if two-way radio communications failure occurs.

21
Q

When are you allowed to leave a holding fix?

A

Leave the holding fix:

A) When ATC issues either further clearance en route or approach clearance.

B) As prescribed in CFR Title 14, Part 91 (for IFR operations; two-way radio communications failure, and responsibility and authority of the PC).

C) After canceling the IFR flight plan, if holding in VFR conditions.

22
Q

When is a course reversal maneuver or procedure turn not authorized?

A

This procedure is not authorized when—

A) “No PT” appears on the approach course on the plan view of the approach chart.

B) Radar vectoring is provided to the final approach course.

C) A holding pattern is published in lieu of a procedure turn.

D) A timed approach is executed from a holding fix.

E) Otherwise directed by ATC.

23
Q

What does it mean to make a “full approach” when conducting an instrument approach? What is this an alternative to?

A

A) When flown as a full approach, aviators conduct their own navigation using routes and altitudes depicted on the instrument approach chart.

B) An IAP flown with the assistance of radar vectors.

24
Q

What are the 4 different kinds of procedure turns and how are each executed?

A

A) Teardrop pattern: 2 minutes outbound, 30 degree turn, 1 minute off course, 210 degree in the opposite direction to intercept course

B) Standard 45-degree turn (45/180): 2 minutes outbound, 45 degree turn, 1 minute off course, 180 degree turn in the opposite direction, 45 seconds, 45 degree turn to intercept course

C) The 80/260 course reversal: 2 minutes outbound, 80 degree turn, immediate turn 260 degrees in the opposite direction

D) Holding/racetrack pattern: Holding in-lieu of procedure turn

25
Q

Do Army pilots have to abide by Dual VOR requirements if published on an approach? What about dual VOR minimums?

A

A) No, we are not required to have dual VOR capability to shoot a dual VOR approach

B) Yes, Dual VOR minimums do apply

26
Q

When are you allowed to descend below the MDA on a non-precision approach?

A

Descent below MDA is not authorized until sufficient visual reference with the runway environment has been established and the aircraft is in a position to execute a safe landing.

27
Q

The definition of runway environment for nonprecision and precision approaches is the same and consists of one or more of the following elements:

A

A) Approach light system—the aviator may not descend below 100 feet above the TDZE using approach lights as a reference unless red termination bars or red side-row bars are visible and identifiable.

B) Threshold, threshold markings, or threshold lights.

C) Runway end identifier lights.

D) Touchdown zone, touchdown zone markings, or touchdown zone lights.

E) Runway or runway markings, and runway lights.

F) Visual approach slope indicator.

28
Q

What is the usable range of the glide-slope?

A

10 miles