Chapter 10 & 12 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 patterns of single gene inheritance patterns?

A
  • autosomal dominant
  • Autosomal Recessive
  • X Linked
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Autosomal Dominant Traits, transmission and examples

A
  • trait on dominant gene on non-sex chromosome
  • can be asymptomatic carriers
  • can be transmitted via: men who have offspring in fifties, are carriers and pass new mutation to offspring, can inherit mutations on both genes if both parents are carriers.
  • Hutington Disease and Achondroplasia (dwarfism, congenital)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Autosomal Recessive Trait, transmission and examples

A
  • person receives 2 copies of recessive gene
  • rare
  • recessive disorders are severe, patients usually don’t live long enough to reproduce
  • CF and PKU, tay-sachs, sickle cell, and blood groups
  • 1/4 chance of having recessive disorder if both parents are carriers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

X-Linked recessive traits, transmission and examples

A
  • males usually show full effect of X-linked recessive disorder due to only having 1 X chromosome, only 1 gene is needed
  • females carry trait while males are affected
  • Females can only inherit if female has single X chromosomal (turners syndrome), or born from affected father and carrier mother.
  • Colorblindness, hemophilia
  • varying degrees of severity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Numerical Chromosomal Abnormalities

A

-involved added or missing chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Trisomy

A
  • numerical chromosomal abnormalities
  • extra single chromosome totally 47
  • most common is Triosmy 21/down syndrome where there is 3 pairs of chromosome
  • risk increased with maternal age >35
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Monosomy

A
  • numerical chromosomal abnormalities
  • missing single chromosome totally 45
  • only condition that is compatible with life is Tuner Syndrome (single x chromosome)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Polyploidy

A
  • numerical chromosomal abnormalities
  • one or more extra sets of chromosomes
  • results in spontaneous abortion but occasionally seen in live born infant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Structural Abnormalities

A

-structure of one or more chromosomes may be -abnormal or missing or added DNA or rearranged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Translocation

A
  • part of a chromosome is attached to another
  • offspring may receive too much or too little chromosome material at conception or spontaneously in offspring of parents with no translocation.
  • Structural abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Fragile X Syndrome

A
  • Fragile X syndrome is when a area on the X chromosome is weakened and causes intellectual disability.
  • Translocation abnormalities
  • It is inherited wit the X-Linked dominant pattern.
  • Males mostly affected but females can as well but they have 2 X chromosome.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Multifactorial Disorders characteristics and risk for occurrence

A
  • most common birth defect
  • caused by interaction of genetic susceptibility and environmental factors during development (such as mother must have inadequate folic acid intake and genetic susceptibility for the child to have spinal bifida.
  • can be single, isolated, primary or secondary
  • heart defects, neural tube defects, cleft lip and palette, pyloric stenosis
  • Factors that affect risk include: number of close relatives, severity of disorder, sex, geographic, seasonal variations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Teratogens

A
  • agents that cause a birth defect or increase likelihood of its development
  • infections from viruses/bacteria
  • drugs, tobacco, alcohol
  • aminioglycosides
  • anticonvulsants
  • Statins
  • anitthyroid
  • Folic Acid antagonist
  • Lithium
  • Mercury
  • Tetracycline
  • warfarin
  • ionizing radiation
  • maternal hyperthermia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Rubella Teratogen

A

-immunization at least 4 weeks prior pregnancy to avoid damage to fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Drugs and Other Substances Teratogen

A
  • Class A has no fetal risk
  • Class X poses fetal harm
  • Avoid Alcohol
  • No FDA regulation on botonical products
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Ionizing Radiation Teratogen

A

-radiologic test should be done within first 2 weeks following missed period or have lead on lower abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Maternal Hyperthermia Teratogen

A
  • avoid saunas or hot tubs

- mothers temp can increases uncontrollably during illness

18
Q

Oligohydramnios

A
  • abnormally small volume of amniotic fluid which reduces the cushion surrounding the fetus and can cause deformations
  • interferes with fetal lung development
  • mechanical development to fetal development
19
Q

Fibrous Amniotic Bands

A
  • may result from tears in inner sac of fetal membranes and can cause intrauterine limp amputation
  • mechanical disruptions to fetal development
20
Q

Preconception Screening for Genetic Counsling

A
  • done prior conception
  • family history
  • examination of photographs
  • physical examination
  • carrier testing
  • people from ethnic groups with higher incidence of some disorders
  • chromosome analysis
  • DNA analysis
21
Q

Prenatal Diagnosis for Fetal Abnormalities Screening for Genetic Counseling

A
  • maternal test to screen for abnormalities
  • chorionic villus sampling
  • amniocentesis
  • ultrasound
  • percutaneous umbilical blood sampling
22
Q

Physical Diagnosis for an Infant with Birth Defect for Genetic Counseling

A
  • done after birth
  • physical examination
  • radiologic procedures
  • chromosome analysis
  • DNA analysis
  • Test for metabolic disorders such as PKU and CF
  • Hemoglobin analysis for disorders such as sickle cell disease
  • immunologic testing for infections
  • autopsy
23
Q

What is the time frame for the embryonic period and what happens during this time frame?

A
  • 3 to 8 weeks

- formation of organs

24
Q

Week 1

A

-fertilization and implantation begins

25
Q

Week 2

A
  • implantation is complete
  • Outer cells (trophoblast) becomes placenta
  • Inner cells become embyronic disk
26
Q

Week 3

A
  • Period missed
  • embryonic disk develops in 3 layers (ecotderm, mesoderm, and endotherm
  • CNS develops
  • Neural tube is open
  • 2 chamber heart with 1st beat around 21st day
27
Q

Week 4

A
  • embryo is C shaped
  • tail
  • face and respiratory tract formation begins
  • eye, nose, inner eardevelopment
  • extremity buds appear
28
Q

Week 6

A
  • head is flexeddue to rapid brain growth
  • eyelid development
  • blood formation in liver
  • lobe in lungs develop
  • abdominal cavity containsmostly of liver andkidneys with intestines in umbilical cord
  • 4 chamber heart
29
Q

Week 7

A
  • Face more human looking
  • intestines growing quicker than abdominal v=cavity
  • trunk elongates but still c shaped
30
Q

Week 8

A
  • taste buds develop
  • eyelids fuse
  • heart beat detectable with ultrasound
  • testes or ovaries develop
  • webs between fingers and toes
31
Q

Fetal Period time frame

A

-week 9 to birth

32
Q

Week 10

A
  • may be possible to detect heartbeat with doppler
  • blood produced in spleen
  • digestive tract patent from mouth to anus
  • intestines within abdominal cavity
33
Q

Week 12

A
  • surface of brain is smooth without sulci or gyri
  • nasal and palate complete
  • heart beat should be detectable via doppler
  • sucking reflex present
  • kidneys produce urine
  • lanugo
34
Q

Week 16

A
  • eyes face forward
  • fetus swallows amniotic fluid and produces meconium
  • may feel fetal movements
  • fingerprints developing
35
Q

Week 20

A
  • heartbeat should be detectable with fetoscope
  • peristalsis developed
  • testes descend into scrotum
  • vernix on thin skin
  • brown fat developed
  • movement may be felt by practitioner
36
Q

Week 24

A
  • surfactant production started
  • fetus active
  • eyebrows and lashes present
  • survival is possible
37
Q

Week 28

A
  • sulci and gyri present
  • eyelids no longer fused
  • blood formation in bone marrow
  • sufficient surfactant
  • fetus assumes head down position
38
Q

Week 32

A
  • maturation of nervous system resulting in FHR variability
  • skin is pigmented per race
  • lanugo disappearing
39
Q

Week 38

A
  • sulci and gyri develop
  • visual acuity 20/600 at birth
  • fetus plump with smooth skin
  • vernix present in major body creases
  • ear cartilage firm
40
Q

When does cleft palate occur

A

-week 5-7

41
Q

Autosomal Dominant Examples

A
  • marfans
  • huntington
  • polydactyly
  • dwarfism
42
Q

Autosomal Recessive Examples

A
  • PKU
  • Galactosemia
  • Maple syrup urine disease
  • CF
  • Tay-Sachs
  • Sickle Cell